PANCE · PANRE · Board Prep Intensive

Nephrology
Bootcamp Syllabus

A single-pass, half-day nephrology review built for the PANCE/PANRE: three sorting rules, then Nephrology in 10 Algorithms — the backbone every question hangs on — then 12 table-driven clinical domains — AKI, CKD, glomerular disease, hypertension, sodium, potassium and calcium, acid-base, stones, hereditary disease, dialysis and transplant, special populations, pharmacology — each opened by board-style questions. Finish with Nephrology Code Blue (10 emergencies, diagnosis + first action), 20 Things You Must Know, a 12-case Lightning Round, and 5 integrated cases. 13 decision diagrams, 6 illustrated infographics, and a hyperkalemia ECG viewer.

12Clinical Domains
3–4 hSingle-Pass Format
96Board-Style Questions
10Code Blue Emergencies
18Interactive Diagrams
Tier Key:
Tier 1 — Must Know
Tier 2 — Important
Tier 3 — Lower yield
Learning labels:Memorizeknow exactlyRecognizeknow the patternReferencelook up, don’t memorize

By the end of this bootcamp, you must be able to:

Mastery Contract · 15 Objectives
01Recognize and stage AKI using KDIGO creatinine and urine-output criteria.
02Distinguish prerenal, intrinsic, and postrenal AKI with BUN:Cr, FENa/FEUrea, sediment, and a bladder scan.
03Read urine sediment: RBC casts, WBC casts, muddy-brown casts, fatty casts, and the common crystals.
04Work through hyponatremia in order: serum osmolality → urine osmolality → volume status, and correct it within the 8 mEq/L limit.
05Treat severe hyperkalemia in the correct sequence: stabilize → shift → remove.
06Interpret acid-base disorders with the anion gap, Winter’s formula, delta gap, and urine anion gap.
07Separate nephritic from nephrotic syndrome at the bedside and name the likely lesion by age and association.
08Use complement and antibody patterns (C3/C4, ANA/dsDNA, ANCA, anti-GBM) to sort glomerular disease.
09State the indications for emergent dialysis (AEIOU) and recognize when they are met.
10Evaluate and manage nephrolithiasis by stone size, location, and type, including pregnancy.
11Recognize infected urinary obstruction as a same-day urologic emergency.
12Interpret proteinuria and hematuria correctly — including the light-chain and myoglobin dipstick traps.
13Screen for secondary hypertension from kidney-related clues and manage hypertensive emergency by rate.
14Recognize dialysis access, intradialytic, and transplant emergencies and act before the consult.
15Identify the major nephrotoxins by mechanism and the drugs that require renal dose adjustment.
Before You Begin
Three Rules That Solve Half the Exam
Nearly every nephrology question is one of three sorting tasks. Learn the rules first — each domain below is an application of one.
Before you beginFramework check1 question
Answer this one before you read the topic. Getting it wrong is expected and useful — attempting a question first is what makes the material below stick. The explanation unlocks only after you submit.
In-sessionQ1 of 1 · Medium · Localize the failure
BUN 62 mg/dL   Cr 2.1 (baseline 1.0)   BUN:Cr >20
Urine Na 8 mEq/L   FEUrea 22%   sediment bland
A 70-year-old woman on lisinopril and furosemide develops AKI after 3 days of vomiting. Commit to the location of the problem before reading on. Which best explains this pattern?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: C — Prerenal azotemia from a low-flow state
High BUN:Cr, low urine sodium, and a bland sediment mean the tubules are working hard and the problem is upstream: volume and pressure. Rule 1 — localize before you treat. Prerenal fixes with volume; ATN does not; obstruction fixes with a catheter.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Intrinsic tubular injury from furosemide-induced ischemia — Furosemide causes volume depletion, not tubular necrosis; the sediment is bland
  • Postrenal obstruction from dehydration — Dehydration does not obstruct the urinary tract
  • Acute interstitial nephritis from lisinopril — ACE inhibitors reduce efferent tone (hemodynamic), they rarely cause AIN
  • Immune-complex glomerulonephritis triggered by the gastroenteritis — Gastroenteritis is not a trigger for GN; PSGN follows streptococcal infection by weeks
Board pearlRule 1: three sites of failure. Rule 2: sodium disorders are water disorders. Rule 3: potassium disorders are shift or excretion. Ask which rule applies before you answer.
Tier 1
Rule Card
The Nephrology Operating System
Localize the injury · Sodium is water · Potassium is shift or excretion
★★★ Read First
RuleThe Question It AnswersThe Labs That Decide
1 · Localize kidney injuryPrerenal (flow), intrinsic (tubule / interstitium / glomerulus), or postrenal (plumbing)?BUN:Cr, FENa (FEUrea on diuretics), sediment, bladder scan
2 · Sodium is a water problemIs ADH on, and why?Serum osm → urine osm → volume + urine Na
3 · Potassium is shift or excretionDid K move across cells, or did the kidney stop excreting it?Acid-base, drugs, GFR, aldosterone; ECG decides urgency
The Three Reflex Errors
  • Treating before localizing — fluids into an obstructed bladder, diuretics into a prerenal kidney
  • Correcting sodium at the speed of the lab — the brain sets the limit: 8 mEq/L per day
  • Giving calcium and stopping — calcium stabilizes; it does not lower potassium
The Backbone · Learn These Ten, Hang Everything Else On Them
Nephrology in 10 Algorithms
Every question in this bootcamp enters through one of these ten doors. Each is short enough to say aloud; the detail lives in the domain it links to.
01
Creatinine ↑
Acute Kidney Injury
  1. Confirm AKI: Cr ↑≥0.3 / 48 h or ≥1.5× / 7 d, or UO <0.5 mL/kg/h × 6 h
  2. Volume and hemodynamics: orthostatics, JVP, weights, MAP
  3. Nephrotoxin review: NSAID, ACEi/ARB, diuretic, contrast, aminoglycoside, vanc + pip-tazo
  4. Urinalysis and sediment: bland vs muddy vs WBC vs RBC casts; dipstick vs microscopy
  5. Sort: prerenal (BUN:Cr >20, FENa <1%) vs intrinsic (FENa >2%, casts) vs postrenal
  6. Obstruction: bladder scan first; renal ultrasound if anuria, retention, or no other cause
  7. Nephrology / dialysis if AEIOU or unexplained, progressive, or GN-pattern AKI
FLOW · FILTER · FLUSHGo deeper → Domain 1
02
Sodium ↓
Hyponatremia
  1. Serum osmolality: normal = pseudo; high = glucose/mannitol; low = real
  2. Urine osmolality: <100 = ADH off (polydipsia, low solute); >100 = ADH on
  3. Volume status + urine Na: hypovolemic (<20 GI; >20 thiazide/adrenal) · euvolemic (SIADH >30) · hypervolemic (<20)
  4. Symptomatic? Seizure, coma, vomiting, obtundation = severe
  5. Severe: 3% saline 100–150 mL bolus, up to 3×, goal +4–6 mEq/L
  6. Limit: ≤8 mEq/L per 24 h (6 if Na ≤105, alcohol, malnutrition, low K, liver disease)
  7. Overcorrection rescue: D5W + desmopressin 2 µg IV
OSM → URINE OSM → VOLUMEGo deeper → Domain 5
03
Potassium ↑
Hyperkalemia
  1. ECG now: peaked T → flat P / long PR → wide QRS → sine wave (normal ECG does not exclude)
  2. STABILIZE: calcium gluconate 1–3 g IV for any ECG change or K ≥6.5; repeat q5–10 min
  3. SHIFT: insulin 5–10 U + dextrose; albuterol 10–20 mg neb; bicarbonate only if acidotic
  4. REMOVE: loop diuretic; SZC or patiromer; hemodialysis
  5. Cause: GFR, ACEi/ARB/MRA/K-sparing/NSAID/TMP, type 4 RTA, adrenal insufficiency, lysis, pseudo (repeat in plasma)
  6. Dialysis if kidney failure, refractory K, or ECG changes with oliguria
STABILIZE → SHIFT → REMOVEGo deeper → Domain 6
04
Bicarbonate ↓
Metabolic Acidosis
  1. Anion gap = Na − (Cl + HCO3); normal 8–12
  2. Correct for albumin: +2.5 per g/dL below 4
  3. Winter’s: expected PaCO2 = 1.5 × HCO3 + 8 ± 2; outside = second disorder
  4. Delta gap if AG elevated: <1 hidden non-gap acidosis; >2 hidden alkalosis
  5. Gap (MUDPILES) → osmolar gap, lactate, ketones, salicylate · Non-gap (HARDASS) → urine anion gap
  6. Urine AG negative = diarrhea; positive = RTA (type 1 stones/pH >5.5; 2 Fanconi; 4 high K)
  7. Treat the cause; fomepizole + dialysis for toxic alcohols; bicarbonate for non-gap and pH <7.1
GAP · ALBUMIN · WINTER’S · DELTAGo deeper → Domain 7
05
Hematuria ± proteinuria
Glomerular vs Urologic
  1. Confirm with microscopy (≥3 RBC/hpf); dipstick alone = myoglobin/hemoglobin trap
  2. Dysmorphic RBCs, acanthocytes, RBC casts, or proteinuria >500 mg = glomerular
  3. Glomerular: C3/C4, ANA, ANCA, anti-GBM, ASO, hepatitis/HIV, UPCR → nephrology ± biopsy
  4. Isomorphic RBCs, clots, pain, or no proteinuria = urologic
  5. Urologic risk: age ≥35–40, smoking, dyes, cyclophosphamide, pelvic radiation, gross hematuria
  6. CT urography + cystoscopy for risk-stratified patients; anticoagulation never explains hematuria
CASTS = KIDNEY · CLOTS = PLUMBINGGo deeper → Domain 3
06
Edema + heavy proteinuria
Nephrotic Syndrome
  1. Confirm degree: UPCR or 24-h >3.5 g; albumin <3.5; lipids up; fatty casts
  2. Primary vs secondary: diabetes, HIV (FSGS), cancer/HBV (membranous), NSAIDs/Hodgkin (MCD), amyloid (SPEP/FLC), lupus V
  3. Complications: renal vein thrombosis (membranous), pneumococcal infection, AKI, hyperlipidemia
  4. Biopsy adults unless PLA2R+ membranous or classic diabetic; children get steroids first
  5. Treat: RAAS + SGLT2i, loop diuretics, statin, salt restriction, anticoagulate if albumin <2.5; lesion-specific therapy
3.5 · 3.5 · EDEMA · LIPIDSGo deeper → Domain 3
07
RBC casts + hypertension + rising Cr
Nephritic Syndrome / RPGN
  1. Complement: low C3 = PSGN, lupus (+ low C4), MPGN/cryo, endocarditis; normal = IgA, ANCA, anti-GBM
  2. ANA / anti-dsDNA: lupus nephritis → biopsy, induction
  3. ANCA: MPO/p = MPA; PR3/c = GPA → rituximab or cyclophosphamide + steroids
  4. Anti-GBM: linear IgG, hemoptysis → plasmapheresis + steroids + cyclophosphamide
  5. Infection-related: strep (weeks; ASO), endocarditis, HCV, HBV, HIV → treat the infection
  6. Biopsy is urgent when Cr is rising over days–weeks or there is hemoptysis — start steroids while waiting
C3 FIRST, THEN THE ANTIBODIESGo deeper → Domain 3
08
Flank pain + hematuria
Kidney Stone
  1. Imaging: non-contrast CT; pregnancy or child = ultrasound first (no CT, no ESWL)
  2. Size and location: ≤10 mm distal usually passes; >10 mm rarely does
  3. Analgesia: NSAIDs (ketorolac) first; opioids second; avoid NSAIDs in CKD/pregnancy
  4. Medical expulsive therapy: tamsulosin for distal stones 5–10 mm; strain; reimage 14 days
  5. Red flags: fever, pyuria, AKI, solitary kidney, intractable pain, bilateral obstruction
  6. Infected + obstructed = IV antibiotics + stent or nephrostomy today; stone treatment later
  7. Prevention by type: thiazide (Ca), citrate (uric acid, cystine, hypocitraturia), PCNL (struvite); never restrict calcium
UNDER 10 WAIT · OVER 10 UROLOGY · FEVER DRAINGo deeper → Domain 8
09
Hypertension + kidney findings
Secondary Hypertension
  1. Suspect when onset <30 or >55, resistant on 3 drugs, hypokalemia, bruit, flash pulmonary edema, or AKI on ACEi
  2. Renovascular: duplex / CTA → FMD (young woman, beads) = angioplasty; atherosclerotic = medical therapy
  3. Primary aldosteronism: aldosterone/renin ratio (most common secondary cause; hypokalemia)
  4. CKD: UACR, eGFR, ultrasound → ACEi/ARB + four pillars
  5. Endocrine: metanephrines (pheochromocytoma), cortisol (Cushing), TSH, calcium/PTH; OSA by polysomnography
  6. Principles: <130/80; two drugs for stage 2; spironolactone for resistant; emergency = MAP −20–25% in hour 1
LOW K → ALDO/RENIN · BRUIT → CTAGo deeper → Domain 4
10
Kidney failure
Does This Patient Need Dialysis NOW?
  1. Acidosis: pH <7.1 refractory to bicarbonate
  2. Electrolytes: K >6.5 or ECG changes refractory to calcium / shift / diuretic
  3. Ingestions: salicylates, lithium, isopropanol / methanol / ethylene glycol, metformin, valproate, theophylline
  4. Overload: pulmonary edema refractory to diuretics (or anuric)
  5. Uremia: pericarditis (no heparin), encephalopathy, bleeding, refractory nausea
  6. The word is refractory: a K of 6.2 with a normal ECG, or an eGFR of 10 without symptoms, does not get a catheter
AEIOU — ALL REFRACTORYGo deeper → Domain 1
Domain 1 · Largest Nephrology Blueprint Item
Acute Kidney Injury: Localize, Then Treat
Before you beginAcute Kidney Injury3 questions
Answer these three before you read the topics. Getting them wrong is expected and useful — attempting a question first is what makes the material below stick. Each explanation unlocks only after you submit.
In-sessionQ1 of 3 · Medium · AKI · Reading the Urine
A 74-year-old man with heart failure presents with 3 days of vomiting and poor oral intake. Creatinine is 2.1 mg/dL (baseline 1.0). He takes no diuretics. Urinalysis shows no casts. Urine sodium is 12 mEq/L, urine osmolality 560 mOsm/kg, and fractional excretion of sodium (FENa) is 0.6%. BUN is 62 mg/dL. Which of the following is the most likely cause of his acute kidney injury?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: A — Prerenal azotemia
Every number in this stem points the same direction. FENa <1%, urine sodium <20 mEq/L, urine osmolality >500, and a BUN:creatinine ratio >20:1 all indicate tubules that are intact and avidly reabsorbing sodium and water in response to reduced perfusion — the definition of prerenal azotemia. A bland sediment confirms the parenchyma is not (yet) injured. The treatment is to restore perfusion with isotonic crystalloid and stop the insult; creatinine should fall within 24–72 hours.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Acute interstitial nephritis — AIN is a drug hypersensitivity picture: WBC casts, sterile pyuria, sometimes fever/rash/eosinophilia, and no relationship to volume depletion.
  • Acute tubular necrosis — ATN produces the opposite profile: FENa >2%, urine sodium >40, urine osmolality <350 (isosthenuric — the tubules cannot concentrate), and muddy-brown granular casts.
  • Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis — RPGN shows an active nephritic sediment — dysmorphic RBCs and RBC casts with hematuria and proteinuria. A bland urine effectively excludes it.
  • Postrenal obstruction — Obstruction is not excluded by history alone, but the concentrated urine and low FENa argue against it; postrenal AKI is confirmed or excluded by renal ultrasound, not urine chemistry.
Board pearlPrerenal = FENa <1%, UNa <20, UOsm >500, BUN:Cr >20, bland sediment. ATN = FENa >2%, UNa >40, UOsm <350, muddy-brown casts. If the patient is on a diuretic, FENa is uninterpretable — use FEUrea <35% for prerenal instead. And remember the FENa <1% impostors that are actually intrinsic: contrast, rhabdomyolysis, early glomerulonephritis, hepatorenal syndrome.
In-sessionQ2 of 3 · Medium · AKI
A 78-year-old man with benign prostatic hyperplasia is brought in with 3 days of decreased urine output, lower abdominal fullness, and confusion. Creatinine is 4.1 mg/dL (baseline 1.1), potassium 5.6 mEq/L. He started diphenhydramine for sleep one week ago. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: D — Bladder scan and urethral catheter
Anuria, suprapubic fullness, BPH, and a new anticholinergic point to acute urinary retention with postrenal AKI. The first step is to confirm and relieve the obstruction — a bedside bladder scan followed by a urethral (or suprapubic) catheter. Creatinine often falls within 24–48 hours. Anticipate post-obstructive diuresis (replace roughly half the output if it exceeds 200 mL/h for 2 hours) and stop the offending drug.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Renal ultrasound with Doppler — Ultrasound is appropriate for upper-tract obstruction but a bladder scan is faster and decompression cannot wait
  • Isotonic saline bolus 1 L — Fluids into an obstructed bladder worsen distension and do not treat the cause
  • Furosemide 80 mg IV to restore urine output — Diuretics do nothing for an outlet obstruction and can precipitate hypotension
  • Nephrology consult for urgent hemodialysis — Dialysis is not indicated for a reversible obstruction with K 5.6 and no ECG changes; relieve the obstruction first
Board pearlElderly man + BPH + anticholinergic + anuria = bladder scan and catheter before anything else. Postrenal AKI is the most reversible category.
In-sessionQ3 of 3 · Medium · AKI
A 58-year-old woman started omeprazole 6 weeks ago for reflux. She now has malaise, low-grade fever, and a creatinine of 2.6 mg/dL (baseline 0.9). Urinalysis shows 1+ protein, 15–20 WBC/hpf, WBC casts, and no bacteria; urine culture is negative. Eosinophils are 6% of the differential. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: C — Acute interstitial nephritis
Subacute AKI weeks after a new drug, sterile pyuria with WBC casts, and mild proteinuria is drug-induced acute interstitial nephritis. Proton pump inhibitors are now the most common outpatient cause; β-lactams, NSAIDs, sulfonamides, and checkpoint inhibitors are the others. Stop the drug; give corticosteroids if creatinine does not improve within days.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Acute pyelonephritis — Pyelonephritis produces flank pain, positive culture, and bacteriuria — the culture here is sterile
  • Acute tubular necrosis — ATN shows muddy-brown granular casts, not WBC casts, and follows ischemia or a direct toxin
  • Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis — RPGN shows RBC casts and dysmorphic RBCs with hypertension, not pyuria
  • Prerenal azotemia — Prerenal azotemia has a bland sediment and responds to volume
Board pearlNew drug + WBC casts + sterile pyuria = AIN. The classic fever/rash/eosinophilia triad is present in fewer than 15% — do not require it.
Tier 1
Domain 1
Acute Kidney Injury
KDIGO Definition · Three Buckets · The Sediment · Named Entities · AEIOU
★★★ Highest Yield
Definition (KDIGO)Memorize
  • Cr ↑≥0.3 in 48 h, or ≥1.5× baseline in 7 days, or UO <0.5 mL/kg/h × 6 h. Stage 3 = 3×, Cr ≥4, dialysis, or anuria 12 h. Creatinine lags injury by 24–48 h.
  • AKI ≤7 days → AKD 7–90 days → CKD ≥3 months. Every AKI gets a 3-month recheck.
The Three Buckets
PrerenalIntrinsic (ATN)Postrenal
CauseHypovolemia, HF, cirrhosis, sepsis, NSAID + ACEi + diureticIschemia, contrast, aminoglycosides, rhabdo, cisplatinBPH, stones, pelvic mass, anticholinergics
BUN:Cr / FENa>20 / <1% (FEUrea <35%)<15 / >2%Variable
SedimentBland, hyaline castsMuddy-brown granular castsBland; hydronephrosis on US
FixVolume / perfusion; stop the triple whammyTime, support, stop toxin (1–3 wk)Catheter / stent / nephrostomy today; expect post-obstructive diuresis (replace half if >200 mL/h)
Sediment = Bedside Biopsy
  • Muddy-brown ATN · RBC casts GN · WBC casts + sterile pyuria AIN (or pyelo if bacteria) · Fatty casts nephrotic · Heme-positive dipstick, no RBCs myoglobin/hemoglobin.
  • Dipstick detects only albumin — myeloma light chains are missed (negative dipstick, positive UPCR, low anion gap).
Named EntitiesRecognize
  • Contrast: Cr peaks day 3–5, FENa often <1%. Prevention = isotonic saline + minimal contrast + hold NSAIDs/metformin. NAC and bicarbonate: no benefit.
  • Rhabdomyolysis: CK >5×, dipstick +/microscopy −, K/phos up, Ca down. Isotonic fluids 1–2 L/h to UO 200–300 mL/h. No bicarbonate/mannitol first; no calcium unless symptomatic.
  • AIN: new drug (PPI, β-lactam, NSAID, sulfa, checkpoint inhibitor) + WBC casts. Triad (fever/rash/eosinophilia) in <15%. Stop drug ± steroids.
  • Hepatorenal: cirrhosis + AKI + no response to 48 h albumin + bland urine (Na <10). Terlipressin (or norepinephrine) + albumin; transplant cures.
  • Cardiorenal: congested kidney — diurese harder, accept a creatinine bump. Cholesterol emboli: livedo + eosinophilia + stepwise Cr rise after catheterization — supportive only.
Urgent Dialysis — AEIOUMemorize
  • Acidosis pH <7.1 · Electrolytes (refractory K) · Ingestions (SLIME: salicylates, lithium, isopropanol/toxic alcohols, metformin, ethylene glycol) · Overload refractory to diuretics · Uremia (pericarditis, encephalopathy). All “refractory” — early pre-emptive dialysis does not help.
⚑ Board Traps — AKI
  • Low FENa impostors: contrast, rhabdo, hemolysis, hepatorenal, sepsis, early GN — intrinsic disease with FENa <1%
  • Anuria = bladder scan first, before fluids or diuretics
  • K 6.2 with a normal ECG is treated medically, not with a dialysis catheter
  • Diuretics invalidate FENa — use FEUrea
★ Memory Trick
“Flow, Filter, Flush” — prerenal, intrinsic, postrenal; treat the F you found Rhabdo = “dipstick lies, microscope tells the truth”
Before you beginVariation — Same Patient, One Thing Different2 questions
Answer these two before you read the topics. Getting them wrong is expected and useful — attempting a question first is what makes the material below stick. Each explanation unlocks only after you submit.
VariationQ1 of 2 · Variation · AKI
Cr 2.1   BUN 58   on furosemide
FENa 2.4%   FEUrea 28%
↻ One variable changed: diuretic added
The same 74-year-old man with heart failure and 3 days of vomiting — but he takes furosemide 40 mg daily. Creatinine is 2.1 (baseline 1.0). Which of the following is the most useful test to distinguish prerenal AKI from tubular injury?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: C — Fractional excretion of urea
Loop diuretics force sodium into the urine, so FENa is uninterpretable. FEUrea (<35% prerenal; >50% ATN) is unaffected by diuretics because urea handling is proximal.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Fractional excretion of sodium — FENa is invalidated by any diuretic acting distal to the proximal tubule
  • Urine specific gravity — Specific gravity is also raised by contrast, glucose, and protein and lowered by diuretics
  • Serum cystatin C — Cystatin C estimates GFR; it does not localize the injury
  • Renal ultrasound with Doppler — Ultrasound excludes obstruction; it does not separate prerenal from ATN
Board pearlDiuretic on board → FEUrea, not FENa.
Covered below under
VariationQ2 of 2 · Variation · AKI
Cr 2.1 → 3.4   UO 20 mL/h   FENa 3.1%
Sediment: muddy-brown casts
↻ One variable changed: sediment now shows casts
The same patient, now on hospital day 3 after 2 L of saline. Creatinine has risen to 3.4 mg/dL and urine output is 20 mL/h. Microscopy now shows muddy-brown granular casts. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: D — Supportive care: stop nephrotoxins, match fluids to output, watch for AEIOU
The prerenal state has progressed to acute tubular necrosis. There is no drug that reverses ATN; fluids into a patient who is no longer volume-depleted cause pulmonary edema. Management is supportive while the tubules regenerate over 1–3 weeks, with dialysis only for refractory AEIOU indications.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Additional 2 L isotonic saline bolus and reassess in 6 hours — Strongest distractor: a second bolus — the failed first challenge and the casts mean the kidney is injured, not dry; more saline causes overload
  • Furosemide 80 mg IV to convert to non-oliguric AKI — Diuretics do not change ATN outcome or mortality (they are used only for volume overload)
  • Low-dose (renal-dose) dopamine infusion to improve renal perfusion — Renal-dose dopamine has no benefit and causes arrhythmias
  • Urgent hemodialysis for the rising creatinine — K, pH, and volume are not stated to be refractory; dialysis for a creatinine number is not indicated
Board pearlMuddy casts after a failed fluid trial = ATN = support, do not flood.
Covered below under
Interactive · Recognize It in Three Seconds
Urine Microscopy Challenge
Nine fields. Name the finding, then the diagnosis it points to. Illustrations are schematic teaching drawings in the bootcamp style, not photomicrographs.
Before you beginUrine Microscopy Challenge9 questions
Answer these nine before you read the topics. Getting them wrong is expected and useful — attempting a question first is what makes the material below stick. Each explanation unlocks only after you submit.
MicroscopyQ1 of 9 · Recognize · Field 1
400× · PA CLINICAL BOOTCAMP
What is this? And what diagnosis should it make you think of?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: A — Red blood cell cast — glomerulonephritis
A cylindrical Tamm-Horsfall matrix packed with red cells can only form if red cells entered the tubule from the glomerulus. RBC casts = glomerular bleeding = glomerulonephritis until proven otherwise.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Hyaline cast — normal concentrated urine — Hyaline casts are translucent and empty
  • Granular cast — acute tubular necrosis — Granular casts are coarse brown debris, not intact cells
  • White cell cast — pyelonephritis — WBC casts contain lobulated leukocytes
  • Waxy cast — advanced chronic kidney disease with tubular atrophy — Waxy casts are broad, smooth, and homogeneous
Board pearlRBC casts are never benign — same-week nephrology evaluation, serologies, likely biopsy.
Covered below under
MicroscopyQ2 of 9 · Recognize · Field 2
400× · PA CLINICAL BOOTCAMP
What is this? And what diagnosis should it make you think of?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: C — White cell cast — interstitial nephritis or pyelonephritis
Leukocytes in a cast mean inflammation within the kidney. Sterile pyuria + a new drug = AIN; fever, flank pain, and bacteria = pyelonephritis. Lower urinary tract infection never makes casts.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Red blood cell cast — IgA nephropathy or post-streptococcal GN — RBC casts are uniform red discs
  • Fatty cast — nephrotic syndrome — Fatty casts contain refractile droplets
  • Hyaline cast — prerenal azotemia — Hyaline casts are acellular
  • Renal tubular epithelial cell cast — contrast nephropathy — Epithelial casts are seen in ATN, with muddy debris
Board pearlWBC casts localize the infection or inflammation to the kidney itself.
Covered below under
MicroscopyQ3 of 9 · Recognize · Field 3
400× · PA CLINICAL BOOTCAMP
What is this? And what diagnosis should it make you think of?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: B — Muddy-brown granular cast — acute tubular necrosis
Sloughed, degenerating tubular epithelial cells form coarse brown granular (“muddy”) casts — the signature of ischemic or toxic ATN. FENa >2% usually accompanies them.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Struvite crystals — urease-producing infection — Struvite crystals are prisms, not cylinders
  • Red blood cell cast — rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis — RBC casts are made of discrete red cells
  • Bilirubin-stained cast — hepatorenal syndrome — Hepatorenal urine is bland; pigment does not form casts
  • Waxy cast — advanced CKD — Waxy casts are smooth and homogeneous
Board pearlMuddy casts after a failed fluid trial = ATN — support, do not flood.
Covered below under
MicroscopyQ4 of 9 · Recognize · Field 4
400× · PA CLINICAL BOOTCAMP
What is this? And what diagnosis should it make you think of?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: A — Hyaline cast — normal concentrated urine or prerenal state
Translucent, empty Tamm-Horsfall protein cylinders. Hyaline casts are normal and increase with dehydration, exercise, diuretics, and prerenal states. They carry no diagnostic weight beyond “the urine is concentrated.”
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Waxy cast — advanced chronic kidney disease with tubular atrophy — Waxy casts are broad, dense, and sharply outlined
  • Granular cast — tubular necrosis — Granular casts contain visible debris
  • Fatty cast — minimal change disease — Fatty casts contain refractile lipid
  • Mucus thread — contamination from the lower urinary tract — Mucus threads are irregular, not cylindrical
Board pearlHyaline casts + BUN:Cr >20 + FENa <1% = the prerenal picture.
Covered below under
MicroscopyQ5 of 9 · Recognize · Field 5
POLARIZED400× · PA CLINICAL BOOTCAMP
What is this? And what diagnosis should it make you think of?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: E — Fatty cast, oval fat body, Maltese cross — nephrotic syndrome
Lipiduria follows heavy proteinuria: lipid-laden tubular cells (oval fat bodies) and fatty casts that show a Maltese cross under polarized light. This is the urinary signature of nephrotic syndrome.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Red blood cell cast — lupus nephritis — RBC casts are cellular, not refractile
  • Cholesterol emboli — atheroembolic disease after catheterization — Cholesterol emboli are diagnosed on tissue, not in urine
  • Uric acid crystals — tumor lysis — Uric acid crystals are yellow rhomboids, not casts
  • Granular cast — aminoglycoside toxicity — Granular casts lack refractile droplets
Board pearlMaltese cross = fat = nephrotic syndrome (>3.5 g/day).
Covered below under
MicroscopyQ6 of 9 · Recognize · Field 6
400× · PA CLINICAL BOOTCAMP
What is this? And what diagnosis should it make you think of?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: C — Calcium oxalate (envelope) — calcium stones or ethylene glycol
Square “envelope” crystals are calcium oxalate dihydrate — the most common stone. In a patient with AKI, an anion and osmolar gap, and hypocalcemia, they mean ethylene glycol poisoning (fomepizole + dialysis).
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Uric acid crystals — gout — Uric acid crystals are rhomboid and yellow-brown
  • Cystine crystals — cystinuria — Cystine crystals are hexagonal
  • Struvite crystals — urease-producing Proteus infection and staghorn stones — Struvite crystals are coffin-lid prisms
  • Amorphous phosphate — nonspecific finding in alkaline urine — Amorphous phosphate is granular debris without geometry
Board pearlEnvelopes + AKI + gap-gap = antifreeze.
Covered below under
MicroscopyQ7 of 9 · Recognize · Field 7
400× · PA CLINICAL BOOTCAMP
What is this? And what diagnosis should it make you think of?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: D — Uric acid (rhomboid/rosette) — uric acid stones, gout, tumor lysis
Yellow-brown rhomboids and rosettes in acid urine (pH <5.5). Uric acid stones are invisible on plain X-ray and the only stones that dissolve — potassium citrate to pH 6–6.5.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Calcium oxalate — hyperoxaluria from fat malabsorption or ethylene glycol — Oxalate crystals are square envelopes
  • Cystine — hereditary stone disease — Cystine is hexagonal
  • Struvite — staghorn calculus — Struvite is a coffin-lid prism in alkaline urine
  • Sulfonamide crystals — drug-induced crystal nephropathy — Sulfonamide crystals resemble sheaves of wheat
Board pearlRadiolucent + acid urine = uric acid = alkalinize.
Covered below under
MicroscopyQ8 of 9 · Recognize · Field 8
400× · PA CLINICAL BOOTCAMP
What is this? And what diagnosis should it make you think of?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: B — Struvite (coffin-lid) — urease infection and staghorn stones
Coffin-lid prisms of magnesium ammonium phosphate form in alkaline urine (pH >7) made by urease producers (Proteus, Klebsiella, S. saprophyticus). They build staghorn calculi that require complete surgical removal.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Cystine crystals — cystinuria — Cystine is hexagonal and forms in acid urine
  • Calcium phosphate — distal renal tubular acidosis or hyperparathyroidism — Calcium phosphate crystals are wedge-shaped prisms
  • Uric acid — metabolic syndrome — Uric acid forms in acid urine
  • Triamterene crystals — drug-induced stones in a patient on the diuretic — Triamterene crystals are brown spheres
Board pearlCoffin lids + pH >7 + Proteus = struvite = PCNL, not antibiotics alone.
Covered below under
MicroscopyQ9 of 9 · Recognize · Field 9
400× · PA CLINICAL BOOTCAMP
What is this? And what diagnosis should it make you think of?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: E — Cystine (hexagonal) crystals — cystinuria
Flat, colorless hexagons are pathognomonic of cystinuria (autosomal recessive defect of dibasic amino acid transport) — think of it in a teenager with recurrent stones. Fluids >4 L, alkalinize to pH >7, tiopronin or penicillamine.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Calcium oxalate monohydrate — dumbbell form — Oxalate monohydrate forms dumbbells or ovals
  • Struvite — alkaline infection stone — Struvite is a coffin-lid prism
  • Uric acid — gout — Uric acid is rhomboid
  • Cholesterol crystals — nephrotic syndrome — Cholesterol crystals are notched plates
Board pearlHexagons in a teenager = cystinuria.
Covered below under
Domain 2 · Chronic Kidney Disease
CKD: Stage It, Slow It, Treat the Five Complications
Before you beginChronic Kidney Disease2 questions
Answer these two before you read the topics. Getting them wrong is expected and useful — attempting a question first is what makes the material below stick. Each explanation unlocks only after you submit.
In-sessionQ1 of 2 · Medium · CKD · Complications
A 68-year-old woman with CKD G4 (eGFR 22 mL/min/1.73 m²) has fatigue. Hemoglobin is 9.2 g/dL, MCV 86 fL, ferritin 38 ng/mL, transferrin saturation 14%, B12 and folate normal, no evidence of bleeding. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: A — Replete iron and reassess hemoglobin before considering an ESA
Anemia of CKD is a diagnosis of exclusion, and the first thing to exclude — and treat — is iron deficiency. In CKD the thresholds are set higher than in the general population: iron repletion is indicated when TSAT ≤20% and/or ferritin ≤100 ng/mL (≤200 in dialysis patients). Her TSAT of 14% and ferritin of 38 make her iron-deficient. Give iron (oral is reasonable in non-dialysis CKD; IV if oral fails or is not tolerated), then reassess. An ESA is only added if hemoglobin remains <10 g/dL after iron stores are replete, targeting a hemoglobin of 10–11.5 g/dL — never ≥13, because CHOIR, CREATE, and TREAT showed more stroke, thrombosis, and cardiovascular events at higher targets.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Transfuse one unit of packed red blood cells and recheck hemoglobin in 24 hours — Transfusion is reserved for symptomatic or hemodynamically significant anemia; it exposes a potential transplant candidate to HLA sensitization.
  • Start an erythropoiesis-stimulating agent targeting hemoglobin 13 g/dL — ESAs given to an iron-deficient patient are ineffective and waste drug; a target of 13 g/dL is associated with excess stroke and cardiovascular death (TREAT, CHOIR).
  • Start a hypoxia-inducible factor prolyl hydroxylase inhibitor — HIF-PH inhibitors (daprodustat) are approved in the US only for dialysis-dependent patients, and iron deficiency should still be corrected first.
  • Refer for bone marrow biopsy — A normocytic anemia with a compelling explanation (iron deficiency in CKD) does not need marrow examination.
Board pearlIron first, ESA second, hemoglobin target 10–11.5, never >13. CKD iron thresholds: TSAT ≤20% and ferritin ≤100 (non-dialysis) or ≤200 (dialysis). ESA cautions: uncontrolled hypertension, active malignancy, recent stroke. If an ESA fails, think occult blood loss, iron deficiency, hyperparathyroidism, inflammation, or pure red cell aplasia.
In-sessionQ2 of 2 · Medium · CKD
A 59-year-old man with CKD G4 has calcium 8.4 mg/dL, phosphate 6.2 mg/dL, intact PTH 380 pg/mL, and 25-OH vitamin D 14 ng/mL. He takes no binders or vitamin D. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial intervention?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: E — Phosphate restriction, a binder, and nutritional vitamin D
This is secondary hyperparathyroidism from CKD-MBD. The sequence is: control phosphate first (diet, then a binder — a non-calcium binder like sevelamer is favored when there is any hypercalcemia or calcification concern), replete nutritional vitamin D if 25-OH D is low, and only then consider active vitamin D or a calcimimetic for persistent PTH elevation. Correcting phosphate alone lowers PTH.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Start calcitriol to suppress parathyroid hormone — Calcitriol raises both calcium and phosphate absorption — giving it with phosphate 6.2 worsens the calcium-phosphate product and calcification
  • Start cinacalcet to lower parathyroid hormone — Cinacalcet is used for refractory hyperparathyroidism, mainly in dialysis; it is not the first step and would worsen borderline-low calcium
  • Refer for parathyroidectomy — Surgery is for tertiary/refractory disease with severe hypercalcemia or symptoms despite medical therapy
  • Start calcium carbonate with meals to correct the hypocalcemia — Calcium is not the target; the calcium is mildly low because of high phosphate and low vitamin D — fix those, and a calcium-based binder should be limited given phosphate 6.2 and calcification risk
Board pearlCKD-MBD order of operations: phosphate first, nutritional vitamin D second, active vitamin D/calcimimetic third, surgery last.
Tier 1
Domain 2
Chronic Kidney Disease
G/A Staging · Four Pillars · Five Complications · When to Refer & Prepare
★★★ Highest Yield
Diagnosis & StagingMemorize
  • ≥3 months of eGFR <60 or UACR ≥30 (or structural damage). One value is never CKD.
  • G: 90 / 60 / 45 / 30 / 15. A: 30 / 300 mg/g. Albuminuria predicts outcome independent of GFR. CKD-EPI 2021 (race-free); cystatin C when muscle mass is atypical.
  • Causes: diabetes > hypertension > glomerular > cystic > obstruction. Small echogenic kidneys = chronic; large in diabetes, ADPKD, amyloid, HIVAN.
Slow Progression — Four Pillars (KDIGO 2024)Memorize
PillarWhoThe Tested Rule
ACEi or ARBUACR ≥30 with HTN; ≥300 regardlessMax dose; accept Cr rise ≤30%; never two RAAS agents; continue at low eGFR
SGLT2 inhibitorCKD with or without diabetesStart at eGFR ≥20, continue to dialysis; hold 3–4 d pre-op (euDKA)
FinerenoneT2D + albuminuria on ACEi/ARBeGFR ≥25, K ≤4.8; recheck K at 4 weeks
GLP-1 RAT2D + CKDKidney + CV benefit (FLOW); no renal dose change
  • Plus: BP <130/80, statin, A1c ~7%, Na <2 g, protein 0.8 g/kg, no NSAIDs, sick-day rules (SADMANS), hepatitis B / pneumococcal / zoster vaccines. Metformin: stop <30, halve 30–45.
Five Complications
ComplicationRuleTrap
AnemiaIron first (TSAT ≤20%, ferritin ≤100) → ESA if Hb <10 → target 10–11.5Hb ≥13 on ESA = stroke/thrombosis
Bone-mineralPhos ↑ → calcitriol ↓ → Ca ↓ → PTH ↑. Binder first (sevelamer if Ca high), nutritional D, then active D / cinacalcetCalcitriol with high phosphate = calcification
AcidosisHCO3 <22 → sodium bicarbonateUntreated acidosis accelerates CKD
HyperkalemiaDiet, bicarbonate, loop, patiromer/SZCStopping the ACEi is the wrong reflex — add a binder
CardiovascularLeading cause of death at every stage; statinDo not start statins on dialysis
Refer & Prepare
  • Refer: eGFR <30, UACR >300, decline >5/yr, K >5.5, unexplained cause, hematuria + proteinuria.
  • Fistula at eGFR 15–20 (months to mature; protect the arm, never subclavian). Transplant listing ≤20. Start dialysis for symptoms, not a number.
⚑ Board Traps — CKD
  • eGFR dip after ACEi/ARB or SGLT2i = the drug working; continue and recheck in 2–4 weeks
  • Iron before ESA; never normalize hemoglobin
  • Frail elderly with a “normal” creatinine may have a GFR of 35 — dose by cystatin C or Cockcroft-Gault
★ Memory Trick
Stages: “90-60-45-30-15; 30-300” Pillars: “RAAS 30%, SGLT2 20, finerenone 25 & 4.8”
Domain 3 · Glomerular Disease
Nephritic vs Nephrotic: Two Columns, Then Sort by Complement
Before you beginGlomerular Disease2 questions
Answer these two before you read the topics. Getting them wrong is expected and useful — attempting a question first is what makes the material below stick. Each explanation unlocks only after you submit.
In-sessionQ1 of 2 · Medium · Nephritic · Timing After Infection
A 19-year-old man develops gross hematuria 2 days after the onset of a sore throat. He had a similar episode a year ago with an upper respiratory infection that resolved spontaneously. Blood pressure is 132/84 mm Hg. Creatinine is 1.0 mg/dL. Urinalysis shows dysmorphic RBCs and 1+ protein. Serum C3 and C4 are normal. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: B — IgA nephropathy
The two discriminators are timing and complement. IgA nephropathy produces synpharyngitic hematuria — gross hematuria 1–3 days into a mucosal infection, often recurrent, with normal C3/C4. It is the most common primary glomerulonephritis worldwide. Post-streptococcal GN, by contrast, is a delayed immune-complex disease appearing 1–3 weeks after pharyngitis (2–6 weeks after impetigo) with low C3. Management of IgAN: RAAS blockade for proteinuria, blood pressure control, and steroids or newer agents (budesonide targeted-release, sparsentan) for persistent proteinuria >0.75–1 g/day; biopsy shows mesangial IgA deposits.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis — PSGN follows the infection by 1–3 weeks and has a low C3 with elevated ASO/anti-DNase B; recurrence is unusual.
  • Anti-glomerular basement membrane disease — Anti-GBM disease is a rapidly progressive GN, often with pulmonary hemorrhage, in a patient whose creatinine is rising quickly — not recurrent benign episodes with a normal creatinine.
  • Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis — MPGN produces a persistently low C3 and usually a mixed nephritic/nephrotic picture, often with hepatitis C or cryoglobulinemia.
  • Thin basement membrane disease — Thin basement membrane disease gives persistent microscopic hematuria with a benign course and family history; episodic gross hematuria timed to infections is IgAN.
Board pearlDays = IgA (normal C3). Weeks = PSGN (low C3). IgAN can be recurrent; PSGN rarely is. Both are nephritic. IgA vasculitis (Henoch-Schönlein purpura) is the same IgA deposit with palpable purpura, abdominal pain, and arthritis in children.
In-sessionQ2 of 2 · Medium · RPGN · The Nephrology Emergency
A 26-year-old man who smokes presents with hemoptysis, fatigue, and dark urine for one week. Creatinine is 4.8 mg/dL. Urinalysis shows RBC casts. Chest X-ray shows bilateral alveolar infiltrates. Serum anti-GBM antibody is positive; ANCA is negative. Kidney biopsy shows crescents in 70% of glomeruli with linear IgG staining along the basement membrane. In addition to high-dose corticosteroids and cyclophosphamide, which of the following is the most important component of initial therapy?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: D — Plasmapheresis
This is anti-GBM (Goodpasture) disease — a pathogenic circulating IgG autoantibody against the α3 chain of type IV collagen that produces linear immunofluorescence and, when the lung is involved, pulmonary hemorrhage (the alveolar basement membrane shares the antigen; smoking and hydrocarbon exposure unmask it). Because the disease is driven by a circulating antibody, plasmapheresis to remove it is the cornerstone of initial therapy, combined with corticosteroids and cyclophosphamide to stop new production. Treatment is urgent: the chance of renal recovery falls sharply once the creatinine exceeds ~5–6 mg/dL or the patient is dialysis-dependent, but plasmapheresis is still indicated for pulmonary hemorrhage regardless of renal prognosis.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Rituximab — Rituximab is used in ANCA vasculitis and membranous nephropathy; it is not standard first-line induction for anti-GBM disease.
  • Intravenous immunoglobulin — IVIG has no established role in anti-GBM disease.
  • Mycophenolate mofetil — MMF is maintenance therapy in lupus nephritis and some ANCA regimens; it is not induction for anti-GBM.
  • Hemodialysis — Dialysis may be needed for AKI complications, but it does not treat the disease; the question asks for the therapy that alters outcome.
Board pearlRPGN = crescents on biopsy + creatinine rising over days–weeks. Three IF patterns: linear = anti-GBM (plasmapheresis + steroids + cyclophosphamide); pauci-immune = ANCA vasculitis (steroids + rituximab or cyclophosphamide; plasmapheresis only for severe cases); granular = immune complex (lupus, PSGN, IgA, MPGN). Anti-GBM relapses rarely — but ~30% are also ANCA-positive (“double positive”) and those behave like vasculitis.
Tier 1
Domain 3
Nephrotic & Nephritic Syndromes
Two-Column Framework · Complement Sort · RPGN Patterns · Nephrotic Lesions · Biopsy Rules
★★★ Highest Yield
NephriticNephrotic
UrineMemorizeRBC casts, dysmorphic RBCs, protein <3.5 gProtein >3.5 g/day, fatty casts, Maltese crosses
ClinicHypertension, oliguria, rising CrAnasarca, albumin <3.5, hyperlipidemia
ComplicationsRPGN, pulmonary-renal syndromeRenal vein thrombosis (membranous), pneumococcal infection, AKI
The Definitive Glomerular MatrixMemorize
DiseaseSyndromeC3Key Test / AntibodyClassic ClueIF / EM (if high-yield)First Pearl
IgA nephropathyNephriticNormalBiopsy (mesangial IgA)Hematuria 1–3 days after URI; young adult; recurrentMesangial IgA depositsACEi/ARB + SGLT2i; steroids if proteinuria persists
Post-streptococcal GNNephriticLowASO / anti-DNase B1–3 weeks after pharyngitis/impetigo; childSubepithelial “humps”Supportive; C3 normalizes by 8 weeks
Lupus nephritisNephritic ± nephroticLow C3 + C4ANA, anti-dsDNAYoung woman, systemic lupus, active urine“Full-house” IFBiopsy for class; steroids + MMF or cyclophosphamide; hydroxychloroquine
MPGN / cryoglobulinemiaMixedLow (C4 low in cryo)HCV, cryoglobulins, SPEPHepatitis C, palpable purpura, arthralgiaTram-track GBMTreat HCV / the clone
Anti-GBM (Goodpasture)RPGNNormalAnti-GBM antibodyHemoptysis + hematuria; young man / older womanLinear IgGPlasmapheresis + steroids + cyclophosphamide
ANCA vasculitisRPGNNormalMPO/p-ANCA (MPA), PR3/c-ANCA (GPA)Sinus/lung disease, purpura, older adultPauci-immuneRituximab or cyclophosphamide + steroids
Minimal changeNephroticNormalClinical (child); biopsy in adultsChild; NSAIDs; Hodgkin; abrupt onsetNormal LM; podocyte effacement (EM)Empiric steroids, no biopsy in children
FSGSNephroticNormalBiopsy; HIV, APOL1Most common US adult lesion; Black patients; HIV, obesity, heroinSegmental sclerosis; collapsing in HIVANPrimary: steroids/CNI; secondary: RAAS + cause (ART for HIV)
MembranousNephroticNormalAnti-PLA2RWhite adult; cancer >60, HBV, lupus V; renal vein thrombosisSubepithelial spikesRisk-based: observe/RAAS → rituximab; anticoagulate if albumin <2.5
Diabetic nephropathyNephroticNormalUACR; retinopathy10–20 yr of diabetes with retinopathyKimmelstiel-Wilson nodulesFour pillars; biopsy if no retinopathy, hematuria, or rapid decline
AmyloidosisNephroticNormalSPEP / free light chains; Congo redLarge kidneys, low BP, myeloma or chronic inflammationApple-green birefringenceTreat the clone (AL) or inflammation (AA)
Complement Shortcut
  • LOW C3: PSGN · lupus (+ low C4) · MPGN / cryoglobulinemia · endocarditis / shunt nephritis · C3 glomerulopathy
  • NORMAL C3: IgA nephropathy · ANCA vasculitis · anti-GBM disease · Alport / thin basement membrane · all primary nephrotic lesions
Biopsy
  • Yes: adult nephrotic syndrome (unless PLA2R+ or classic diabetic), nephritic with falling GFR, RPGN, lupus with active urine. No: uncomplicated pediatric nephrotic (steroids first), classic PSGN, isolated hematuria with normal GFR.
⚑ Board Traps — Glomerular
  • Days after URI = IgA; weeks after = PSGN. Normal vs low C3 breaks the tie
  • Hemoptysis + hematuria: send ANCA and anti-GBM together, start steroids now
  • Flank pain + AKI in nephrotic syndrome = renal vein thrombosis
  • New adult nephrotic: screen cancer (membranous), HIV (FSGS), hepatitis B/C, SPEP/FLC (amyloid)
★ Memory Trick
IF patterns: “Linear = anti-GBM, Lumpy = immune complex, Nothing = ANCA” Nephrotic thrombosis = “Membranous makes clots”
Before you beginVariation — Same Hematuria, Different Serology3 questions
Answer these three before you read the topics. Getting them wrong is expected and useful — attempting a question first is what makes the material below stick. Each explanation unlocks only after you submit.
VariationQ1 of 3 · Variation · Glomerular
Cr 1.3   C3 normal   C4 normal   ASO negative
RBC casts
A 20-year-old man has cola-colored urine 2 days after a sore throat, blood pressure 148/92, creatinine 1.3 mg/dL, and RBC casts. C3 and C4 are normal; ASO is negative. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: B — IgA nephropathy
Synpharyngitic hematuria (days, not weeks) with normal complement in a young adult is IgA nephropathy. Confirm with biopsy if proteinuria or GFR decline; treat with ACEi/ARB and SGLT2i, steroids or targeted therapy for persistent proteinuria.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis — Strongest distractor: PSGN — it follows infection by 1–3 weeks and lowers C3
  • Lupus nephritis — Lupus lowers C3 and C4 and has systemic features
  • Anti-GBM disease — Anti-GBM disease presents with hemoptysis and rapidly rising creatinine
  • Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis — MPGN lowers complement and is associated with HCV
Board pearlDays + normal C3 = IgA; weeks + low C3 = PSGN.
Covered below under
VariationQ2 of 3 · Variation · Glomerular
Onset 14 days post-impetigo   C3 40   C4 normal
Anti-DNase B positive
↻ One variable changed: complement now low, timing weeks
Same presentation, but the hematuria began 2 weeks after impetigo, C3 is 40 mg/dL (low), C4 is normal, and anti-DNase B is positive. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: D — Supportive care (BP and edema control); expect C3 to normalize by 8 weeks
Poststreptococcal GN is self-limited in most patients: loop diuretics and antihypertensives for volume and BP, dialysis rarely. Antibiotics do not alter the nephritis (treat any persistent infection). Persistent low C3 beyond 8 weeks or rising creatinine prompts biopsy for MPGN/C3 glomerulopathy or lupus.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Kidney biopsy and pulse methylprednisolone 1 g daily for 3 days — Strongest distractor: biopsy/steroids — reserved for atypical course (RPGN, persistent hypocomplementemia, nephrotic-range proteinuria)
  • Plasmapheresis with daily exchanges for 14 days — Plasmapheresis is for anti-GBM disease and severe ANCA vasculitis
  • Penicillin to treat the glomerulonephritis — Antibiotics treat the strep, not the immune-complex nephritis
  • Mycophenolate and prednisone — MMF/prednisone is lupus nephritis induction
Board pearlLow C3 + weeks after strep = PSGN = support and wait for C3 to recover.
Covered below under
VariationQ3 of 3 · Variation · Glomerular
Cr 1.3 → 3.9 in 5 days   hemoptysis
C3 normal   ANCA/anti-GBM pending
↻ One variable changed: pulmonary hemorrhage added
Same hematuria and RBC casts, but the patient now has hemoptysis, bilateral alveolar infiltrates, and a creatinine that has risen from 1.3 to 3.9 in 5 days. Complement is normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate immediate action?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: E — Pulse steroids now, send ANCA and anti-GBM, arrange urgent biopsy and plasmapheresis
Pulmonary-renal syndrome (anti-GBM or ANCA vasculitis) destroys nephrons by the day. Empiric pulse steroids start immediately; plasmapheresis is added for anti-GBM disease, pulmonary hemorrhage, or dialysis-dependent ANCA disease; cyclophosphamide or rituximab follows once the diagnosis is confirmed.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Bronchoscopy with lavage to confirm alveolar hemorrhage before any treatment is started — Strongest distractor: waiting for serologies — each day of delay in RPGN costs GFR; treatment is empiric while results are pending
  • Wait for ANCA and anti-GBM results (48–72 hours) before starting any immunosuppression — Bronchoscopy can support the diagnosis but never delays therapy
  • Broad-spectrum antibiotics for pneumonia with AKI — RBC casts and normal complement are glomerular, not infectious
  • Furosemide and fluid restriction for cardiorenal syndrome — No congestion; the infiltrates are blood
Board pearlHemoptysis + RBC casts = steroids now, serologies in flight, plasmapheresis next.
Covered below under
Domain 4 · Hypertension & the Kidney
Targets, Secondary Causes, Renovascular Disease, Emergencies
Before you beginHypertension2 questions
Answer these two before you read the topics. Getting them wrong is expected and useful — attempting a question first is what makes the material below stick. Each explanation unlocks only after you submit.
In-sessionQ1 of 2 · Medium · Secondary hypertension
BP 158/96 on 3 drugs   K 3.1   HCO3 31   Cr 0.9
A 46-year-old man has hypertension on three medications, including chlorthalidone. Potassium is 3.1 mEq/L. He has no edema and normal renal function. Which of the following is the most appropriate next diagnostic test?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: E — Plasma aldosterone-to-renin ratio
Resistant hypertension with hypokalemia is primary aldosteronism until proven otherwise — the most common secondary cause (5–10% of hypertensives). Screen with the aldosterone/renin ratio; most antihypertensives (except MRAs) can continue for screening; correct potassium first.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Plasma fractionated metanephrines — Pheochromocytoma presents with paroxysms, not hypokalemia
  • 24-hour urine free cortisol — Cushing is suggested by cushingoid features; hypokalemia occurs but is less specific
  • Renal artery duplex ultrasound — Renovascular disease is possible but hypokalemia with resistant HTN screens first for aldosteronism
  • Overnight polysomnography for obstructive sleep apnea — OSA is a common contributor but does not explain hypokalemia
Board pearlHypokalemia + hypertension = aldosterone/renin ratio. Low renin + low aldosterone = Liddle or licorice.
In-sessionQ2 of 2 · Medium · Renovascular
A 29-year-old woman has new hypertension of 168/104 mmHg despite two medications. She has no family history and a normal BMI. An abdominal bruit is heard. Potassium is 3.3 mEq/L and creatinine is normal. CT angiography shows a “string of beads” appearance of the mid-to-distal right renal artery. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: C — Percutaneous balloon angioplasty without a stent
A young woman with resistant hypertension, a bruit, hypokalemia (secondary hyperaldosteronism), and beaded mid-distal renal artery disease has fibromuscular dysplasia. Unlike atherosclerotic renal artery stenosis, FMD responds well to balloon angioplasty alone (~85% improved or cured), and stents are avoided because the lesions are non-ostial and stents impair future intervention.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Maximal medical therapy with an ACE inhibitor and statin — Medical therapy is the approach for atherosclerotic RAS (CORAL); FMD is curable with angioplasty, especially early
  • Renal artery stenting of the affected segment — Stenting is for ostial atherosclerotic lesions; in FMD stents add risk without benefit and are reserved for dissection or angioplasty failure
  • Surgical revascularization — Surgery is reserved for complex/aneurysmal FMD or failed angioplasty
  • Nephrectomy of the affected kidney — Nephrectomy is not indicated for a salvageable kidney
Board pearlYoung woman + resistant HTN + bruit + beads = FMD → angioplasty. Older smoker + vascular disease + ostial stenosis = atherosclerotic RAS → medicines.
Tier 1
Domain 4
Hypertension & Renovascular Disease
BP Targets · Drug Selection · Secondary Screen · FMD vs Atherosclerotic RAS · Emergency Rates & Exceptions
★★★ Highest Yield
Targets & Drugs
  • <130/80 for nearly everyone (AHA/ACC 2025, ADA, KDIGO; KDIGO allows systolic <120 with standardized measurement). Stage 2 (≥140/90): start two drugs.
  • First-line: chlorthalidone/indapamide (> HCTZ), ACEi/ARB, amlodipine. CKD or diabetes with albuminuria → ACEi/ARB. Gout → losartan, no thiazide. Pregnancy → labetalol, nifedipine, methyldopa.
  • Resistant (≥3 drugs incl. diuretic): check adherence and cuff, stop NSAIDs/decongestants, add spironolactone, screen for secondary causes.
Secondary Hypertension — The Clue Is the Test
ClueDiagnosisTest
Hypokalemia, resistant HTNPrimary aldosteronism (most common)Aldosterone/renin ratio
Bruit, flash pulmonary edema, AKI on ACEiRenal artery stenosisDuplex / CTA
Paroxysms: headache, sweats, palpitationsPheochromocytomaPlasma metanephrines
Snoring, obesityObstructive sleep apneaPolysomnography
Low renin AND low aldosterone + low KLiddle / licorice / AMEAmiloride responds; spironolactone does not (Liddle)
RenovascularRecognize
Fibromuscular DysplasiaAtherosclerotic RAS
PatientWoman 15–50, string of beads, mid-distal arteryOlder smoker with PAD/CAD, ostial lesion
TreatmentBalloon angioplasty (no stent)Medical therapy (CORAL); revascularize only for flash pulmonary edema, refractory HTN, rapid GFR loss
EmergencyMemorize
  • Emergency = organ damage at any number (encephalopathy, ICH, ACS, pulmonary edema, dissection, AKI with active urine, eclampsia, MAHA). ICU, arterial line, nicardipine / clevidipine / labetalol; MAP −20–25% in hour 1, then 160/100 over 2–6 h.
  • Exceptions: dissection (SBP <120, HR <60 in 20 min, β-blocker first) · ischemic stroke (treat only >220/120; >185/110 for lysis) · ICH (SBP 140–160) · pheochromocytoma (phentolamine, no β-blocker first) · eclampsia (magnesium).
  • Urgency (no organ damage): oral drugs, follow-up in days. Sublingual nifedipine is never the answer.
⚑ Board Traps — Hypertension
  • ACEi → Cr up ≤30% = continue; >30% = stop and image for bilateral RAS
  • Hypertension-associated TMA mimics TTP — ADAMTS13 normal; BP control is the treatment
  • Beads = balloon; ostial plaque = pills
★ Memory Trick
Exceptions: “Dissection Drops fast, Stroke Stays high, Pheo needs alpha, Preeclampsia needs Mag”
Domain 5 · Sodium
Hyponatremia & Hypernatremia: Three Questions, One Speed Limit
Before you beginSodium2 questions
Answer these two before you read the topics. Getting them wrong is expected and useful — attempting a question first is what makes the material below stick. Each explanation unlocks only after you submit.
In-sessionQ1 of 2 · Medium · Hyponatremia
A 31-year-old woman finishes a marathon and becomes confused, then has a generalized seizure in the medical tent. She drank water at every station. Serum sodium is 117 mEq/L. Which of the following is the most appropriate immediate treatment?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: D — 3% hypertonic saline 100–150 mL bolus
Exercise-associated hyponatremia with seizure is severe symptomatic hyponatremia — the treatment is a 100–150 mL bolus of 3% saline over 10–20 minutes, repeated up to 2–3 times until symptoms improve, aiming for a 4–6 mEq/L rise. The goal is to reverse cerebral edema within the first hour; total correction is then capped at 8 mEq/L per 24 h.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Isotonic saline 1 L bolus over 30 minutes — Isotonic saline is insufficient for cerebral edema and can worsen SIADH-physiology hyponatremia (desalination)
  • Fluid restriction to 800 mL/day — Restriction is for asymptomatic chronic hyponatremia; a seizing patient needs immediate hypertonic saline
  • Tolvaptan 15 mg orally — Vaptans are for chronic euvolemic/hypervolemic hyponatremia and act over hours; contraindicated for emergencies
  • Lorazepam followed by furosemide — The seizure is caused by cerebral edema; benzodiazepines do not treat the cause and furosemide alone is inadequate
Board pearlSeizure or coma from hyponatremia = 3% saline bolus first; raise Na 4–6 quickly, then no more than 8 per day.
In-sessionQ2 of 2 · Medium · Hyponatremia · Diagnosis
A 64-year-old man with a 50-pack-year smoking history is found to have a serum sodium of 121 mEq/L on routine labs. He is clinically euvolemic with no edema or orthostasis. Serum osmolality is 252 mOsm/kg, urine osmolality 480 mOsm/kg, urine sodium 62 mEq/L, TSH and morning cortisol are normal, and he takes no medications. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: C — Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuresis
The stepwise algorithm: (1) serum osmolality is low → true hypotonic hyponatremia (not pseudohyponatremia or hyperglycemia); (2) urine osmolality is >100 (here 480) → ADH is acting, so this is not primary polydipsia or low solute intake; (3) volume status is euvolemic and urine sodium is >30–40 → SIADH, once hypothyroidism and adrenal insufficiency are excluded (both done). In a heavy smoker, small cell lung cancer producing ectopic ADH is the diagnosis to chase with a chest CT. Other SIADH causes: CNS disease, pulmonary infection, pain/nausea/post-operative state, and drugs (SSRIs, carbamazepine, cyclophosphamide, NSAIDs, MDMA, antipsychotics). Treatment: fluid restriction (<800–1,000 mL/day), salt tablets, urea, loop diuretic + salt, or tolvaptan for refractory cases; treat the cause.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Primary polydipsia — Primary polydipsia produces a maximally dilute urine (osmolality <100) because ADH is appropriately suppressed.
  • Hypovolemic hyponatremia from occult diuretic use — Hypovolemic hyponatremia would show orthostasis, a high BUN and uric acid, and — with recent diuretics — a high urine sodium; the euvolemic exam and normal-medication history argue against it.
  • Cerebral salt wasting — Cerebral salt wasting occurs after subarachnoid hemorrhage or neurosurgery with clear hypovolemia and natriuresis; the labs overlap with SIADH but the volume status does not.
  • Pseudohyponatremia — Pseudohyponatremia (hyperlipidemia, paraproteinemia) has a normal serum osmolality; this patient’s osmolality of 252 proves the hyponatremia is real.
Board pearlSIADH = low serum osm + urine osm >100 + urine Na >30 + euvolemia + normal thyroid/adrenal function. Low uric acid supports it. Every SIADH diagnosis triggers a search for the cause — and in a smoker, that means imaging the chest. Tolvaptan: hospital initiation, not for hypovolemia, limit duration (liver injury), never with fluid restriction on day one (overcorrection).
Tier 1
Domain 5
Hyponatremia & Hypernatremia
Osmolality → Urine Osm → Volume · SIADH Criteria · 3% Boluses · 8 mEq/L Limit · DI
★★★ Highest Yield
Three Questions
  • 1. Serum osm: normal = pseudohyponatremia (lipids, paraprotein); high = glucose/mannitol (correct Na +1.6–2.4 per 100 mg/dL glucose); low = real.
  • 2. Urine osm: <100 = ADH off — polydipsia, beer potomania, low solute (“tea and toast”). >100 = ADH on.
  • 3. Volume + urine Na — the table below.
CategoryUrine NaCausesTreatment
Hypovolemic<20 GI/skin; >20 thiazide, adrenal insufficiency, salt wastingVomiting, diarrhea, thiazides, AddisonIsotonic saline; stop thiazide; hydrocortisone
Euvolemic>30SIADH (cancer, CNS, lung, pain/nausea, SSRIs, carbamazepine, MDMA), hypothyroidism, cortisol deficiency, exerciseFluid restriction (fails if urine osm >500) → salt + loop, urea, tolvaptan (inpatient)
Hypervolemic<20 (unless diuretics)HF, cirrhosis, nephrotic; advanced CKDWater + salt restriction, loop diuretic, treat disease
Rate of CorrectionMemorize
  • Severe symptoms (seizure, coma, vomiting): 3% saline 100–150 mL bolus, repeat up to 3×, goal +4–6. Then stop.
  • Chronic: ≤8 mEq/L per 24 h (6 with ODS risk: Na ≤105, alcohol, malnutrition, hypokalemia, liver disease). Overshoot → D5W + desmopressin. Beware auto-correction when the ADH trigger resolves (volume repleted, thiazide stopped, cortisol given).
HypernatremiaRecognize
  • Always a water deficit with impaired thirst/access. Urine osm >600 = extrarenal loss; <300 = diabetes insipidus — desmopressin raises urine osm >50% in central (give desmopressin); no response in nephrogenic (lithium → amiloride; hypercalcemia; thiazide + low solute).
  • Correct ≤10–12 mEq/L per day (too fast = cerebral edema). Deficit = TBW × (Na/140 − 1).
⚑ Board Traps — Sodium
  • Urine osm <100 is an intake problem, not SIADH
  • SIADH requires normal TSH and cortisol — order both
  • Isotonic saline worsens SIADH (salt excreted, water kept); thiazides, not loops, cause hyponatremia
★ Memory Trick
“Fix low Na too fast = demyelinate; fix high Na too fast = swell” — slow is safe either way
Before you beginVariation — Same Sodium, Different Kidney2 questions
Answer these two before you read the topics. Getting them wrong is expected and useful — attempting a question first is what makes the material below stick. Each explanation unlocks only after you submit.
VariationQ1 of 2 · Variation · Sodium
Na 124   S osm 256   U osm 520   U Na 10
Orthostatic
A 68-year-old woman with 4 days of diarrhea has Na 124, serum osm 256, orthostatic hypotension, and dry mucous membranes. Urine osmolality 520, urine sodium 10. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: B — Isotonic saline
Hypovolemia with urine Na <20 = appropriate ADH release from volume depletion. Isotonic saline restores volume, switches ADH off, and the kidney excretes the excess water. Check sodium every 4–6 h because the ensuing water diuresis can overshoot.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Fluid restriction to 1 L/day — Strongest distractor: fluid restriction — correct for SIADH, harmful in hypovolemia
  • Tolvaptan — Vaptans are contraindicated in hypovolemic hyponatremia
  • 3% hypertonic saline bolus — No severe symptoms; hypertonic saline is not indicated
  • Demeclocycline — Demeclocycline is historical SIADH therapy
Board pearlLow urine Na + dry = saline; the danger is auto-correction once ADH turns off.
Covered below under
VariationQ2 of 2 · Variation · Sodium
Na 124   U osm 88   U Na 30   euvolemic
↻ One variable changed: urine osmolality now <100
Same woman, same sodium of 124 — but she is euvolemic, urine osmolality is 88, and urine sodium is 30. She reports drinking “a lot of water to flush the bug.” Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: C — Primary polydipsia with low solute intake
Urine osmolality <100 means ADH is appropriately suppressed — the kidney is excreting maximally dilute urine and simply cannot keep up with the water load (and low solute intake limits how much water can be excreted). Restrict water, restore solute, and watch for a brisk correction.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuresis — Strongest distractor: SIADH requires urine osm >100 — the defining feature is inappropriately concentrated urine
  • Cerebral salt wasting after a subclinical head injury — Salt wasting is hypovolemic with a high urine Na after brain injury
  • Primary adrenal insufficiency with mineralocorticoid deficiency — Adrenal insufficiency causes hyponatremia with concentrated urine, hyperkalemia, and hypotension
  • Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus — DI causes hypernatremia with dilute urine, not hyponatremia
Board pearlUrine osm <100 = intake problem. SIADH is never the answer with dilute urine.
Covered below under
Domain 6 · Potassium, Calcium, Magnesium, Phosphate
Hyperkalemia Sequence, Hypokalemia Rules, the Calcium Ladder
Before you beginPotassium & Calcium2 questions
Answer these two before you read the topics. Getting them wrong is expected and useful — attempting a question first is what makes the material below stick. Each explanation unlocks only after you submit.
In-sessionQ1 of 2 · Medium · Hyperkalemia · The First Move
A 70-year-old man with CKD G4 on lisinopril and spironolactone presents with weakness. Potassium is 7.1 mEq/L. ECG shows peaked T waves, a PR interval of 240 ms, and a QRS duration of 150 ms. Which of the following should be administered first?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: B — Calcium gluconate 1 g IV over 2–3 minutes
A potassium of 7.1 with a widened QRS is minutes from a sine wave and ventricular fibrillation. The first priority is to stabilize the myocardial membrane, and only IV calcium does that: it raises the threshold potential and narrows the QRS within 1–3 minutes, lasting 30–60 minutes. It does not lower the potassium at all — it buys the time for the shifting and removal steps. Calcium is indicated for any ECG change or potassium ≥6.5 mEq/L; repeat the dose if the ECG does not improve in 5–10 minutes. Calcium chloride (three times the elemental calcium) is used through a central line or in arrest. Then: insulin/glucose and albuterol to shift, and a binder, loop diuretic, or dialysis to remove.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Regular insulin 10 units IV with dextrose 25 g — Insulin/glucose is the most reliable shifting agent (onset 15–30 min, lowers K by ~0.5–1.0 mEq/L) — but it comes second, after the membrane is protected. Watch for delayed hypoglycemia at 1–3 h, especially in non-diabetics.
  • Sodium zirconium cyclosilicate 10 g orally — SZC removes potassium via the gut with onset ~1 hour and full effect over hours — a removal step, never the first step with ECG changes.
  • Nebulized albuterol 10–20 mg — Albuterol shifts potassium (~0.5–1.0 mEq/L, onset 30 min) and is synergistic with insulin, but does nothing for the membrane; ~40% of patients are non-responders.
  • Emergent hemodialysis — Hemodialysis is the definitive removal therapy for this patient with CKD G4 — but arranging it takes time; calcium must be given immediately while dialysis is organized.
Board pearlThree tiers: (1) Stabilize — IV calcium. (2) Shift — insulin + glucose, albuterol, bicarbonate only if acidotic. (3) Remove — loop diuretic (if GFR adequate), SZC or patiromer, dialysis. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate is no longer recommended for acute hyperkalemia (slow, unproven, intestinal necrosis). And find the cause: this patient’s ACEi + MRA + CKD combination is the classic setup.
In-sessionQ2 of 2 · Medium · Hyperkalemia
A 68-year-old man with HFrEF (EF 30%) and CKD G3b is on sacubitril-valsartan, spironolactone, and carvedilol. Serum potassium is 5.7 mEq/L on two occasions; ECG is normal. He is euvolemic and asymptomatic. Which of the following is the most appropriate long-term management?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: E — Add patiromer or sodium zirconium cyclosilicate; continue both agents
Both the ARNI and the MRA reduce mortality in HFrEF; guidelines now favor adding a chronic potassium binder (patiromer or SZC) to keep patients on guideline-directed therapy rather than dropping a life-prolonging drug for a moderate, asymptomatic potassium elevation. Also review diet, supplements, NSAIDs, trimethoprim, and correct any acidosis; loop diuretic uptitration helps if volume allows.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Discontinue spironolactone permanently and continue sacubitril-valsartan — Stopping the MRA removes ~30% relative mortality benefit; it is a last resort after binder therapy fails
  • Discontinue sacubitril-valsartan and continue spironolactone — The ARNI also carries mortality benefit; potassium is not a reason to choose one over the other
  • Switch spironolactone to eplerenone — Eplerenone causes the same hyperkalemia as spironolactone (the difference is anti-androgen effects, not potassium)
  • Start sodium polystyrene sulfonate daily — Sodium polystyrene sulfonate is slow, unreliable, and carries intestinal necrosis risk; it is not recommended for chronic use
Board pearlHyperkalemia on RAAS/MRA in HF or CKD: reach for a binder to keep the drug, not for the stop button.
Tier 1
Domain 6
Potassium, Calcium, Magnesium & Phosphate
Stabilize → Shift → Remove · ECG Progression · Hypokalemia · PTH-Based Calcium Sort · Magnesium First
★★★ Highest Yield
HyperkalemiaMemorize
StepAgentFact
1 StabilizeCalcium gluconate 1–3 g IVAny ECG change or K ≥6.5; 1–3 min; repeat q5–10 min; does not lower K
2 ShiftInsulin 5–10 U + dextrose; albuterol 10–20 mg nebLowers 0.5–1.0 each; 5 U in CKD, hourly glucose; bicarbonate only if acidotic
3 RemoveLoop diuretic; SZC (~1 h) / patiromer (~7 h); hemodialysisKayexalate no longer recommended; dialysis for kidney failure or refractory
  • ECG: peaked T → flat P / long PR → wide QRS → sine wave; half of dangerous levels have a normal ECG — treat the number. Bradycardia unresponsive to atropine in a dialysis patient = calcium.
  • Causes: low GFR, ACEi/ARB/MRA/K-sparing/NSAID/trimethoprim/heparin/CNI, type 4 RTA, adrenal insufficiency (with low Na, low BP), cell lysis, acidosis. Pseudo: hemolysis, platelets >500K, WBC >100K → repeat in plasma.
  • Chronic on RAAS/MRA: binder to keep the drug, diet, bicarbonate, loop, fludrocortisone for type 4 RTA.
Hypokalemia
  • Magnesium first (refractory otherwise). 10 mEq raises K ~0.1; ≤10 mEq/h peripheral, 20 central. ECG: U waves, flat T. KCl unless RTA (citrate).
  • Urine K >20–30 = renal loss (diuretics, aldosterone, Bartter/Gitelman, RTA 1/2, amphotericin); <20 = GI/shift (vomiting, insulin, β-agonists, alkalosis).
Calcium — PTH DecidesRecognize
PTHDiagnosisManagement
High Ca, high PTHPrimary hyperparathyroidismSurgery if Ca >1 above normal, age <50, eGFR <60, osteoporosis, stones
High Ca, low PTHMalignancy (PTHrP, bone mets), granuloma/lymphoma (calcitriol), vitamin D excessSaline → calcitonin (48 h) → zoledronate (denosumab if CKD); no thiazides
Low CaCheck albumin/ionized, Mg, PTH: hypoparathyroidism, vitamin D deficiency, CKD, pancreatitis, tumor lysis, citrateSymptomatic (tetany, QT) = IV calcium gluconate; calcitriol for hypoparathyroidism
Magnesium & Phosphate
  • Low Mg (alcohol, PPIs, diuretics, cisplatin, diarrhea) causes refractory low K and low Ca. High Mg = renal failure or preeclampsia therapy (lost reflexes → calcium gluconate).
  • Low phos: refeeding (thiamine + phosphate). High phos: CKD, tumor lysis, rhabdo → binders, dialysis.
⚑ Board Traps — Electrolytes
  • Calcium first for any ECG change — before the level is back
  • Hyperkalemia + hyponatremia + hypotension = adrenal crisis
  • Never give calcium with a phosphate of 9 unless symptomatic (tumor lysis, rhabdo)
★ Memory Trick
“Calcium buys time, insulin hides it, dialysis removes it” “No Mg, no K, no Ca” — replace magnesium first
Before you beginVariation — Same Potassium, Different ECG2 questions
Answer these two before you read the topics. Getting them wrong is expected and useful — attempting a question first is what makes the material below stick. Each explanation unlocks only after you submit.
VariationQ1 of 2 · Variation · Potassium
K 6.1   eGFR 22   ECG normal
A 64-year-old man with CKD G4 on lisinopril has a potassium of 6.1 mEq/L found on routine labs. He is asymptomatic. ECG: sinus rhythm, no peaked T waves, normal QRS. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: C — Insulin/dextrose, a loop diuretic, a potassium binder, and repeat labs and ECG
Moderate hyperkalemia without ECG changes and below 6.5 is treated with shift and removal therapy plus close monitoring; calcium is reserved for ECG changes or K ≥6.5. Review the ACEi, diet, and other contributors; a chronic binder lets the ACEi continue.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • IV calcium gluconate immediately, then insulin and dextrose — Strongest distractor: calcium — not wrong to give, but it is the answer for membrane instability, which is absent; the question tests the threshold
  • Emergent hemodialysis through a temporary femoral catheter — Dialysis is for refractory hyperkalemia or kidney failure
  • Sodium polystyrene sulfonate and discharge — Kayexalate is slow and no longer recommended
  • No treatment; recheck in one week — K 6.1 in CKD on an ACEi is not safe to ignore for a week
Board pearlNo ECG change and K <6.5 = shift and remove; calcium is for the ECG.
Covered below under
VariationQ2 of 2 · Variation · Potassium
K 7.3   HR 44   QRS 160 ms   no P waves
↻ One variable changed: QRS widened
Same patient, two hours later: he feels weak, heart rate is 44, and the ECG now shows a QRS of 160 ms with absent P waves. Repeat potassium is 7.3. Which of the following must be given FIRST?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: D — Calcium gluconate 1–3 g IV
A wide QRS with absent P waves is one step from a sine wave and arrest. Calcium antagonizes the membrane effect within minutes and is given before anything else — repeated every 5–10 min if the QRS stays wide — then insulin/dextrose and albuterol, then dialysis.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Regular insulin 10 units IV with 50 g of dextrose — Strongest distractor: insulin — it lowers potassium but takes 15–30 minutes; the myocardium may not have 15 minutes
  • Nebulized albuterol 20 mg — Albuterol is adjunctive shift therapy, not membrane stabilization
  • Sodium bicarbonate 100 mEq IV — Bicarbonate helps only with acidosis and is slow
  • Transcutaneous pacing — Pacing does not capture in severe hyperkalemia
Board pearlWide QRS = calcium now. Everything else is second.
Covered below under
Domain 7 · Acid-Base
Six Steps, Two Mnemonics, One Formula
Before you beginAcid-Base2 questions
Answer these two before you read the topics. Getting them wrong is expected and useful — attempting a question first is what makes the material below stick. Each explanation unlocks only after you submit.
In-sessionQ1 of 2 · Medium · Acid-Base
A 34-year-old woman with a heroin overdose is found unresponsive. ABG: pH 7.14, PaCO2 60 mmHg, bicarbonate 20 mEq/L. Sodium 138, chloride 100, lactate 4.5 mmol/L. Which of the following best describes her acid-base status?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: B — Respiratory acidosis plus an anion-gap metabolic acidosis
Acidemia with a high PaCO2 is respiratory acidosis. In acute respiratory acidosis bicarbonate rises only ~1 mEq/L per 10 mmHg rise in PaCO2 (expected ~26). A bicarbonate of 20 is lower than expected, and the anion gap is 138 − (100 + 20) = 18 with lactate elevation — a concurrent lactic (anion-gap) metabolic acidosis from hypoperfusion/hypoxia. Two primary processes are present.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Acute respiratory acidosis with appropriate metabolic compensation — Compensation would raise, not lower, bicarbonate; the low value and the elevated gap indicate a second disorder
  • Anion-gap metabolic acidosis with appropriate respiratory compensation — The primary process is respiratory (PaCO2 60); Winter’s formula would predict PaCO2 ~38 if metabolic acidosis were primary and compensated
  • Mixed respiratory acidosis and metabolic alkalosis — A metabolic alkalosis would raise bicarbonate above the expected compensation; it is below
  • Chronic respiratory acidosis — Chronic compensation raises bicarbonate ~3–4 per 10 mmHg (expected ~30–32); 20 is far below
Board pearlAlways compute the expected compensation and the anion gap — a bicarbonate that is “too low” for a respiratory acidosis means a hidden metabolic acidosis (and the reverse for alkalosis).
In-sessionQ2 of 2 · Medium · Acid-Base
A 26-year-old woman with 4 days of vomiting from hyperemesis has pH 7.52, PaCO2 47, bicarbonate 38, potassium 2.8, and urine chloride 8 mEq/L. She is orthostatic. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: E — Isotonic saline with potassium chloride
Chloride-responsive (saline-responsive) metabolic alkalosis: vomiting loses HCl, volume depletion sustains the alkalosis through aldosterone-driven bicarbonate reabsorption and hypokalemia. Urine chloride <20 confirms chloride depletion. Treatment is isotonic saline plus potassium chloride (chloride corrects the alkalosis; potassium must be repleted as chloride) and treating the vomiting.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Acetazolamide 250 mg twice daily — Acetazolamide is for volume-overloaded alkalosis (post-diuretic in HF) where saline cannot be given
  • Hydrochloric acid infusion — HCl infusion is reserved for severe (pH >7.6) refractory alkalosis in the ICU
  • Spironolactone 50 mg daily — MRAs treat chloride-resistant alkalosis from hyperaldosteronism (urine Cl >20, hypertension); this patient is hypovolemic
  • Fluid restriction and potassium supplementation — Restriction worsens the volume depletion that maintains the alkalosis
Board pearlMetabolic alkalosis: urine chloride <20 = give saline and KCl; >20 with hypertension = think aldosterone (or Cushing, licorice); >20 without hypertension = Bartter/Gitelman or current diuretic use.
Tier 1
Domain 7
Acid-Base Disorders
Six-Step Method · Winter’s · MUDPILES vs HARDASS · Osmolar & Urine Anion Gaps · RTA · Alkalosis by Urine Chloride
★★★ Highest Yield
Six StepsMemorize
  • pH → primary (which moves with the pH?) → compensation (outside expected = second disorder) → anion gap (Na − Cl − HCO3; +2.5 per g/dL albumin below 4) → delta-delta (<1 hidden non-gap acidosis; >2 hidden alkalosis) → osmolar gap (>10 = toxic alcohol).
  • Winter’s: PaCO2 = 1.5 × HCO3 + 8 ± 2. Respiratory acidosis: HCO3 +1 (acute) / +3.5 (chronic) per 10 mmHg; alkalosis −2 / −5.
Gap Acidosis (MUDPILES)Non-Gap Acidosis (HARDASS)Metabolic Alkalosis
CausesMethanol, Uremia, DKA/ketosis, Propylene glycol, INH/Iron, Lactate, Ethylene glycol, SalicylatesHyperalimentation, Acetazolamide/Addison, RTA, Diarrhea, Spironolactone, Saline, ureteral diversionVomiting, diuretics, mineralocorticoid excess
Next testOsmolar gap, lactate, ketones, salicylate levelUrine anion gap: negative = diarrhea, positive = RTAUrine Cl: <20 responsive; >20 resistant
TellsVision loss (methanol); oxalate crystals + low Ca + AKI (ethylene glycol); resp alkalosis + tinnitus (salicylate); osmolar gap without acidosis (isopropanol)Stones + urine pH >5.5 + low K = type 1; Fanconi = type 2; high K + diabetes = type 4Cl >20 + HTN = aldosterone/Cushing/licorice/Liddle; Cl >20 no HTN = Bartter/Gitelman/current diuretic
TreatCause; fomepizole + dialysis (toxic alcohols); alkalinize + dialyze (salicylate); bicarbonate only if pH <7.1Alkali + K; fludrocortisone for type 4Saline + KCl (responsive); MRA/amiloride (resistant)
⚑ Board Traps — Acid-Base
  • A “compensated” value outside the expected range is a mixed disorder
  • Salicylates = respiratory alkalosis + gap acidosis with a near-normal pH
  • Urine chloride, not sodium, sorts alkalosis; urine anion gap sorts non-gap acidosis
  • Thiamine before glucose in the starving alcoholic
★ Memory Trick
“Winter’s = 1.5, 8, 2” RTA: “1 = stones & pH >5.5, 2 = Fanconi, 4 = high K”
Domain 8 · Stones, UTI & Obstruction
Size, Fever, and Function Decide Everything
Before you beginStones & Obstruction2 questions
Answer these two before you read the topics. Getting them wrong is expected and useful — attempting a question first is what makes the material below stick. Each explanation unlocks only after you submit.
In-sessionQ1 of 2 · Medium · Stones · The Urologic Emergency
A 52-year-old woman presents with 12 hours of severe right flank pain, fever of 39.2°C, rigors, and vomiting. Heart rate is 118, blood pressure 96/58 mm Hg. Urinalysis shows pyuria and bacteriuria. Non-contrast CT shows a 7-mm stone in the proximal right ureter with moderate hydronephrosis. Blood and urine cultures are drawn and IV fluids and ceftriaxone are started. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: D — Urgent ureteral stent or percutaneous nephrostomy
Flank pain + fever + hydronephrosis behind an obstructing stone = an obstructed, infected kidney, and this patient is already in septic shock. Antibiotics cannot sterilize a closed, pressurized, pus-filled system, so the principle is source control by drainage: a retrograde ureteral stent or a percutaneous nephrostomy tube, whichever is faster and safer at that institution. The AUA 2025 guideline is explicit that this is a urologic emergency and that delaying decompression by ≥2 days increases the odds of death by roughly 29%. Definitive stone treatment is deferred until the infection has been treated (typically 1–2 weeks), because manipulating a stone in an infected system causes life-threatening sepsis.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Admit for IV antibiotics and repeat imaging in 48 hours — Antibiotics alone do not decompress the obstruction; waiting 48 hours in a septic patient is the fatal delay the guideline warns against.
  • Discharge on oral ciprofloxacin and tamsulosin with follow-up imaging in 14 days — Medical expulsive therapy and discharge are appropriate for uncomplicated small ureteral stones — never with fever, sepsis, or hydronephrosis with infection.
  • Emergent ureteroscopy with laser lithotripsy and stone extraction — Instrumenting and fragmenting a stone in an untreated infected system disseminates bacteria and can cause overwhelming sepsis; definitive lithotripsy waits until infection clears.
  • Extracorporeal shock-wave lithotripsy within 24 hours — ESWL is contraindicated in active urinary infection and would not relieve the obstruction acutely.
Board pearlObstructing stone + infection = drain first (stent or nephrostomy), antibiotics alongside, stone later. Other urgent-urology indications: AKI, solitary kidney, bilateral obstruction, intractable pain or vomiting. Uncomplicated stones: NSAIDs for pain, tamsulosin for distal ureteral stones 5–10 mm, strain urine, follow-up imaging within 14 days.
In-sessionQ2 of 2 · Medium · Stones
A 44-year-old man has had three calcium oxalate stones in 4 years. A 24-hour urine collection shows calcium 420 mg/day (normal <250), oxalate normal, citrate normal, volume 2.6 L, uric acid normal. Serum calcium and PTH are normal. He already drinks >3 L/day and follows a low-sodium diet. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacologic therapy?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: A — Chlorthalidone
Recurrent calcium stones with idiopathic hypercalciuria and normal serum calcium/PTH are treated with a thiazide-type diuretic (chlorthalidone, indapamide, HCTZ), which increases distal calcium reabsorption and reduces urinary calcium ~50%, cutting recurrence. Add potassium citrate if hypokalemia or hypocitraturia develops.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Potassium citrate — Citrate is the drug for hypocitraturia, uric acid stones, and cystine stones; citrate here is normal
  • Allopurinol — Allopurinol treats hyperuricosuric calcium oxalate stones; uric acid excretion is normal
  • Calcium restriction to <400 mg/day — Calcium restriction increases oxalate absorption and stone formation and causes bone loss — normal dietary calcium (1,000–1,200 mg) is recommended
  • Furosemide — Loop diuretics increase urinary calcium and worsen stone risk
Board pearlHypercalciuria with normal serum calcium = thiazide, never calcium restriction. Hypercalciuria with high serum calcium = parathyroidectomy.
Tier 1
Domain 8
Nephrolithiasis, Urinary Infection & Obstruction
Stone Types · Non-Contrast CT · AUA 2025 Size Rules · Obstructed Infected Kidney · Prevention · ASB & Pyelonephritis
★★★ Highest Yield
StoneCrystal / pH / X-rayAssociationPrevention
Calcium oxalate (~75%)Envelope; any pH; opaqueHypercalciuria, hyperoxaluria (malabsorption, ethylene glycol), hypocitraturiaThiazide (hypercalciuria), citrate, normal dietary calcium, low Na/animal protein
Calcium phosphateAlkalineDistal RTA, hyperparathyroidism, topiramateTreat cause
Uric acidRhomboid; pH <5.5; lucentGout, metabolic syndrome, diarrheaPotassium citrate to pH 6–6.5 dissolves; allopurinol
StruviteCoffin lid; pH >7; staghornUrease organisms (Proteus, Klebsiella, S. saprophyticus)PCNL — complete removal; antibiotics alone fail
CystineHexagon; acid; faintAutosomal recessive cystinuria; teenagerFluids >4 L, alkalinize, tiopronin
Management (AUA 2025)Memorize
  • Non-contrast CT is gold standard; ultrasound first in pregnancy and children. Strain urine, check Ca/uric acid/creatinine/UA.
  • ≤10 mm, no complication: NSAIDs + tamsulosin (distal, >5 mm) + reimage 14 days; intervene if not passed by 4–6 weeks. >10 mm, AKI, solitary kidney, intractable pain: ureteroscopy (first-line), ESWL (<2 cm renal, not in pregnancy), PCNL (>2 cm/staghorn).
  • Fever + obstruction = IV antibiotics + stent or nephrostomy today. Delay ≥2 days raises mortality ~29%. Stone removal after infection clears.
  • Prevention for all: urine >2.5 L/day, Na <2.3 g, calcium 1,000–1,200 mg with meals; 24-h urine after recurrence; high Ca + high PTH = parathyroidectomy.
Infection & Obstruction Rules
  • Asymptomatic bacteriuria: treat only pregnancy (screen 12–16 wk) and before urologic procedures. Cystitis: nitrofurantoin, fosfomycin, TMP-SMX (5–7 d in men). Pyelonephritis: ceftriaxone or FQ (resistance <10%); image if no improvement at 48–72 h (abscess, obstruction, emphysematous). Nitrofurantoin never for pyelo or CrCl <30.
  • Obstruction: elderly man + BPH + anticholinergic/opioid + anuria = bladder scan and catheter; hydronephrosis on US; post-obstructive diuresis (replace half if >200 mL/h).
⚑ Board Traps — Stones
  • Never restrict dietary calcium
  • Staghorn = struvite = surgery; uric acid = invisible on X-ray, dissolvable
  • Pregnancy: ultrasound, then ureteroscopy/stent; no ESWL, no CT first
★ Memory Trick
“Under 10, tamsulosin; over 10, urology; fever, drain today” Crystals: “Envelopes oxalate, Coffins struvite, Hexagons cystine, Rhomboids urate”
Domain 9 · Hereditary & Cystic — Tier 2
ADPKD, Alport, Thin Basement Membrane, Bosniak
Before you beginHereditary & Cystic2 questions
Answer these two before you read the topics. Getting them wrong is expected and useful — attempting a question first is what makes the material below stick. Each explanation unlocks only after you submit.
In-sessionQ1 of 2 · Medium · Familial hematuria
UA: 30 RBC/hpf, dysmorphic   UPCR 0.8 g/g
Audiogram: bilateral high-frequency SNHL
A 16-year-old boy has persistent microscopic hematuria, 800 mg/day of proteinuria, and bilateral high-frequency sensorineural hearing loss. His maternal uncle started dialysis at 32. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: C — Lisinopril, titrated to the maximal tolerated dose
Hematuria + proteinuria + sensorineural deafness with an X-linked pattern is Alport syndrome (COL4A5). Early ACEi/ARB therapy, started at the onset of proteinuria (or even earlier in affected males), delays ESKD by years; SGLT2 inhibitors are added. Immunosuppression has no role.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Observation with annual urinalysis and blood pressure checks — Observation is for thin basement membrane disease; Alport progresses
  • Prednisone 1 mg/kg daily with a taper over 6 months — Steroids do not alter the collagen defect
  • Cyclophosphamide and plasmapheresis — Cyclophosphamide/plasmapheresis is anti-GBM therapy; the anti-GBM antibody in Alport appears only after transplant
  • Tonsillectomy to reduce hematuria episodes — Tonsillectomy has been used in IgA nephropathy, not Alport
Board pearlHematuria + deafness = Alport = ACEi/ARB now. Hematuria alone in the family = thin basement membrane = reassure.
In-sessionQ2 of 2 · Medium · Renal cysts
A 62-year-old man has an incidental 3.5 cm renal cyst on CT with thick irregular septa that enhance after contrast and no solid nodule. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: E — Partial nephrectomy or ablation (surveillance if high surgical risk)
Thick, irregular, enhancing septa without a solid component = Bosniak III (~50% malignant). Management is surgical excision (partial nephrectomy) or ablation, with active surveillance an option in comorbid patients. Bosniak IV (enhancing nodule) is >90% malignant.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • No follow-up; simple cysts of this size require no further imaging — Bosniak I/II lesions need no follow-up; this is not one of them
  • Repeat CT in 6 and 12 months, then annually — Serial imaging is for Bosniak IIF (minimally complex) lesions
  • Percutaneous cyst aspiration for cytology — Aspiration cytology is unreliable for cystic RCC and can seed
  • Radical nephrectomy with regional lymph node dissection — Radical nephrectomy is excessive for a 3.5 cm cystic lesion; nephron-sparing surgery is preferred
Board pearlBosniak: I–II ignore, IIF follow, III resect (or watch), IV resect. Enhancement is the pivot.
Tier 1
Domain 9
Hereditary & Cystic Kidney Disease
ADPKD Criteria by Age · Aneurysm Screening · Cyst Infection · Tolvaptan · Alport vs TBMD · Bosniak
★★ High Yield
DiseaseRecognizeThe Tested Rule
ADPKDRecognizeAge 30–50: HTN, flank pain, hematuria, big kidneys, family history; liver cysts, MVP, diverticula, herniasUS: 15–39 ≥3 total; 40–59 ≥2 each; ≥60 ≥4 each. MRA for aneurysm only with family history of aneurysm/SAH, high-risk job, pre-surgery. Cyst infection = FQ/TMP-SMX. Tolvaptan for rapid progressors (LFTs monthly). ACEi/ARB; transplant — no recurrence
AlportRecognizeHematuria from childhood + sensorineural deafness + lenticonus; X-linked COL4A5; uncle on dialysisACEi/ARB early; anti-GBM disease after transplant in 5%
Thin basement membraneIsolated familial microhematuria, normal GFR, no deafnessBenign; annual UA; ACEi if proteinuria
Medullary sponge kidneyReferenceRecurrent Ca stones, nephrocalcinosis, “paintbrush” papillaeFluids, thiazide, citrate; benign
Renal cysts (Bosniak)CT/MRI enhancement is the pivotI–II nothing; IIF follow; III resect (~50%); IV resect (>90%)
TubulopathiesReferenceBartter (loop-like, child), Gitelman (thiazide-like, low Mg), Liddle (HTN + low K + low aldo)Bartter/Gitelman: K, Mg, NSAID; Liddle: amiloride
Tuberous sclerosis / VHLReferenceAngiomyolipoma (bleeds >4 cm) / bilateral clear-cell RCC + pheochromocytomaEmbolize AML >4 cm, everolimus / surveillance
⚑ Board Traps — Hereditary
  • Three cysts at 25 is ADPKD; three cysts at 65 is not
  • Hematuria + deafness = Alport; hematuria alone in the family = TBMD
  • Dialysis patient with hematuria = image for RCC (acquired cystic disease)
★ Memory Trick
ADPKD extrarenal: “Liver, Brain, Mitral, Colon, Hernia” Bosniak: “1-2 nothing, 2F follow, 3-4 to the OR”
Domain 10 · Dialysis & Transplant — Tier 2
What the Non-Nephrologist Must Recognize
Before you beginDialysis & Transplant2 questions
Answer these two before you read the topics. Getting them wrong is expected and useful — attempting a question first is what makes the material below stick. Each explanation unlocks only after you submit.
In-sessionQ1 of 2 · Medium · Transplant graft dysfunction
Cr 1.2 → 1.9   FK trough 7   plasma BK 60,000
Biopsy: tubular viral inclusions, SV40+
A 44-year-old man 4 months after kidney transplant on tacrolimus, mycophenolate, and prednisone has an asymptomatic rise in creatinine from 1.2 to 1.9 mg/dL. Tacrolimus trough is 7 ng/mL (target 6–8). Ultrasound is normal. Urine cytology shows decoy cells and plasma BK viral load is 60,000 copies/mL. Biopsy shows viral inclusions in tubular cells with SV40 staining. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: B — Reduce mycophenolate and lower the tacrolimus target
BK polyomavirus nephropathy (months 1–12, plasma BK >10,000 copies, SV40-positive biopsy) is managed by reducing immunosuppression; there is no effective antiviral. It mimics rejection clinically and histologically — which is treated by the opposite maneuver.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Pulse IV methylprednisolone for acute cellular rejection — Increasing immunosuppression for BK nephropathy accelerates graft loss
  • Increase the tacrolimus trough target to 10–12 ng/mL for under-immunosuppression — Raising tacrolimus deepens immunosuppression and BK replication
  • Intravenous ganciclovir dosed for the reduced graft function — Ganciclovir treats CMV, not BK; cidofovir/leflunomide have weak evidence
  • Plasmapheresis and IVIG for antibody-mediated rejection — ABMR requires C4d staining and donor-specific antibodies, not viral inclusions
Board pearlBK: back off. Rejection: ramp up. The biopsy (SV40 vs tubulitis/C4d) decides.
In-sessionQ2 of 2 · Medium · Dialysis
A 62-year-old hemodialysis patient with a tunneled right internal jugular catheter presents with rigors and a temperature of 39.4°C during dialysis. Blood pressure is 96/58. The exit site is clean. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: D — Paired cultures, vancomycin plus Gram-negative coverage, remove the catheter
Fever with rigors during dialysis in a catheter-dependent patient is catheter-related bloodstream infection until proven otherwise; S. aureus (often MRSA) and Gram-negatives predominate. Draw paired cultures, start vancomycin plus an antipseudomonal or third-generation cephalosporin (dosed for dialysis), and remove the catheter when there is hemodynamic instability, S. aureus/Pseudomonas/fungal infection, tunnel infection, or persistent bacteremia; place a temporary catheter and a new tunneled line after clearance. Evaluate for endocarditis and metastatic infection with S. aureus.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Oral cephalexin for 7 days and continue dialysis through the existing catheter — Oral therapy is inadequate for bacteremia; the catheter is the source
  • Blood cultures and observation until culture results return — Sepsis physiology requires empiric antibiotics after cultures, not observation
  • Antibiotic lock therapy alone, keeping the catheter in place — Lock therapy is an adjunct for catheter salvage in stable patients with low-virulence organisms, never alone in septic shock
  • Change the catheter over a guidewire without antibiotics — Guidewire exchange is only considered for stable patients after 48–72 h of effective antibiotics with negative cultures
Board pearlDialysis catheter + fever = cultures, vancomycin, and pull the line if unstable or S. aureus.
Tier 1
Domain 10
Dialysis & Transplant
Access Rules · Intradialytic Events · PD Peritonitis · Rejection Timeline · Tacrolimus · Infection Clock
★★ High Yield
DialysisRecognize
ProblemRecognizeAction
AccessFistula > graft > catheter; fistula at eGFR 15–20Never subclavian; no BP/IV/PICC in the access arm; loss of thrill = same-day thrombectomy
Catheter feverRigors on dialysis; S. aureusPaired cultures, vancomycin + Gram-negative coverage; pull if unstable, S. aureus, fungal, tunnel
Intradialytic hypotensionMost common eventStop UF, Trendelenburg, saline; reassess dry weight; hold AM antihypertensives
DisequilibriumRecognizeHeadache/seizure during the first runs, high ureaPrevent with short slow first sessions
PD peritonitisCloudy fluid; WBC >100, >50% PMNIntraperitoneal cefazolin/vancomycin + ceftazidime; remove catheter if fungal/refractory
Missed sessionsHyperkalemia, pulmonary edema, uremic pericarditisCalcium → shift → dialysis; dialysis not loops if anuric; no heparin with pericarditis
Long-termCarpal tunnel/shoulder = β2-microglobulin amyloid; hematuria = acquired cysts/RCCCV disease is the leading cause of death
TransplantRecognize
ProblemRecognizeAction
Rising creatinineTacrolimus level, Doppler US, BK PCR, DSA, biopsyHigh level = toxicity; low = rejection/nonadherence
RejectionRecognizeHyperacute (minutes, preformed Ab); acute cellular (tubulitis); antibody-mediated (C4d, DSA); chronic (IF/TA)Nephrectomy / pulse steroids, ATG / plasmapheresis + IVIG + rituximab / optimize
BK nephropathyMonths 1–12, asymptomatic Cr rise, SV40+ biopsyReduce immunosuppression (rejection = increase)
TacrolimusRecognizeNephrotoxic, high K, low Mg, diabetes, tremor, PRESCYP3A4: azoles/macrolides/diltiazem raise; rifampin lowers
Drug trapsAzathioprine + allopurinol = marrow failure; MMF teratogenic; no live vaccinesRecombinant zoster is fine
Infection clock<1 mo surgical; 1–6 mo CMV, BK, PJP, EBV/PTLD; >6 mo communityValganciclovir (CMV), TMP-SMX prophylaxis (PJP), reduce IS + rituximab (PTLD)
MalignancyReferenceSkin SCC most common; PTLD; native RCCAnnual skin exams
⚑ Board Traps — Dialysis & Transplant
  • Rising Cr after a new azole = tacrolimus toxicity; after rifampin = rejection
  • Fever + leukopenia + colitis at months 1–6 = CMV
  • Uremic pericarditis: dialyze daily, no heparin
★ Memory Trick
“Fistula First, Catheter Last, Subclavian Never” “BK: back off. Rejection: ramp up.”
Domain 11 · Pregnancy, Geriatrics & Onconephrology
The Kidney as the Complication
Before you beginSpecial Populations2 questions
Answer these two before you read the topics. Getting them wrong is expected and useful — attempting a question first is what makes the material below stick. Each explanation unlocks only after you submit.
In-sessionQ1 of 2 · Medium · Preeclampsia
BP 164/112   Plt 88K   AST 210   UPCR 0.2
35 weeks   headache
A 31-year-old woman at 35 weeks has a blood pressure of 164/112 on two readings, a headache, platelets of 88,000, and AST 210 U/L. Urine protein/creatinine ratio is 0.2. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: C — Magnesium sulfate, IV labetalol or hydralazine, and delivery
Severe-range BP (≥160/110) with headache, thrombocytopenia, and transaminase elevation = preeclampsia with severe features (HELLP spectrum) — proteinuria is not required. Management at ≥34 weeks is magnesium for seizure prophylaxis, IV antihypertensives within 30–60 min, and delivery.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Outpatient labetalol and repeat labs in 48 hours — Severe features require inpatient management and delivery
  • Expectant management until 37 weeks because proteinuria is absent — Since 2013, preeclampsia is diagnosed by hypertension plus any organ dysfunction; waiting risks eclampsia and abruption
  • Lorazepam for seizure prophylaxis and oral nifedipine — Magnesium, not benzodiazepines, prevents and treats eclamptic seizures
  • Enalapril and bed rest — ACE inhibitors are contraindicated in pregnancy
Board pearlPreeclampsia = 20 weeks + hypertension + proteinuria OR organ dysfunction. Severe = 160/110, platelets <100K, liver, kidney, lungs, brain → magnesium + deliver.
In-sessionQ2 of 2 · Medium · Myeloma kidney
Cr 3.4   Ca 11.8   Hb 8.9   AG 4
Dipstick trace protein   UPCR 4.1 g/g
A 74-year-old man has fatigue, back pain, creatinine 3.4 mg/dL, calcium 11.8 mg/dL, hemoglobin 8.9 g/dL, and an anion gap of 4. Urine dipstick shows trace protein, but the urine protein/creatinine ratio is 4.1 g/g. Which of the following is the most appropriate next test?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: B — Serum free light chains and SPEP/UPEP with immunofixation
AKI + anemia + hypercalcemia + bone pain + low anion gap + dipstick-negative but UPCR-positive proteinuria = multiple myeloma with light-chain (cast) nephropathy. The dipstick detects only albumin. Serum free light chains and SPEP/UPEP with immunofixation establish the diagnosis; treatment is urgent bortezomib-based therapy plus hydration.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Kidney biopsy — Biopsy may follow but the non-invasive paraprotein workup comes first
  • Anti-PLA2R antibody — PLA2R identifies membranous nephropathy, an albumin-predominant nephrotic disease
  • 24-hour urine collection for albumin and creatinine clearance — Albumin quantification misses light chains — the very reason the dipstick was negative
  • Serum complement, ANA, and ANCA for an immune-complex glomerulonephritis — Complement/ANA evaluate lupus and immune-complex GN; this picture is a plasma-cell dyscrasia
Board pearlDipstick says no, UPCR says yes, anion gap is low = light chains. Send free light chains.
Tier 1
Domain 11
Pregnancy, Geriatrics & Onconephrology
Preeclampsia Criteria & Drugs · ASB in Pregnancy · Geriatric Dosing · Tumor Lysis · Myeloma Kidney · Checkpoint Inhibitors
★★ High Yield
PregnancyMemorize
  • Normal: GFR ↑50%, so creatinine 0.4–0.6 (1.0 is abnormal); right hydronephrosis; mild respiratory alkalosis.
  • Preeclampsia: ≥140/90 after 20 wk + proteinuria (≥300 mg / UPCR ≥0.3) or any organ dysfunction (platelets <100K, Cr >1.1, transaminases 2×, pulmonary edema, headache/visual). Severe: ≥160/110 or organ features; HELLP; eclampsia = seizure.
  • Manage: delivery (37 wk; 34 with severe features) · magnesium for seizure prophylaxis/treatment (not benzodiazepines; lost reflexes → calcium gluconate) · IV labetalol, hydralazine, or oral nifedipine for ≥160/110 · chronic: labetalol, nifedipine ER, methyldopa; treat at ≥140/90 · never ACEi/ARB/MRA · aspirin 81 mg from 12 wk if high risk.
  • ASB: screen 12–16 wk and treat (nitrofurantoin, cephalexin, fosfomycin). Pyelo: admit, ceftriaxone, then suppression. Stones: US → ureteroscopy/stent; no ESWL.
GeriatricsReference
  • Creatinine-based eGFR overestimates function with sarcopenia — dose by cystatin C or Cockcroft-Gault. Avoid/adjust: metformin (<30), nitrofurantoin (<30), NSAIDs, spironolactone <30, morphine/codeine/meperidine, gabapentin, glyburide, DOACs (apixaban 2.5 mg BID with 2 of: age ≥80, wt ≤60 kg, Cr ≥1.5).
  • Typical AKI: poor intake + diuretic + ACEi + NSAID; BPH obstruction; thiazide hyponatremia. Conservative kidney management is a legitimate choice in frail patients.
OnconephrologyRecognize
EntityRecognizeManage
Tumor lysisRecognizeBurkitt/ALL after chemo: urate, K, phos up; Ca down; AKIFluids; allopurinol (intermediate) or rasburicase (high risk; check G6PD); no alkalinization; calcium only if symptomatic; early dialysis
Myeloma kidneyAKI + anemia + hypercalcemia + bone pain; low anion gap; dipstick − but UPCR +Serum free light chains + SPEP/UPEP-IFE; hydrate, stop nephrotoxins, urgent bortezomib
Checkpoint inhibitorsAIN weeks–months in; sterile pyuriaHold drug + corticosteroids
Chemo toxicityReferenceCisplatin: ATN + persistent low Mg; ifosfamide: Fanconi; methotrexate: crystals; gemcitabine: TMA; anti-VEGF: HTN + proteinuriaSaline + Mg; alkalinize + glucarpidase (MTX); ACEi (VEGF)
Hypercalcemia of malignancyPTHrP, low PTHSaline → calcitonin → zoledronate/denosumab
⚑ Board Traps — Special Populations
  • Preeclampsia does not require proteinuria; magnesium, not lorazepam, for the seizure
  • TLS: no calcium unless symptomatic; no bicarbonate; rasburicase needs G6PD
  • Negative dipstick + positive UPCR + low gap = light chains
★ Memory Trick
Preeclampsia: “20 weeks, 140/90, protein or organ; 160/110 = severe; Mag + deliver” TLS: “Three up, one down”
Domain 12 · Pharmacology & Nephrotoxins
Every Drug the Blueprint Tests, in Two Tables
Before you beginPharmacology2 questions
Answer these two before you read the topics. Getting them wrong is expected and useful — attempting a question first is what makes the material below stick. Each explanation unlocks only after you submit.
In-sessionQ1 of 2 · Medium · SGLT2 inhibitor safety
A 61-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes and CKD on empagliflozin is scheduled for elective hip replacement. Which of the following is the most appropriate perioperative instruction?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: A — Hold empagliflozin for 3–4 days before surgery
SGLT2 inhibitors cause euglycemic diabetic ketoacidosis under fasting, surgical stress, and dehydration; the FDA recommends holding them 3–4 days before scheduled surgery (ertugliflozin 4 days) and resuming once eating normally. Also hold on sick days (SADMANS).
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Continue empagliflozin through surgery to maintain glycemic control — Continuation is the mechanism of perioperative euDKA
  • Hold empagliflozin the morning of surgery only and resume that evening — Drug effect persists; one morning is insufficient
  • Double the dose before surgery to offset surgical stress hyperglycemia — Dose escalation worsens the risk
  • Replace empagliflozin permanently with a sulfonylurea — The drug should resume postoperatively; sulfonylureas offer no cardiorenal benefit and cause hypoglycemia
Board pearlSGLT2i: hold 3–4 days before surgery, hold when sick, never in type 1 diabetes.
In-sessionQ2 of 2 · Medium · Lithium nephrotoxicity
Na 147   urine osm 180   no rise after DDAVP
UO 5 L/day   lithium 0.8
A 39-year-old woman on long-term lithium has polyuria (5 L/day), polydipsia, and a serum sodium of 147. Urine osmolality is 180 mOsm/kg and does not rise after desmopressin. Lithium is essential for her bipolar disorder. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: D — Amiloride, with lithium level monitoring
Lithium enters principal cells through ENaC and blocks ADH signaling, causing nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Amiloride blocks ENaC, reduces lithium entry, and improves the concentrating defect while allowing lithium to continue. Ensure free water access and monitor lithium levels and creatinine.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Add hydrochlorothiazide and increase the lithium dose — Thiazides reduce polyuria but raise lithium levels — and the dose should never be increased blindly
  • Intranasal desmopressin twice daily — Nephrogenic DI does not respond to desmopressin, as the water-deprivation test showed
  • Discontinue lithium and start valproate — Stopping lithium is a psychiatric decision; NDI can usually be managed
  • Fluid restriction to 1 L per day — Restricting water in DI causes severe hypernatremia
Board pearlLithium NDI = amiloride. Thiazides, NSAIDs, and ACEi raise lithium levels.
Tier 1
Domain 12
Diuretics, RAAS Agents, Binders & Nephrotoxins
Diuretic Side-Effect Logic · RAAS · SGLT2i · Binders & ESAs · Nephrotoxins by Mechanism · Renal Dosing · SADMANS
★★★ Highest Yield
Drug Classes
ClassSite / UseAdverse Effects & Board Facts
LoopThick ascending limb; edema, hyperkalemia, hypercalcemiaLow K, Mg, Ca; alkalosis; ototoxicity; ceiling dose → then add metolazone; ethacrynic acid for sulfa allergy
ThiazideDCT; HTN (chlorthalidone), Ca stones, nephrogenic DIHyponatremia, low K, high Ca, hyper-GLUC (glucose, lipids, urate); chlorthalidone works to eGFR 15
K-sparing / MRACollecting duct; HFrEF, resistant HTN, aldosteronism, cirrhosisHyperkalemia; spironolactone gynecomastia (→ eplerenone); amiloride for Liddle and lithium DI
ACEi / ARBAlbuminuric CKD, HF, diabetesCough/angioedema (ACEi), high K, Cr ≤30% expected, AKI with bilateral RAS, teratogenic; never two; ARNI needs 36-h ACEi washout
SGLT2iCKD/HF; eGFR ≥20Genital mycosis, euglycemic DKA (hold 3–4 d pre-op), volume depletion; not for T1D
K bindersSZC (1 h; Na load; separate drugs 2 h), patiromer (7 h; low Mg; separate 3 h)Enable RAAS/MRA; kayexalate obsolete
Phos binders / CKD-MBDReferenceSevelamer, lanthanum, ferric citrate (non-Ca); calcium acetate (limit); calcitriol; cinacalcetNon-calcium binders if Ca high or calcification
ESAHb <10 after iron; target 10–11.5HTN, thrombosis, stroke, tumor progression
Nephrotoxins — Mechanism Predicts PresentationRecognize
DrugLesionTell
NSAIDsAfferent constriction; AIN; MCD; papillary necrosisTriple whammy with ACEi + diuretic
AminoglycosidesNon-oliguric ATN day 5–7Low K, low Mg; once-daily dosing
Vancomycin + pip-tazoATNThe tested antibiotic combination
ContrastVasoconstriction + tubular toxicityCr peak day 3–5; saline prevents
AmphotericinType 1 RTA, low K/Mg, DILiposomal + saline loading
LithiumNephrogenic DI; chronic CKDAmiloride; thiazides/NSAIDs/ACEi raise levels; dialysis for toxicity
Acyclovir, MTX, sulfa, indinavirCrystal nephropathyHydrate; alkalinize MTX (not acyclovir)
PPIs, β-lactams, checkpoint inhibitorsAINSterile pyuria, WBC casts; stop ± steroids
Gadolinium (group I) / Na-phosphate prepReferenceNSF at eGFR <30 / acute phosphate nephropathyUse group II agents / PEG preps
Trimethoprim, cimetidine, dolutegravir, cobicistatPseudo-AKI: blocked creatinine secretionCystatin C normal; no action
Renal DosingReference
  • Loading dose unchanged; reduce maintenance dose or extend interval. Metformin stop <30, halve 30–45. Apixaban 2.5 BID with 2 of (age ≥80, wt ≤60 kg, Cr ≥1.5); enoxaparin daily <30; avoid dabigatran/fondaparinux <30. Avoid morphine/codeine/meperidine (hydromorphone, fentanyl instead), nitrofurantoin <30, glyburide. No adjustment: ceftriaxone, doxycycline, azithromycin, linezolid, metronidazole, moxifloxacin.
  • Sick-day rules — SADMANS: hold Sulfonylureas, ACEi, Diuretics, Metformin, ARBs, NSAIDs, SGLT2i during vomiting/diarrhea.
⚑ Board Traps — Pharmacology
  • Loops lose calcium; thiazides take it back (and thiazides cause hyponatremia)
  • Creatinine up on trimethoprim/cimetidine/dolutegravir with normal cystatin C = nothing is wrong
  • Ceftriaxone, doxycycline, azithromycin, linezolid, metronidazole need no renal adjustment
★ Memory Trick
Thiazide = “hyperGLUC, hypoNaK” ACEi = “CAPTOPRIL”: Cough, Angioedema, Potassium, Teratogen, Orthostasis, Pressure drop, Renal artery stenosis, Increased Cr, Lithium interaction
Domain 13 · NEPHROLOGY CODE BLUE
Ten Emergencies — Diagnosis + First Action in 30–45 Seconds
Before you beginDiagnosis + First Action10 questions
Answer these ten before you read the topics. Getting them wrong is expected and useful — attempting a question first is what makes the material below stick. Each explanation unlocks only after you submit.
Code Blue · 30–45 sQ1 of 10 · 30–45 s Emergency · Code Blue
A 66-year-old dialysis patient who missed two sessions: weakness, heart rate 36, wide QRS with no visible P waves. Diagnosis + first action?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: D — Hyperkalemia → IV calcium now, then shift and emergent dialysis
Missed dialysis + bradycardia + wide QRS + absent P waves is hyperkalemia until proven otherwise. Calcium first, before the potassium result; pacing and atropine fail because the myocardium cannot conduct.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Complete heart block → transcutaneous pacing and cardiology for a permanent pacemaker — Pacing does not capture in severe hyperkalemia
  • Hyperkalemic bradycardia → nebulized albuterol — Albuterol shifts potassium but does not stabilize the membrane; it is second
  • Sinus bradycardia → atropine 1 mg IV — Atropine is ineffective for hyperkalemic conduction failure
  • Digoxin toxicity → digoxin immune Fab and cardiac monitoring — No digoxin exposure; Fab is not indicated
Board pearlWide + slow + dialysis = calcium now.
Code Blue · 30–45 sQ2 of 10 · 30–45 s Emergency · Code Blue
Na 118   glucose 96   temp 37.4 °C
A 27-year-old woman post-marathon: confusion, then a generalized seizure. Diagnosis + first action?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: A — Exercise-associated hyponatremia → 3% saline bolus
Free-water overload during endurance exercise causes acute hyponatremic cerebral edema. A seizing patient gets a hypertonic bolus immediately; check the sodium but do not wait for it.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Exertional heat stroke → immediate ice-water immersion to a core of 39 °C — Heat stroke presents with hyperthermia >40 °C; cooling is correct only if she is hot
  • Exercise-induced hypoglycemia → D50 50 mL IV and a repeat glucose in 15 minutes — Check glucose at the bedside, but the syndrome here is sodium
  • Postictal state → lorazepam and observation — Benzodiazepines do not treat the cerebral edema
  • Rhabdomyolysis → isotonic saline 2 L bolus — Isotonic fluid would worsen the hyponatremia
Board pearlSeizure after endurance exercise = hypertonic saline bolus.
Code Blue · 30–45 sQ3 of 10 · 30–45 s Emergency · Code Blue
A 52-year-old woman: fever 39.6 °C, right flank pain, 8 mm obstructing ureteral stone with hydronephrosis, lactate 3.8. Diagnosis + first action?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: E — Infected obstructed kidney → IV antibiotics and emergent stent or nephrostomy
An infected system under pressure is urosepsis that antibiotics cannot reach. Decompress today; treat the stone after the infection clears.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Uncomplicated pyelonephritis → oral ciprofloxacin for 7 days and outpatient urology follow-up in one week — Oral therapy and delay is the mistake that kills
  • Renal colic → ketorolac and tamsulosin — Colic management ignores the fever and obstruction
  • Perinephric abscess → CT-guided drainage — No abscess is described; the obstruction is the source
  • Infected obstructed kidney → IV antibiotics and extracorporeal shock-wave lithotripsy within 24 hours — Lithotripsy in an infected system disseminates infection
Board pearlFever + stone + hydronephrosis = drain today.
Code Blue · 30–45 sQ4 of 10 · 30–45 s Emergency · Code Blue
A 24-year-old man: hemoptysis, creatinine 5.1, RBC casts, bilateral alveolar infiltrates. Diagnosis + first action?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: B — Pulmonary-renal syndrome → pulse steroids now, ANCA and anti-GBM sent, urgent biopsy
Anti-GBM disease or ANCA vasculitis. Serologies and biopsy are sent, but steroids start now; plasmapheresis follows for pulmonary hemorrhage or anti-GBM.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Community-acquired pneumonia with septic AKI → ceftriaxone, azithromycin, and 30 mL/kg crystalloid — Pneumonia does not produce RBC casts
  • Pulmonary embolism with infarction → heparin — Anticoagulation in alveolar hemorrhage is dangerous
  • Tuberculosis → airborne isolation and RIPE — No exposure or chronicity; the sediment is glomerular
  • Cardiorenal syndrome → IV furosemide — Diuresis does not treat hemorrhage or crescentic GN
Board pearlHemoptysis + RBC casts = steroids first, plasmapheresis next.
Code Blue · 30–45 sQ5 of 10 · 30–45 s Emergency · Code Blue
A 60-year-old man: BP 240/140, confusion, papilledema, creatinine 3.2, schistocytes. Diagnosis + first action?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: C — Hypertensive emergency → ICU, IV nicardipine, MAP down 20–25% in hour one
Encephalopathy and papilledema define emergency; the MAHA is hypertension-driven and resolves with controlled BP reduction.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura → emergent plasma exchange, steroids, and caplacizumab — Hypertension-associated TMA mimics TTP; ADAMTS13 is normal and BP control is the therapy
  • Hypertensive urgency → oral amlodipine, observation for 6 hours, and discharge with follow-up — Organ damage excludes urgency
  • Ischemic stroke → permissive hypertension — No focal deficit; encephalopathy from hypertension needs treatment
  • Pheochromocytoma → IV labetalol — No paroxysms; and unopposed β-blockade would be harmful if it were pheochromocytoma
Board pearlPapilledema + AKI + schistocytes = emergency, not TTP.
Code Blue · 30–45 sQ6 of 10 · 30–45 s Emergency · Code Blue
A 19-year-old with Burkitt lymphoma 18 hours after chemotherapy: K 7.1, phosphate 9.4, calcium 6.2, uric acid 15, creatinine 3.0, tetany. Diagnosis + first action?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: A — Tumor lysis syndrome → IV calcium for tetany, rasburicase, fluids, early dialysis
Symptomatic hypocalcemia (tetany) and severe hyperkalemia justify calcium now despite the calcium-phosphate product; then rasburicase, fluids, and early dialysis for refractory electrolytes.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Neutropenic sepsis → blood cultures and broad-spectrum antibiotics within one hour — No fever or source; the electrolyte pattern is lysis
  • Chemotherapy-induced rhabdomyolysis → sodium bicarbonate infusion to alkalinize the urine — CK is not the issue and alkalinization precipitates calcium phosphate
  • Acute hypoparathyroidism → oral calcitriol — The hypocalcemia is from phosphate binding, not PTH deficiency
  • Contrast nephropathy → observation — No contrast; the timing after chemotherapy is diagnostic
Board pearlThree up, one down, after chemo = TLS; calcium only because she is symptomatic.
Code Blue · 30–45 sQ7 of 10 · 30–45 s Emergency · Code Blue
A 45-year-old woman found down for 14 hours: CK 62,000, K 6.4, creatinine 2.8, tea-colored urine, dipstick 3+ blood with no RBCs. Diagnosis + first action?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: B — Rhabdomyolysis → isotonic crystalloid 1–2 L/h, treat the hyperkalemia
Pigment nephropathy: the dipstick sees myoglobin, the microscope sees no cells. Early aggressive isotonic fluid is the only intervention that changes the renal outcome; manage the potassium in parallel.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Acute glomerulonephritis → urgent kidney biopsy and pulse methylprednisolone — GN gives RBC casts and dysmorphic RBCs
  • Hemolytic uremic syndrome → plasma exchange while awaiting ADAMTS13 activity — HUS shows schistocytes and thrombocytopenia
  • Urinary tract infection → ceftriaxone — No pyuria or bacteriuria
  • Compartment syndrome → fasciotomy before any fluids — Fluids and potassium management come first; assess compartments in parallel
Board pearlDipstick positive, microscopy negative = myoglobin; flood the kidney.
Code Blue · 30–45 sQ8 of 10 · 30–45 s Emergency · Code Blue
A 70-year-old dialysis patient: pleuritic chest pain, friction rub, BUN 140, small effusion on echo. Diagnosis + first action?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: D — Uremic pericarditis → daily dialysis without heparin
Uremic pericarditis is a dialysis indication; heparin-free runs reduce the risk of hemorrhagic effusion and tamponade. Serial echocardiography for effusion size.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Acute coronary syndrome → heparin, aspirin, and urgent coronary angiography — Anticoagulation risks hemorrhagic pericardial effusion
  • Viral pericarditis → colchicine and ibuprofen — NSAIDs are avoided in ESKD and the cause is uremia
  • Cardiac tamponade → immediate pericardiocentesis — Small effusion without hemodynamic compromise; drainage is for tamponade
  • Pulmonary embolism → CT pulmonary angiography and empiric heparin — Rub and BUN 140 point to uremia
Board pearlRub + BUN >100 = dialyze daily, no heparin.
Code Blue · 30–45 sQ9 of 10 · 30–45 s Emergency · Code Blue
A 62-year-old woman with cirrhosis: Na 104, chronic, lethargic but arousable, alcohol use, K 2.9. Diagnosis + first action?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: E — Chronic hyponatremia at high ODS risk → slow correction (≤6–8 mEq/L per day)
Na ≤105, alcohol use, hypokalemia, and liver disease are every risk factor for osmotic demyelination. Lethargy without seizure is not an indication for rapid correction; the goal is a slow, controlled rise.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Chronic hypovolemic hyponatremia → normal saline 3 L over 6 hours with hourly sodium checks — Large saline volumes risk rapid autocorrection and worsen ascites
  • SIADH → tolvaptan 30 mg daily with liberal water intake for the first 24 hours — Vaptans are contraindicated in cirrhosis and cause overcorrection
  • Hypervolemic hyponatremia → furosemide 80 mg IV — Loop diuretics alone in a sodium of 104 are unpredictable
  • Severe symptomatic hyponatremia → 3% saline until Na reaches 130 — Correcting to 130 in one day would cause demyelination
Board pearlNa 104 + alcohol + low K = slow is the emergency.
Code Blue · 30–45 sQ10 of 10 · 30–45 s Emergency · Code Blue
A 58-year-old man on hemodialysis via a tunneled catheter: rigors on the machine, temperature 39.8 °C, BP 84/50. Diagnosis + first action?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: C — Catheter-related bloodstream infection → paired cultures, vancomycin plus Gram-negative coverage, pull the line
Rigors with fever in a catheter-dependent patient is line sepsis; hypotension mandates catheter removal, not salvage. S. aureus is the leading organism.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Type A dialyzer reaction → stop dialysis, do not return the blood, IM epinephrine and antihistamine — Dialyzer reactions occur within minutes of starting, with dyspnea/urticaria, without fever
  • Intradialytic hypotension → stop ultrafiltration and give saline — Hypotension here is septic; saline is given but antibiotics and cultures are the action
  • Infective endocarditis → transesophageal echocardiogram before any antibiotics are started — Echo is obtained later for S. aureus bacteremia; it never delays antibiotics
  • Air embolism → left lateral decubitus position — Air embolism presents with sudden dyspnea and neurologic signs, not fever
Board pearlFever + catheter + hypotension = cultures, vancomycin, pull the line.
Final Review
Nephrology Lightning Round — 12 Cases, 15 Seconds Each
One line each. Commit in fifteen seconds; the explanations are deliberately short.
Before you beginOne Line, One Answer12 questions
Answer these twelve before you read the topics. Getting them wrong is expected and useful — attempting a question first is what makes the material below stick. Each explanation unlocks only after you submit.
Lightning · 15 sQ1 of 12 · 15 s Lightning · Lightning 1
Hematuria 2 days after a sore throat in a 22-year-old; C3 normal.
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: B — IgA nephropathy
Synpharyngitic hematuria with normal complement is IgA nephropathy; PSGN follows by 1–3 weeks with low C3.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis — PSGN: weeks later, low C3
  • Membranoproliferative GN — MPGN: low C3, often HCV
  • Lupus nephritis — Lupus: low C3 and C4, systemic features
  • Anti-GBM disease — Anti-GBM: hemoptysis, linear IgG
Board pearlDays = IgA; weeks = PSGN.
Lightning · 15 sQ2 of 12 · 15 s Lightning · Lightning 2
Urine pH 6.8, hypokalemia, nephrocalcinosis, Sjögren syndrome.
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: E — Type 1 (distal) RTA
Inability to acidify urine below 5.5 with hypokalemia and stones is distal RTA; Sjögren is a classic cause.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Type 2 (proximal) RTA — Type 2: urine acidifies once HCO3 falls; Fanconi
  • Type 4 RTA — Type 4: hyperkalemia
  • Bartter syndrome — Bartter: alkalosis, not acidosis
  • Gitelman syndrome — Gitelman: alkalosis, hypomagnesemia
Board pearlUrine pH >5.5 + low K + stones = type 1.
Lightning · 15 sQ3 of 12 · 15 s Lightning · Lightning 3
Heme-positive dipstick, no RBCs on microscopy, CK 40,000.
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: A — Rhabdomyolysis — isotonic fluids
Myoglobinuria. Aggressive isotonic crystalloid to high urine output.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Glomerulonephritis — biopsy — GN has RBC casts
  • Hemolytic uremic syndrome — supportive — HUS has schistocytes and thrombocytopenia
  • Urinary tract infection — antibiotics — No pyuria
  • Ethylene glycol — fomepizole — EG has oxalate crystals and an osmolar gap
Board pearlDipstick + / scope − = pigment.
Lightning · 15 sQ4 of 12 · 15 s Lightning · Lightning 4
Na 126, urine osm 80, 4 L of beer daily and little food.
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: D — Beer potomania — solute, water limits, watch for overcorrection
Urine osmolality <100 means ADH is suppressed; the kidney cannot excrete water without solute. Risk of brisk overcorrection once solute is given.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • SIADH — fluid restriction to 800 mL per day and salt tablets — SIADH: urine osm >100
  • Cerebral salt wasting — isotonic saline and fludrocortisone — CSW: hypovolemic, high urine Na after brain injury
  • Hypothyroidism — levothyroxine — Hypothyroid hyponatremia has concentrated urine
  • Pseudohyponatremia — no treatment — Serum osm would be normal
Board pearlUrine osm <100 = intake problem, not ADH.
Lightning · 15 sQ5 of 12 · 15 s Lightning · Lightning 5
Peaked T waves, K 7.2, on lisinopril and spironolactone.
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: C — Calcium gluconate IV first
ECG changes mandate membrane stabilization before anything else.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Insulin and dextrose first — Shift comes second
  • Hemodialysis first — Removal comes third
  • Sodium polystyrene sulfonate first — Kayexalate is slow and no longer recommended acutely
  • Stop both drugs and recheck in 4 hours — Observation with ECG changes is dangerous
Board pearlECG change = calcium.
Lightning · 15 sQ6 of 12 · 15 s Lightning · Lightning 6
Flank pain, hematuria, AKI in a patient with nephrotic syndrome from membranous nephropathy.
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: B — Renal vein thrombosis
Membranous nephropathy carries the highest thrombosis risk; renal vein thrombosis presents with flank pain, hematuria, and AKI. Anticoagulate.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Pyelonephritis — No fever/pyuria
  • Nephrolithiasis — Possible but nephrotic + membranous points to RVT
  • Renal infarction from atrial fibrillation — No arrhythmia
  • Papillary necrosis — Papillary necrosis: diabetes, NSAIDs, sickle cell
Board pearlNephrotic + flank pain = clot.
Lightning · 15 sQ7 of 12 · 15 s Lightning · Lightning 7
Young woman, resistant hypertension, epigastric bruit, string of beads.
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: A — Fibromuscular dysplasia — angioplasty
FMD responds to angioplasty alone; stents are avoided.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Atherosclerotic RAS — ACEi, statin, and antiplatelet therapy — Wrong patient, wrong lesion
  • Fibromuscular dysplasia — renal artery stent — Stents impair future intervention in FMD
  • Coarctation — surgical repair — Coarctation: arm-leg gradient, rib notching
  • Pheochromocytoma — alpha blockade — Pheochromocytoma: paroxysms, metanephrines
Board pearlBeads = balloon, no stent.
Lightning · 15 sQ8 of 12 · 15 s Lightning · Lightning 8
eGFR 24, potassium 5.2, on maximal losartan, new to SGLT2 therapy.
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: E — Start the SGLT2 inhibitor; manage potassium with diet or a binder
SGLT2 inhibitors are initiated down to eGFR 20; potassium 5.2 is managed to keep the ARB.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Stop losartan because of the potassium and substitute amlodipine — Losartan is the cornerstone; a binder enables it
  • Do not start the SGLT2 inhibitor below eGFR 30 — The threshold is 20, not 30
  • Start metformin 500 mg twice daily for cardiorenal protection — Metformin is contraindicated below 30
  • Start dual RAAS blockade to reduce albuminuria — Dual blockade is harmful
Board pearlSGLT2i to eGFR 20; keep the ARB.
Lightning · 15 sQ9 of 12 · 15 s Lightning · Lightning 9
Anion gap 30, osmolar gap 35, calcium oxalate crystals, hypocalcemia.
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: C — Ethylene glycol
Oxalate crystals, hypocalcemia, and AKI with a dual gap = ethylene glycol; fomepizole plus dialysis.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Methanol — Methanol: vision loss, no oxalate
  • Salicylates — Salicylates: no osmolar gap, respiratory alkalosis
  • Diabetic ketoacidosis — DKA: ketones, no osmolar gap
  • Isopropanol — Isopropanol: osmolar gap without acidosis
Board pearlOxalate + gap-gap = antifreeze.
Lightning · 15 sQ10 of 12 · 15 s Lightning · Lightning 10
Dialysis patient with carpal tunnel syndrome and shoulder pain after 12 years of hemodialysis.
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: D — β2-microglobulin amyloidosis
β2-microglobulin is not cleared by conventional dialysis and deposits in joints and carpal tunnel after years.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Chronic tophaceous gout from reduced urate clearance — Gout is acute and monoarticular
  • Secondary hyperparathyroidism — Hyperparathyroidism causes bone pain and fractures, not carpal tunnel
  • Hematogenous osteomyelitis from the access — No fever or source
  • Seronegative rheumatoid arthritis — No morning stiffness or serology
Board pearlLong HD + carpal tunnel = β2-microglobulin.
Lightning · 15 sQ11 of 12 · 15 s Lightning · Lightning 11
Pregnant, 16 weeks, asymptomatic, urine culture 105 E. coli.
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: B — Treat with nitrofurantoin or cephalexin; test of cure
Pregnancy is one of two indications to treat ASB; untreated, 20–30% progress to pyelonephritis.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • No treatment; asymptomatic bacteriuria is not treated — Pregnancy is the exception
  • Treat with ciprofloxacin for 7 days and repeat the culture monthly — Fluoroquinolones are avoided in pregnancy
  • Treat only if a repeat culture in two weeks is again positive — Delay risks pyelonephritis
  • Treat with TMP-SMX for 3 days — TMP-SMX is avoided in the first trimester and near term
Board pearlASB: treat pregnancy and pre-urologic procedure only.
Lightning · 15 sQ12 of 12 · 15 s Lightning · Lightning 12
Transplant recipient, month 3: fever, leukopenia, bloody diarrhea, rising transaminases.
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: A — Cytomegalovirus — valganciclovir or ganciclovir
CMV disease peaks at 1–6 months: fever, leukopenia, colitis, hepatitis. Treat with (val)ganciclovir; prophylaxis in D+/R−.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • BK nephropathy — reduce immunosuppression — BK is an asymptomatic creatinine rise
  • Acute rejection — pulse steroids — Rejection does not cause leukopenia and colitis
  • Clostridioides difficile — oral vancomycin — C. diff lacks leukopenia and hepatitis
  • Post-transplant lymphoproliferative disorder — rituximab — PTLD: lymphadenopathy, EBV, mass
Board pearlMonths 1–6 + fever + leukopenia + gut = CMV.
Final Review
Five Integrated PANCE-Style Cases
Two systems at once, built the way the exam builds them: the kidney is the complication, the answer is the priority.
Before you beginTwo Systems at Once5 questions
Answer these five before you read the topics. Getting them wrong is expected and useful — attempting a question first is what makes the material below stick. Each explanation unlocks only after you submit.
Integrated caseQ1 of 5 · Hard · Integrated case
Cr 1.4 → 2.0   K 4.6   JVP 14 cm   +6 kg   BP 108/70
A 66-year-old man with HFrEF (EF 25%) on sacubitril-valsartan, carvedilol, spironolactone, and dapagliflozin is admitted with decompensated heart failure. Creatinine has risen from 1.4 to 2.0 mg/dL after two days of IV furosemide, and he remains 6 kg over dry weight with a JVP of 14 cm. Potassium is 4.6. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: E — Escalate the loop dose and add metolazone, accepting a modest creatinine rise
This is cardiorenal syndrome with venous congestion. Renal function improves with decongestion, not with fluids or diuretic withdrawal; a modest creatinine rise during effective diuresis does not worsen outcomes (DOSE, CARRESS-HF). Escalate the loop and add sequential blockade; GDMT continues if potassium and BP allow.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Hold furosemide and give a 1 L isotonic saline bolus to treat the rising creatinine as prerenal AKI — Fluids worsen congestion and renal venous pressure
  • Stop sacubitril-valsartan and spironolactone until the creatinine returns to baseline, then restart both — GDMT withdrawal increases mortality; hold only for hypotension or K >5.5
  • Start dopamine to improve renal perfusion — Low-dose dopamine has no renal benefit (ROSE-AHF)
  • Nephrology consultation for ultrafiltration — Ultrafiltration was inferior to stepped diuretics in CARRESS-HF; it is for diuretic failure
Board pearlCongested kidney = diurese harder. Creatinine bump during decongestion is a marker of effective therapy, not injury.
Integrated caseQ2 of 5 · Hard · Integrated case
Cr 2.1   UPCR 3.8   RBC casts   C3 42   C4 6   dsDNA ↑
A 29-year-old woman with systemic lupus erythematosus develops a creatinine of 2.1 mg/dL, 3.8 g/day proteinuria, RBC casts, low C3 and C4, and rising anti-dsDNA. Blood pressure is 156/98. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: C — Kidney biopsy, then steroids plus mycophenolate or cyclophosphamide, with ACEi/ARB and hydroxychloroquine
Nephritic-nephrotic overlap with hypocomplementemia in lupus is proliferative (class III/IV ± V) nephritis until biopsied. Biopsy defines class; induction is steroids plus MMF or low-dose cyclophosphamide, with belimumab or voclosporin added per 2024 KDIGO/ACR guidance, ACEi/ARB for proteinuria and BP, and hydroxychloroquine continued for all.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Increase hydroxychloroquine and repeat labs in 3 months — Hydroxychloroquine alone does not treat active nephritis
  • Prednisone alone at 1 mg/kg daily, tapered over 6 months, with hydroxychloroquine continued — Steroid monotherapy has inferior renal survival
  • Rituximab monotherapy 1 g on days 1 and 15, with hydroxychloroquine and an ACE inhibitor — Rituximab is for refractory disease
  • Daily plasmapheresis for 7 sessions followed by IV cyclophosphamide — Plasmapheresis is reserved for concurrent TTP or anti-GBM/severe APS
Board pearlLupus + active urine + low C3/C4 = biopsy and induce; never watch.
Integrated caseQ3 of 5 · Hard · Integrated case
K 3.2   uric acid 9.8   eGFR 38   UACR 180
A 58-year-old man with type 2 diabetes, CKD G3b, and gout is prescribed a thiazide for hypertension. Three weeks later he has a gout flare and a potassium of 3.2. He also takes allopurinol and lisinopril. Which of the following is the most appropriate adjustment?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: A — Replace the thiazide with amlodipine or higher-dose RAAS blockade (losartan is uricosuric)
Thiazides raise uric acid and lower potassium; in a patient with gout and CKD they are a poor fit. Amlodipine or maximizing RAAS blockade avoids both problems, and losartan is uniquely uricosuric among ARBs.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Add colchicine 0.6 mg daily for flare prophylaxis and continue the thiazide at the same dose — Colchicine treats the flare but leaves the cause
  • Switch allopurinol to febuxostat 40 mg daily and continue the thiazide — Febuxostat changes urate-lowering therapy without addressing the thiazide trigger
  • Add potassium chloride and continue all current therapy — Supplementing potassium while continuing the trigger is a patch
  • Stop lisinopril and increase the thiazide — The ACEi is kidney-protective; the thiazide is the problem
Board pearlGout + thiazide = swap the diuretic; losartan lowers urate.
Integrated caseQ4 of 5 · Hard · Integrated case
pH 7.05   HCO3 6   K 3.1   glucose 620   Cr 1.9
A 34-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes presents with DKA: glucose 620, pH 7.05, bicarbonate 6, potassium 3.1, creatinine 1.9. Which of the following is the most appropriate first step after starting isotonic fluids?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: D — Potassium chloride first; start insulin once potassium is ≥3.3
Total-body potassium is depleted in DKA; insulin drives the remainder into cells and can cause fatal hypokalemia. Replace potassium to ≥3.3 before insulin. The creatinine reflects prerenal AKI that improves with fluids.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Regular insulin infusion at 0.1 U/kg/h immediately, with potassium added to the fluids afterward — Insulin before potassium repletion causes arrhythmia
  • Sodium bicarbonate 100 mEq IV over one hour for the severe acidemia — Bicarbonate is considered only at pH <6.9
  • Phosphate replacement to prevent respiratory failure — Phosphate is replaced for <1.0 or symptoms
  • Subcutaneous insulin glargine — DKA requires IV insulin until the gap closes
Board pearlDKA with K <3.3 = potassium first, insulin second.
Integrated caseQ5 of 5 · Hard · Integrated case
Cr 2.2 → 3.9 over 10 days   eos 12%   C3 low   UA bland
A 70-year-old man with atrial fibrillation on warfarin and CKD G4 has a cardiac catheterization. Ten days later he has livedo reticularis on both feet, a creatinine rise from 2.2 to 3.9, and 12% eosinophils. Urine sediment is bland with mild proteinuria. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis and best management?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: B — Atheroembolic renal disease — supportive care, statin, avoid further procedures
Delayed, stepwise creatinine rise after arterial instrumentation with livedo, eosinophilia, and a bland sediment is cholesterol (atheroembolic) disease. There is no specific therapy; supportive care, statins, and avoidance of further catheterization or intensification of anticoagulation are the management.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Contrast-associated AKI — expect recovery within one week without specific therapy — Contrast AKI peaks at day 3–5 and recovers; it does not cause livedo or eosinophilia
  • Acute interstitial nephritis from heparin — stop heparin and start corticosteroids — AIN would show pyuria/WBC casts, and heparin is an unusual cause
  • Renal vein thrombosis — increase anticoagulation and obtain CT venography — RVT causes hematuria and flank pain, and anticoagulation may worsen atheroemboli
  • Vasculitis — cyclophosphamide — No ANCA features; the timing after catheterization is diagnostic
Board pearlLivedo + eosinophils + AKI after a catheter = cholesterol emboli; nothing to do but protect what is left.
Cumulative · Mixed · Untimed
The Nephrology Gauntlet — 25 Questions
Every domain, shuffled, written the way the PANCE writes them: a clinician at the bedside, one decision. Each explanation names the strongest distractor and why it fails.
Before you beginThe Nephrology Gauntlet25 questions
Answer these twenty-five before you read the topics. Getting them wrong is expected and useful — attempting a question first is what makes the material below stick. Each explanation unlocks only after you submit.
GauntletQ1 of 25 · Gauntlet · Emergency
A 59-year-old woman on hemodialysis develops chest pain during her session. The nurse reports she has missed her last two treatments. ECG shows a wide QRS and no P waves. Which of the following should be done first?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: D — Calcium gluconate IV
Missed dialysis + wide QRS without P waves = hyperkalemia. Calcium restores membrane excitability in minutes.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Aspirin and heparin for acute coronary syndrome — Strongest distractor: insulin/dextrose — correct, but second; it takes 15–30 minutes and does not protect the myocardium now
  • Nebulized albuterol — ACS therapy does not address the conduction abnormality
  • Insulin and dextrose — Albuterol is adjunctive shift therapy
  • Transfer to the cath lab — The cath lab treats a diagnosis she does not have
Board pearlWide QRS in a dialysis patient = calcium before the potassium result.
Covered below under
GauntletQ2 of 25 · Gauntlet · Stones
A 34-year-old man with a 6 mm distal ureteral stone, no fever, normal creatinine, and pain controlled with ketorolac asks what happens next. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: B — Tamsulosin, strain, reimage in 14 days
Uncomplicated stones ≤10 mm are managed expectantly; tamsulosin improves passage of distal stones 5–10 mm; follow-up imaging at 2 weeks confirms passage.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Ureteroscopy within 24 hours — Strongest distractor: ureteroscopy — reserved for >10 mm, failure to pass in 4–6 weeks, or complications
  • Extracorporeal shock-wave lithotripsy within 48 hours — ESWL is for renal/proximal stones and offers no advantage here
  • Admission for IV fluids at 200 mL/h — IV fluids do not speed passage
  • Percutaneous nephrostomy — Nephrostomy is for infected or obstructed kidneys
Board pearl≤10 mm, no fever, no AKI = NSAIDs + tamsulosin + 14-day reimage.
Covered below under
GauntletQ3 of 25 · Gauntlet · Acid-base
AG 30   osm gap 44   Ca 6.8   oxalate crystals
A 48-year-old man is found confused. Labs: Na 140, Cl 100, HCO3 10, glucose 90, BUN 20, measured osmolality 340 (calculated 296). Urine shows calcium oxalate crystals; calcium is 6.8. Which of the following is the next best step?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: E — Fomepizole and urgent hemodialysis
Gap acidosis (AG 30) plus an osmolar gap (44) with oxalate crystalluria and hypocalcemia is ethylene glycol poisoning. Fomepizole blocks metabolism; dialysis removes the parent alcohol and metabolites when acidosis or AKI is present.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Sodium bicarbonate infusion alone, titrated to a pH above 7.2 — Strongest distractor: bicarbonate — an adjunct for severe acidemia, but it neither blocks nor removes the toxin
  • Ethanol infusion — Ethanol is inferior to fomepizole when fomepizole is available
  • Naloxone — Naloxone treats opioid toxicity, which does not cause a dual gap
  • IV thiamine and dextrose — Thiamine is given, but it is not the definitive therapy
Board pearlDual gap + oxalate crystals + low calcium = ethylene glycol = fomepizole + dialysis.
Covered below under
GauntletQ4 of 25 · Gauntlet · CKD
eGFR 42   UACR 380   K 4.6
A 63-year-old man with type 2 diabetes has eGFR 42 and UACR 380 mg/g on lisinopril 40 mg. Potassium is 4.6, A1c 7.2%. Which of the following is the most appropriate addition to slow progression?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: A — Dapagliflozin
An SGLT2 inhibitor is the second pillar for albuminuric CKD (eGFR ≥20), independent of glycemic effect. Finerenone or a GLP-1 RA would be subsequent additions.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Hydrochlorothiazide — HCTZ treats blood pressure, not progression
  • Glipizide — Sulfonylureas offer no kidney protection and cause hypoglycemia
  • Losartan — Strongest distractor: losartan — adding an ARB to an ACEi is dual RAAS blockade, which increases AKI and hyperkalemia without benefit
  • Aliskiren — Aliskiren is contraindicated with ACEi/ARB in diabetes
Board pearlACEi maxed + albuminuria = add SGLT2i next, never a second RAAS blocker.
Covered below under
GauntletQ5 of 25 · Gauntlet · Urinalysis
A 26-year-old woman has 12 RBC/hpf on two urinalyses, no proteinuria, normal blood pressure and creatinine, and no urologic risk factors. Her mother and sister also have microscopic hematuria without kidney disease. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: C — Reassure; annual urinalysis, BP, and creatinine
Isolated familial microhematuria with normal function, no proteinuria, and no hearing/eye disease is thin basement membrane disease — benign and monitored, not investigated invasively.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Cystoscopy and CT urography to exclude a urothelial lesion — Strongest distractor: cystoscopy — indicated for urologic risk (age ≥35–40, smoking, gross hematuria); she has none
  • Kidney biopsy — Biopsy is for proteinuria, GFR decline, or diagnostic uncertainty
  • CT urography — CT urography adds radiation without indication
  • Empiric prednisone — No inflammatory glomerular disease to treat
Board pearlFamilial hematuria + nothing else = thin basement membrane; add deafness and it becomes Alport.
Covered below under
GauntletQ6 of 25 · Gauntlet · Sodium
A 44-year-old woman with a schizophrenia relapse is brought in obtunded after drinking large volumes of water. Na is 112. She has a brief generalized seizure in the emergency department. Which of the following is the most appropriate immediate treatment?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: B — 3% saline 100–150 mL IV bolus
Seizure from hyponatremia is severe symptomatic hyponatremia regardless of cause; a hypertonic bolus is given immediately. Because psychogenic polydipsia auto-corrects rapidly once water stops, cap the 24-h rise at 8 mEq/L afterward and be ready with D5W/desmopressin.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Fluid restriction — Strongest distractor: fluid restriction — the correct chronic therapy, but a seizing patient needs the bolus first
  • Isotonic saline 1 L — Isotonic saline is too slow and too weak for cerebral edema
  • Tolvaptan — Vaptans are for chronic euvolemic hyponatremia and are dangerous acutely
  • Lorazepam alone and observation — Benzodiazepines do not treat the cause
Board pearlAny hyponatremic seizure: 3% bolus first; then watch for overcorrection, especially in polydipsia.
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GauntletQ7 of 25 · Gauntlet · Transplant
A 51-year-old kidney transplant recipient on tacrolimus develops a tremor, potassium of 5.8, and creatinine rise from 1.1 to 1.9 one week after starting clarithromycin for bronchitis. Which of the following is the most likely cause?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: D — Tacrolimus toxicity from a CYP3A4 interaction
Macrolides inhibit CYP3A4 and raise tacrolimus levels; tremor, hyperkalemia, and a reversible creatinine rise are the classic toxicity triad. Check the trough and reduce the dose or change the antibiotic.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Acute cellular rejection — Strongest distractor: rejection — follows a fall in exposure (rifampin, nonadherence), not an azole/macrolide
  • Clarithromycin-induced interstitial nephritis — AIN is possible but the interaction explains all three findings
  • BK virus nephropathy — BK nephropathy is an asymptomatic creatinine rise without tremor or hyperkalemia, months after transplant
  • CMV disease — CMV causes fever, leukopenia, and colitis
Board pearlNew azole/macrolide/diltiazem + rising creatinine + tremor = check the tacrolimus level.
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GauntletQ8 of 25 · Gauntlet · Emergency
T 39.2   HR 118   lactate 3.6   9 mm stone with hydronephrosis
A 70-year-old man with a 9 mm obstructing right ureteral stone has a temperature of 39.2 °C, heart rate 118, and a lactate of 3.6. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: A — IV antibiotics and emergent stent or nephrostomy
An infected system behind an obstructing stone is a closed-space abscess; antibiotics cannot sterilize it. Decompress the same day; definitive stone treatment comes after sepsis resolves.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • IV ceftriaxone, admission, and observation for 48 hours with repeat imaging — Outpatient therapy risks septic death
  • Oral levofloxacin and outpatient urology follow-up — Strongest distractor: IV antibiotics and observation — treats the organism but leaves the pressurized infected system; mortality rises with each day of delay
  • Immediate ureteroscopy with laser lithotripsy — Definitive lithotripsy in an infected system disseminates infection
  • Tamsulosin and IV fluids — Medical expulsive therapy has no role in urosepsis
Board pearlFever + obstructing stone = drain today.
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GauntletQ9 of 25 · Gauntlet · AKI
A 78-year-old woman with osteoarthritis takes naproxen daily. She was started on lisinopril and chlorthalidone 3 weeks ago and now has a creatinine of 2.6 (baseline 1.0), potassium 5.6, and bland urine. Which of the following is the most appropriate first step?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: E — Stop naproxen, hold lisinopril and chlorthalidone, give fluids
The NSAID (afferent constriction) + ACEi (efferent dilation) + diuretic (volume depletion) “triple whammy” is the most common outpatient prerenal AKI. Remove the offenders and restore volume; expect recovery within days.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Kidney biopsy — Strongest distractor: duplex for renal artery stenosis — reasonable if creatinine fails to recover after stopping the drugs, but the medication history explains it
  • Urgent hemodialysis — K 5.6 with a reversible cause is treated medically
  • Renal artery duplex ultrasound for bilateral renal artery stenosis — Biopsy is for unexplained or glomerular-pattern AKI
  • Start prednisone for interstitial nephritis — Bland urine argues against AIN
Board pearlNSAID + ACEi + diuretic = stop all three first, then reassess.
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GauntletQ10 of 25 · Gauntlet · Nephrotic
A 7-year-old boy with new nephrotic syndrome (protein 4+, albumin 1.8, normal creatinine, normal C3, normal BP) develops fever and diffuse abdominal pain with rebound tenderness. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: C — Spontaneous (primary) bacterial peritonitis
Nephrotic children lose IgG and complement factors in the urine and have ascites — the classic infectious complication is primary peritonitis with Streptococcus pneumoniae. Paracentesis and ceftriaxone.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Renal vein thrombosis with infarction — Strongest distractor: renal vein thrombosis — a nephrotic complication, but it causes flank pain, hematuria, and AKI rather than fever and peritonitis
  • Acute appendicitis — Appendicitis is possible but the nephrotic context makes SBP more likely
  • Steroid-induced gastritis — Steroids had not yet started
  • Hemolytic uremic syndrome — HUS causes bloody diarrhea, anemia, thrombocytopenia
Board pearlNephrotic child + fever + abdominal pain = pneumococcal peritonitis; vaccinate all nephrotic patients.
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GauntletQ11 of 25 · Gauntlet · Dialysis
A 66-year-old man arrives at his dialysis unit and the nurse cannot feel a thrill or hear a bruit over his left forearm fistula. He is otherwise well. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: B — Same-day referral for thrombectomy or angioplasty
Loss of thrill/bruit = access thrombosis. Salvage rates fall with every hour; same-day thrombectomy (surgical or endovascular) with treatment of the underlying stenosis preserves the access.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Schedule reassessment at the next session — Strongest distractor: a temporary catheter — it allows dialysis but abandons a salvageable fistula and adds infection risk
  • Place a femoral catheter and continue dialysis indefinitely — Waiting converts a salvageable clot into a lost access
  • Warm compresses and aspirin — Compresses and aspirin do not open a thrombosed access
  • Surgical creation of a new fistula in the other arm — A new fistula takes months to mature
Board pearlNo thrill = thrombosed = same-day intervention.
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GauntletQ12 of 25 · Gauntlet · Potassium
K 2.4 → 2.6   Mg 1.1   U waves
A 34-year-old woman with anorexia nervosa is admitted with potassium 2.4, magnesium 1.1, and U waves on ECG. Despite 80 mEq of oral potassium, her potassium is 2.6 the next morning. Which of the following is the most important next step?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: D — Replace magnesium
Hypomagnesemia causes renal potassium wasting through ROMK channels; potassium cannot be repleted until magnesium is corrected.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Increase oral potassium to 120 mEq/day — Strongest distractor: more potassium — it will continue to be wasted until magnesium is replaced
  • Change to potassium bicarbonate — Chloride salt is preferred unless RTA; the salt is not the problem
  • Start spironolactone — Spironolactone is an adjunct, not the fix for the underlying wasting
  • Continuous central potassium infusion at 40 mEq/h — 40 mEq/h exceeds safe infusion rates (20 mEq/h central)
Board pearlRefractory hypokalemia = check and replace magnesium first.
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GauntletQ13 of 25 · Gauntlet · Hypertension
A 38-year-old man has BP 172/104 on amlodipine and lisinopril, potassium 3.2, and bicarbonate 32. He takes no diuretic. Which of the following is the most appropriate next test?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: C — Plasma aldosterone-to-renin ratio
Hypertension with unprovoked hypokalemia and metabolic alkalosis is primary aldosteronism until proven otherwise; the aldosterone/renin ratio is the screen (ACEi/CCB can continue for screening; MRAs must be stopped).
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Renal artery CT angiography for renovascular hypertension — Strongest distractor: CTA for renal artery stenosis — RAS also causes secondary aldosteronism, but renin would be high, and the ratio sorts the two
  • 24-hour urine metanephrines — Metanephrines are for paroxysmal symptoms
  • Overnight dexamethasone suppression test — Dexamethasone suppression is for cushingoid features
  • Echocardiography — Echo assesses damage, not cause
Board pearlHTN + low K + high bicarbonate = aldosterone/renin ratio.
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GauntletQ14 of 25 · Gauntlet · Pharmacology
A 71-year-old woman with CKD G3b (eGFR 34) has a urinary tract infection. Which of the following antibiotics should be avoided because of both reduced efficacy and toxicity at her level of kidney function?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: A — Nitrofurantoin
Nitrofurantoin requires adequate urinary concentration to work and accumulates systemically at reduced GFR, causing pulmonary toxicity and neuropathy; most guidelines avoid it below CrCl 30 and use caution at 30–45.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Fosfomycin — Cephalexin is dose-adjusted and safe
  • Cephalexin — Strongest distractor: ciprofloxacin — needs dose adjustment at eGFR <30 but remains effective; the question asks for the drug that both fails and harms
  • Amoxicillin-clavulanate — Fosfomycin is effective without adjustment
  • Ciprofloxacin — Amoxicillin-clavulanate is dose-adjusted and safe
Board pearlNitrofurantoin: never for pyelonephritis, avoid at CrCl <30.
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GauntletQ15 of 25 · Gauntlet · Nephritic
A 63-year-old woman has 3 months of sinus congestion, a new cough with hemoptysis, palpable purpura on the legs, creatinine 3.2, and RBC casts. C3 is normal. Which of the following tests is most likely to establish the diagnosis?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: E — PR3 / c-ANCA
Upper airway disease + pulmonary hemorrhage + pauci-immune GN + purpura in an older adult with normal complement is granulomatosis with polyangiitis; c-ANCA/PR3 is positive in ~90% of generalized disease. Biopsy confirms; rituximab or cyclophosphamide with steroids.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Anti-streptolysin O titer — ASO is for PSGN (low C3, weeks after strep)
  • Anti-nuclear antibody — ANA/lupus lowers complement
  • Hepatitis C antibody and serum cryoglobulins with C4 level — Strongest distractor: HCV/cryoglobulins — also purpura and GN, but complement (C4) would be low; anti-GBM should be sent simultaneously since it also causes pulmonary-renal syndrome
  • Anti-PLA2R antibody — PLA2R is membranous nephropathy, a nephrotic disease
Board pearlSinus + lung + kidney + normal C3 = GPA = PR3-ANCA.
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GauntletQ16 of 25 · Gauntlet · Emergency
K 6.9   Phos 9.8   Ca 6.1   UA 16   Cr 3.4
A 24-year-old man with high-grade lymphoma is 12 hours into induction chemotherapy. Potassium 6.9, phosphate 9.8, calcium 6.1, uric acid 16, creatinine 3.4, and he has carpopedal spasm. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: B — Rasburicase, IV fluids, hyperkalemia therapy with IV calcium for tetany, early dialysis
Tumor lysis syndrome with AKI and refractory electrolytes needs rasburicase (degrades existing urate), volume, hyperkalemia therapy, and dialysis when electrolytes are refractory. Calcium is normally withheld because of calcium-phosphate precipitation — but tetany and severe hyperkalemia make it necessary here.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Sodium bicarbonate infusion to alkalinize the urine and dissolve urate — Strongest distractor: alkalinization — historically used, now abandoned because it precipitates calcium phosphate in the tubules
  • Allopurinol 600 mg daily with oral hydration and furosemide to maintain urine output — Allopurinol only blocks new urate; the urate is already 16
  • Calcium carbonate orally — Oral calcium is inadequate for tetany and adds to precipitation
  • Furosemide 80 mg IV and observation — Diuretics alone do not clear urate or phosphate at this severity
Board pearlTLS = rasburicase + fluids + early dialysis; calcium only for symptoms.
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GauntletQ17 of 25 · Gauntlet · AKI
A 55-year-old woman receives vancomycin and piperacillin-tazobactam for cellulitis. On day 6 her creatinine has risen from 0.8 to 2.2 with a bland sediment; vancomycin trough is 24. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: A — Hold vancomycin, re-dose by AUC, switch pip-tazo to an alternative
The vancomycin + piperacillin-tazobactam combination and a high trough are the tested nephrotoxic pairing. Remove the offenders, re-dose vancomycin by AUC if still required, and support.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Continue both antibiotics at the same doses and add IV fluids for renal protection — Strongest distractor: steroids for AIN — possible with β-lactams, but the bland sediment and high trough point to toxicity, not AIN
  • Kidney biopsy — Continuing both perpetuates the injury
  • Start prednisone for interstitial nephritis — Biopsy is not needed for a drug-explained AKI
  • Switch vancomycin to gentamicin — Gentamicin trades one nephrotoxin for another
Board pearlVanc + pip-tazo + rising creatinine = stop the pair, dose by AUC.
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GauntletQ18 of 25 · Gauntlet · Pregnancy
33 wk   BP 152/96   Plt 92K   AST 180   UPCR 0.1
A 27-year-old woman at 33 weeks has BP 152/96 on two readings, platelets 92,000, AST 180, and a UPCR of 0.1. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: D — Admit: magnesium sulfate, antihypertensives, delivery planning
Hypertension after 20 weeks with thrombocytopenia and transaminitis is preeclampsia with severe features (HELLP spectrum) even without proteinuria. Magnesium, BP control, corticosteroids for fetal lung maturity at <34 weeks, and delivery.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Reassure; preeclampsia requires proteinuria — Strongest distractor: outpatient labetalol — appropriate for gestational hypertension without severe features, not with platelets <100K and liver injury
  • Start oral labetalol and recheck blood pressure and labs in one week — Proteinuria has not been required since 2013
  • Enalapril — ACE inhibitors are contraindicated in pregnancy
  • Outpatient aspirin 81 mg — Aspirin is prevention from 12 weeks, not treatment
Board pearlHypertension + organ dysfunction after 20 weeks = preeclampsia; severe features = admit, magnesium, deliver.
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GauntletQ19 of 25 · Gauntlet · Urinalysis
A 29-year-old woman has 3+ blood on dipstick after a 20-mile run, with 0–1 RBC/hpf on microscopy, CK 31,000, and creatinine 1.9. Which of the following best explains the dipstick result?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: C — Myoglobinuria from rhabdomyolysis
The heme reagent reacts with myoglobin and hemoglobin as well as red cells. A positive dipstick with no RBCs on microscopy plus a CK >5× normal is myoglobinuria; treat with aggressive isotonic fluids.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Glomerular hematuria from exercise-induced IgA flare — Strongest distractor: march hemoglobinuria — also dipstick-positive/microscopy-negative, but the CK of 31,000 and AKI point to muscle, not red cells
  • Menstrual contamination — Glomerular bleeding produces RBCs on microscopy
  • Hemoglobinuria from march hemolysis — Contamination would show RBCs
  • Laboratory error — The pattern is diagnostic, not erroneous
Board pearlDipstick positive, microscopy negative, CK high = rhabdomyolysis.
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GauntletQ20 of 25 · Gauntlet · Acid-base
A 58-year-old man with COPD has ABG pH 7.36, PaCO2 66, HCO3 36. Which of the following best describes his acid-base status?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: E — Chronic respiratory acidosis, appropriately compensated
PaCO2 is 26 above 40; chronic compensation raises HCO3 by ~3.5 per 10 (expected ~33–35), which matches. The near-normal pH reflects full renal compensation, not a second disorder.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Acute respiratory acidosis — Strongest distractor: metabolic alkalosis with compensation — respiratory compensation for alkalosis rarely exceeds a PaCO2 of 55, and a COPD history makes the respiratory process primary
  • Normal acid-base status — The values are abnormal even though pH is compensated
  • Metabolic alkalosis with respiratory compensation — Acute compensation would give HCO3 ~27
  • Mixed respiratory acidosis and metabolic acidosis from hypoperfusion — HCO3 is not lower than expected, so no metabolic acidosis
Board pearlChronic CO2 retention: HCO3 +3.5 per 10 mmHg; do not treat the number with bicarbonate.
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GauntletQ21 of 25 · Gauntlet · CKD
Hb 8.9   ferritin 60   TSAT 14%
A 68-year-old woman with CKD G4 has hemoglobin 8.9, MCV 88, ferritin 60, TSAT 14%, and no bleeding. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: B — Iron repletion, then reassess hemoglobin
Iron deficiency (TSAT ≤20%, ferritin ≤100) must be corrected before an ESA; many patients respond to iron alone, and ESAs given to iron-deficient patients are ineffective and raise thrombotic risk.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Start darbepoetin every 2 weeks — Strongest distractor: ESA — the eventual therapy if Hb stays <10 after iron, but not first
  • Transfuse 2 units — Transfusion is for symptomatic or severe anemia and sensitizes future transplant recipients
  • Bone marrow biopsy — Marrow biopsy is for unexplained cytopenias
  • Vitamin B12 injections — No macrocytosis or B12 deficiency shown
Board pearlIron first; ESA second; target Hb 10–11.5, never normal.
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GauntletQ22 of 25 · Gauntlet · Glomerular
A 62-year-old man has nephrotic syndrome (8 g/day) and a positive anti-PLA2R antibody. Two weeks later he develops sudden left flank pain, gross hematuria, and a creatinine rise from 1.0 to 1.8. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: D — Renal vein thrombosis
Membranous nephropathy carries the highest risk of renal vein thrombosis, especially with albumin <2.5; flank pain, hematuria, and AKI are the triad. Confirm with CT/MR venography and anticoagulate.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Progression to rapidly progressive GN — Membranous does not transform into RPGN; the presentation is vascular, not glomerular
  • Nephrolithiasis — Strongest distractor: nephrolithiasis — flank pain and hematuria overlap, but the nephrotic context and AKI make thrombosis far more likely; CT will distinguish
  • Pyelonephritis — No fever or pyuria
  • Contrast-induced AKI — No contrast exposure described
Board pearlMembranous + sudden flank pain + AKI = renal vein thrombosis.
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GauntletQ23 of 25 · Gauntlet · Emergency
A 46-year-old man on peritoneal dialysis has cloudy effluent, abdominal pain, and a temperature of 38.4 °C. Effluent WBC is 2,200/µL with 85% neutrophils. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial action?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: A — Intraperitoneal cefazolin plus ceftazidime after effluent culture
PD peritonitis is treated empirically with intraperitoneal antibiotics covering Gram-positive and Gram-negative organisms; the catheter stays unless the infection is fungal, refractory beyond 5 days, relapsing, or associated with tunnel infection.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Remove the PD catheter immediately and place a hemodialysis catheter — Strongest distractor: catheter removal — correct for fungal or refractory peritonitis, not a first bacterial episode
  • Oral amoxicillin-clavulanate — Oral therapy does not reach peritoneal levels
  • Exploratory laparotomy — Surgery only if perforation is suspected (multiple enteric organisms, free air)
  • Convert to hemodialysis and observe — Switching modality abandons a treatable episode
Board pearlCloudy bag = IP antibiotics now; pull the catheter only for fungus or failure.
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GauntletQ24 of 25 · Gauntlet · Sodium
Na 168   U osm 720
A 79-year-old man with dementia is admitted from a nursing facility with Na 168, lethargy, and dry mucous membranes; urine osmolality is 720. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: C — Free water (enteral or D5W), lowering sodium ≤10–12 mEq/L per day
Concentrated urine means the kidney is responding to ADH normally — this is a water deficit from impaired access and thirst. Replace free water slowly; rapid correction causes cerebral edema.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Rapid correction with D5W to a sodium of 140 over the next 6 hours — Strongest distractor: rapid D5W — the right fluid at a dangerous rate
  • Desmopressin — Desmopressin treats central DI, which would show dilute urine
  • Hydrochlorothiazide — Thiazides are for nephrogenic DI
  • 3% saline — Hypertonic saline raises sodium
Board pearlHypernatremia with urine osm >600 = water deficit; correct ≤10–12 per day.
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GauntletQ25 of 25 · Gauntlet · Dialysis decision
A 61-year-old man with CKD G5 (eGFR 9) is asymptomatic, eating well, with potassium 5.1, bicarbonate 21 on oral bicarbonate, no edema, and a maturing fistula. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: E — Continue conservative care; start dialysis for symptoms or refractory complications
The IDEAL trial showed no benefit to starting dialysis early based on eGFR alone; initiation is driven by symptoms and refractory metabolic complications. He should already be listed for transplant and continue fistula maturation.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Start hemodialysis now because eGFR is below 10 — Strongest distractor: starting for eGFR <10 — a number, not an indication
  • Refer for urgent transplant listing only — Listing should have occurred at eGFR ≤20 and does not replace the dialysis decision
  • Place a tunneled catheter and begin hemodialysis this week while the fistula matures — A catheter start is the worst-outcome start when a fistula is maturing
  • Start peritoneal dialysis prophylactically — Prophylactic PD has no evidence base
Board pearlDialysis starts for symptoms, not for a number.
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Nephrology on One Page · Screenshot This
The 20 Things to Know Before Your PANCE

The 20 Things to Know Before Your PANCE

Nephrology · PA Clinical Bootcamp
01KDIGO AKI. Cr ↑≥0.3 in 48 h, or ≥1.5× in 7 d, or UO <0.5 mL/kg/h × 6 h. Stage 3 = 3×, Cr ≥4, KRT, anuria 12 h.
02Prerenal vs ATN. BUN:Cr >20, FENa <1%, bland urine, improves with volume = prerenal. FENa >2%, muddy casts, no response = ATN.
03FENa limits. Invalid on diuretics (use FEUrea <35%). Low-FENa impostors: contrast, rhabdo, hemolysis, hepatorenal, sepsis, early GN.
04Sediment. Muddy = ATN. RBC casts = GN. WBC casts = AIN/pyelo. Fatty/Maltese = nephrotic. Envelope oxalate, rhomboid urate, coffin-lid struvite, hexagon cystine.
05Dipstick traps. Heme + / RBC − = myoglobin. Protein − / UPCR + / low anion gap = myeloma light chains.
06Nephrotic range. >3.5 g/day, albumin <3.5, edema, lipids. Child = steroids (MCD). Adult = biopsy. Membranous = renal vein thrombosis.
07RBC casts. Glomerular bleeding = glomerulonephritis. Never benign. Serologies and nephrology the same week.
08Complement shortcut. Low C3: PSGN (weeks), lupus (+C4), MPGN/HCV, endocarditis. Normal C3: IgA (days), ANCA, anti-GBM.
09Pulmonary-renal. Hemoptysis + RBC casts: send ANCA + anti-GBM, pulse steroids now, plasmapheresis for anti-GBM/hemorrhage.
10Hyperkalemia. STABILIZE (calcium; any ECG change or K ≥6.5) → SHIFT (insulin/dextrose, albuterol) → REMOVE (loop, SZC/patiromer, dialysis). Kayexalate is out.
11Hyponatremia. Serum osm → urine osm (<100 = intake) → volume + urine Na. SIADH needs normal TSH/cortisol. Saline for hypovolemia; restriction for SIADH.
12Sodium speed limit. Severe symptoms: 3% saline 100–150 mL ×3 (+4–6). Chronic: ≤8 mEq/L per 24 h. Overshoot: D5W + desmopressin. Hypernatremia ≤10–12/day.
13Anion gap approach. AG = Na − Cl − HCO3 (+2.5 per g/dL albumin <4). Gap: MUDPILES → osmolar gap. Non-gap: HARDASS → urine anion gap (neg = diarrhea, pos = RTA).
14Winter’s formula. Expected PaCO2 = 1.5 × HCO3 + 8 ± 2. Outside the range = second disorder.
15RTA 1 / 2 / 4. Type 1: urine pH >5.5, low K, stones (Sjögren, amphotericin). Type 2: Fanconi (myeloma, tenofovir). Type 4: high K (diabetes, NSAIDs, ACEi).
16Stones. Non-contrast CT; ultrasound in pregnancy (no CT first, no ESWL). ≤10 mm: NSAID + tamsulosin + 14-day reimage. Never restrict calcium.
17Infected obstruction. Fever + obstructing stone = IV antibiotics + stent or nephrostomy TODAY. Antibiotics alone fail.
18CKD principle. ≥3 months. G 90/60/45/30/15; A 30/300. Four pillars: max ACEi/ARB (Cr ≤30% OK, never two), SGLT2i ≥20, finerenone, GLP-1 RA. Iron before ESA.
19AEIOU. Refractory Acidosis, Electrolytes (K), Ingestions (SLIME), Overload, Uremia (pericarditis, encephalopathy). Refractory is the word.
20Dialysis & transplant. Fistula first, subclavian never. Catheter fever = cultures, vancomycin, pull the line. No thrill = same-day thrombectomy. BK = reduce; rejection = increase. Azole + tacrolimus = toxicity.
paclinicalbootcamp.comRajiv Choudhary, MD, MPH
⬡ Closing Statement
"Nephrology on the PANCE tests sequence and restraint. The calcium that goes in before the potassium result is back. The sodium raised four points and then deliberately stopped. The ACE inhibitor that stays on when the creatinine rises twenty percent. The bladder scan before the fluid bolus. The infected, obstructed kidney drained today, not cultured and watched. These are not trick questions — they are the exact decisions that separate the clinician who causes harm from the one who prevents it."
— Rajiv Choudhary, MD, MPH
● LIVE STRIP25mm/s
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