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PANCE · PANRE · Board Prep Intensive

PA Cardiology
Bootcamp Syllabus

Complete Cardiology Bootcamp Syllabus — 10 clinical domains with Foundations, Ischemic HD, Arrhythmias, Heart Failure, Valvular Disease, HTN, Pericardial Disease, Cardiomyopathies, Shock States, and Vascular Disease — now with Module D: Must-Know Differentials (7 high-yield frameworks) and Module E: Board Pearls (domain-organized clinical decision points). Each of the 6 core PANCE topics opens with 3 in-session board-style questions (recognition → management → trap) plus 2 homework questions.

10Clinical Domains
24Board Topics
4New Foundation Topics
2New Modules Added
7Must-Know Differentials
10Don't Miss Emergencies
Tier Key:
Tier 1 — Must Know (guaranteed PANCE)
Tier 2 — Important (frequently tested)
★ = Gap topic added from your source material
Before You Begin
How to Use This Syllabus
Teaching Philosophy
Domain 1 · Cardiology Foundations
Cardiology Foundations
Before you beginCardiology Foundations3 questions
Answer these three before you read the domain. Getting them wrong is expected and useful — attempting a question first is what makes the material below stick. Each explanation unlocks only after you submit.
Question 1 of 3 · Medium · Forrester Hemodynamic Profiles
A 68-year-old man with dilated cardiomyopathy (EF 20%) develops hypotension, cold clammy skin, and oliguria despite being volume-overloaded with bilateral crackles and 3+ pitting edema. Which Forrester hemodynamic profile best describes this presentation and which management approach is most appropriate?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: E — Wet and cold — requires inotropic support with careful diuresis
This patient is congested (crackles, edema = 'wet') and poorly perfused (hypotension, cold extremities, oliguria = 'cold'). This is the Forrester Wet+Cold quadrant — cardiogenic shock with congestion — requiring inotropic support to improve perfusion plus careful diuresis to address congestion without worsening hypotension.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Wet and warm — congested but well perfused, needs diuretics alone — Incorrect. This patient is indeed 'wet,' so the congestion half is right — but he is not 'warm.' Cold clammy skin, hypotension, and oliguria all indicate inadequate perfusion, which changes management from diuretics alone to inotropic support.
  • Dry and warm — well compensated, no intervention needed beyond observation — Incorrect. Both halves are wrong. Bilateral crackles and 3+ edema define a congested ('wet') state, and cold extremities with oliguria define poor perfusion ('cold'). This is the sickest quadrant, not the well one.
  • Distributive shock — requires norepinephrine and large-volume IV fluids — Incorrect. Distributive shock produces WARM extremities from peripheral vasodilation and typically a low JVP. This patient has cold skin and volume overload, pointing to a cardiac pump failure rather than vasodilation.
  • Dry and cold — requires fluid resuscitation — Incorrect. The 'cold' half is correct, but giving fluid here would be harmful. Crackles and 3+ pitting edema establish that the patient is volume-overloaded, so additional fluid would worsen pulmonary congestion.
Board pearlTwo bedside questions sort every decompensated heart failure patient: wet or dry (congestion) and warm or cold (perfusion). Wet+warm is the common admission and needs diuresis alone. Wet+cold is the one that kills — diuresing a cold patient without inotropic support drops an already inadequate cardiac output further.
Covered below under Topic F-1 — Cardiac Physiology & Hemodynamics
Question 2 of 3 · Medium · Murmur Dynamic Maneuvers
A 24-year-old competitive swimmer has a grade 2/6 systolic ejection murmur at the left upper sternal border that disappears when he stands up. He has no symptoms and a normal ECG. What does the change in murmur intensity with standing indicate?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: A — This is an innocent (physiologic) murmur — standing decreases preload, which reduces flow turbulence
Standing decreases venous return (preload) to the heart, which decreases flow through the outflow tract and quiets most innocent and pathologic murmurs. An innocent flow murmur that disappears with reduced preload confirms it is not hemodynamically significant.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • This is hypertrophic cardiomyopathy — standing should make the murmur louder, confirming dynamic obstruction — Incorrect. The physiology stated is correct for HCM, but it is the opposite of what happened. This murmur DISAPPEARED with standing, which excludes dynamic LVOT obstruction rather than confirming it.
  • This is aortic stenosis and requires urgent echocardiography regardless of how the murmur changes with maneuvers — Incorrect. AS in a healthy 24-year-old would be unusual and would typically radiate to the carotids with a delayed upstroke. A soft grade 2 murmur that vanishes with reduced preload is characteristic of benign flow, not fixed obstruction.
  • The maneuver provides no diagnostic information in young athletes — Incorrect. Dynamic maneuvers are in fact one of the most valuable bedside tools in exactly this population, where distinguishing an athletic flow murmur from HCM has life-or-death implications for sports participation.
  • This is mitral regurgitation — preload changes are not relevant to its evaluation — Incorrect. Preload changes are quite relevant to MR, and MR is heard at the apex rather than the left upper sternal border. MR also tends to increase with squatting rather than disappear with standing.
Board pearlStanding and Valsalva both drop preload, and that quiets nearly every murmur. The two exceptions run the other way and are the whole reason the maneuver is tested: HOCM and mitral valve prolapse get louder with reduced preload. A murmur that vanishes on standing is reassuring; one that intensifies demands an echo.
Covered below under Topic F-3 — Murmurs, Systematic Approach
Question 3 of 3 · High Yield · Cardiomyopathy · HCM Murmur
A 22-year-old athlete has a systolic murmur at the left lower sternal border. The murmur becomes LOUDER when the patient stands up and SOFTER when squatting. Which is the MOST likely diagnosis?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: B — Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy
HOCM murmur is the only common murmur that increases with standing/Valsalva (decreased preload → smaller LV → worse LVOT obstruction → louder murmur) and decreases with squatting (increased preload → larger LV → less obstruction → softer). This is the opposite of AS, MR, and most other murmurs. Young athlete + LLSB murmur + dynamic changes = HCM until proven otherwise. Order echo immediately.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Pulmonic valve stenosis — Incorrect. Pulmonic stenosis is a fixed obstruction at the pulmonic valve. Its murmur gets LOUDER with inspiration (increased right-sided venous return) and does not behave the way this murmur does with standing and squatting.
  • Ventricular septal defect (VSD) — Incorrect. A VSD murmur is holosystolic and harsh at the left lower sternal border, so the location fits — but it gets SOFTER with standing because reduced preload lowers the left-to-right shunt gradient. This murmur got louder.
  • Calcific aortic stenosis — Incorrect. AS is a fixed valvular obstruction, so its murmur softens with standing (less preload, less flow across the valve). The paradoxical LOUDENING with standing is what separates dynamic LVOT obstruction from fixed AS — the classic tested discrimination.
  • Mitral valve prolapse with mitral regurgitation — Incorrect — and this is now the strongest distractor here, because MVP is the other murmur that intensifies with standing. Two things separate it: MVP is heard at the apex, not the left lower sternal border, and it is introduced by a mid-systolic click. With reduced preload the click moves earlier and the murmur lengthens; in HOCM the murmur simply gets louder as the outflow gradient rises.
Board pearlBuild the murmur differential around the direction of change, not the location. Louder standing / softer squatting = HOCM. Softer standing / louder squatting = aortic stenosis, mitral regurgitation, and most others. Handgrip raises afterload: it worsens MR and AR, and quiets HOCM.
Covered below under Topic F-3 — Murmurs, Systematic Approach · full HCM workup in Domain 6, Topic CM-1
Tier 1
Topic F-1
Cardiac Physiology & Hemodynamics
Cardiac Cycle · Heart Sounds · CO = HR × SV · Frank-Starling · PV Loops · Swan-Ganz Values
★★★ PANCE FoundationExpanded
Why It Matters for Boards

Every hemodynamic management question — from cardiogenic shock to ADHF — tests your understanding of preload, afterload, contractility, and the Frank-Starling mechanism. These are the physiologic levers on every exam.

The Cardiac Cycle — Sequential Events
  • Atrial systole (atrial kick): Contributes 15–25% of ventricular filling. Critical in mitral stenosis and diastolic dysfunction.
  • Isovolumetric contraction: All valves closed; pressure rises without volume change
  • Ventricular ejection: Aortic/pulmonic valve opens when ventricular pressure exceeds arterial pressure
  • Isovolumetric relaxation: All valves close; pressure falls without volume change
  • Rapid filling: AV valves open; passive filling accounts for ~70–80% of ventricular volume
Heart Sounds — Board Pattern
SoundMechanismClinical SignificanceBoard Key
S1Closure of mitral + tricuspid valvesOnset of systoleNormal
S2Closure of aortic + pulmonic valvesOnset of diastole; normally splits with inspiration (delayed P2)Fixed split S2 = ASD. Paradoxical split = LBBB or AS.
S3Rapid ventricular filling — ventricle suddenly deceleratesNormal in young adults/athletes. Pathologic in age >40 → HFrEF, volume overloadS3 = "Ken-tuc-ky" — ventricular gallop. Think HF.
S4Atrial contraction against a stiff/non-compliant ventricleALWAYS pathologic — LVH, diastolic dysfunction, acute MI, HFpEFS4 = "Ten-nes-see" — atrial gallop. Think stiff ventricle.
Determinants of Cardiac Output
  • Cardiac Output (CO) = Heart Rate × Stroke Volume. Normal: 4–8 L/min
  • Cardiac Index (CI) = CO / BSA. Normal: 2.5–4.0 L/min/m²
  • Preload = ventricular end-diastolic stretch. Clinically estimated by CVP/PCWP. ↑ by IV fluids, leg raise. ↓ by nitrates, diuretics.
  • Afterload = resistance opposing ventricular ejection (SVR). ↑ by HTN, vasopressors. ↓ by ACE-I, vasodilators.
  • Contractility = intrinsic pump strength independent of loading. ↑ by catecholamines, digoxin. ↓ by beta-blockers, ischemia, cardiomyopathy.
  • Frank-Starling law: ↑ preload → ↑ stretch → ↑ force of contraction → ↑ CO — up to a physiologic limit. Beyond that, further preload causes pulmonary congestion without improving output (the "failing heart" steep part of the curve).
Core Hemodynamic Equations
ParameterFormulaNormal Value
Cardiac Output (CO)HR × SV4–8 L/min
MAPDBP + 1/3 × pulse pressure (or CO × SVR)70–100 mmHg
SVR(MAP − RAP) / CO × 80800–1200 dynes·s/cm⁵
PVR(mean PAP − PCWP) / CO × 80≤250 dynes·s/cm⁵
Stroke Volume (SV)CO / HR60–100 mL/beat
Right Heart Catheterization — PANCE Essentials

PA students need to recognize what Swan-Ganz findings mean clinically — not memorize normal pressures. The key PANCE application is the hemodynamic profile:

Shock TypePCWPCO/CISVR
Cardiogenic↑ (>18)
Distributive (Septic)Normal/↓↓↓
Hypovolemic
Obstructive — massive PE↓ or normal (RV↑)
Obstructive — tamponade↑ and equalized (RA = RV = PCWP)

🩺 PANCE Pearl: The boards test which profile matches the clinical scenario — not the actual mmHg values. Know the pattern, not the numbers.

Hemodynamic Profiles — Stevenson Classification (warm/cold · wet/dry)
ProfilePerfusionCongestionClinical PictureTreatment
Warm & DryNormalNoneCompensated, stableOptimize medications
Warm & WetNormalPresentCongestion, preserved CODiuretics, nitrates
Cold & DryReducedNoneLow CO, hypotensive without congestionVolume, inotropes
Cold & WetReducedPresentCardiogenic shock — worst prognosisInotropes, vasopressors, MCS
⚑ Board Traps — Cardiac Physiology
  • S3 is normal in young adults and athletes — pathologic ONLY in patients >40 or with symptoms of HF
  • S4 is ALWAYS pathologic — never dismiss it. It signals reduced ventricular compliance (LVH, diastolic dysfunction, ischemia).
  • PCWP >18 mmHg = cardiogenic pulmonary edema — distinguishes from non-cardiogenic (ARDS: PCWP normal)
  • CI ≤2.2 L/min/m² = cardiogenic shock — the threshold for mechanical circulatory support consideration
  • Frank-Starling: beyond the optimal preload, more volume = congestion not output — this is why you diurese in decompensated HF even when BP is low
★ Memory Trick
S3: "Ken-tuc-ky" (extra sound after S2) = Volume overload = HF S4: "Ten-nes-see" (extra sound before S1) = Stiff ventricle = LVH/diastolic dysfunction "S3 comes after S2 like a 3rd wheel. S4 comes before S1 like an announcement." CO = HR × SV. Fix CO: rate + fill + squeeze. PCWP: "18 is the flood zone — above 18 = cardiogenic pulmonary edema" SVR: "Nitrates ↓ preload. ACE-I ↓ afterload. Dobutamine ↑ contractility."
🫀 Topic F-2 — EKG Interpretation lives in the EKG Syllabus. Leads, the systematic approach, intervals, axis, STEMI criteria and localization, STEMI equivalents and mimics are all taught in the PA Bootcamp EKG Syllabus, which owns this material so it stays in one place. That is why the numbering here runs F-1 → F-3. Open the EKG Syllabus ↗
Tier 1
Topic F-3
Murmurs — Systematic Approach
Timing · Location · Radiation · Dynamic Maneuvers · HCM vs AS · All Diastolic Murmurs Are Pathologic
★★★ PANCE Priority
The Cardinal Rule

All diastolic murmurs and all continuous murmurs (except venous hum and mammary soufflé) are pathologic and require echocardiography. Systolic murmurs may be innocent — diastolic murmurs never are.

Systematic Auscultation — 6-Point Framework
  • 1. Timing: Systolic (during S1→S2) vs diastolic (during S2→S1) vs continuous (throughout)
  • 2. Location: Aortic (RUSB), pulmonic (LUSB), tricuspid (LLSB), mitral (apex)
  • 3. Radiation: AS → carotids. MR → axilla. TR → increases with inspiration.
  • 4. Configuration: Crescendo-decrescendo (diamond/ejection), holosystolic (plateau), decrescendo
  • 5. Intensity: Grade 1–6. Grade ≥4 = palpable thrill. Grade 6 = audible without stethoscope.
  • 6. Pitch: High (diaphragm) vs low/rumbling (bell, light pressure)
High-Yield Murmur Characteristics
MurmurTimingLocationRadiationCharacterBoard Key
Aortic Stenosis (AS)SystolicRUSBCarotidsCrescendo-decrescendo; late-peaking in severe ASPulsus parvus et tardus (slow-rising, low-amplitude pulse) in severe AS
Mitral Regurgitation (MR)HolosystolicApexAxillaBlowing, plateauIncreases with handgrip (↑ afterload). Decreases with Valsalva.
Tricuspid Regurgitation (TR)HolosystolicLLSBNoneSoft, blowingCarvallo sign: increases with inspiration (↑ right-sided venous return)
Mitral Valve Prolapse (MVP)Mid-to-late systolicApexNoneMid-systolic click + late systolic murmurClick moves earlier + murmur lengthens with Valsalva/standing. Click moves later with squatting.
HCM (HOCM)SystolicLLSBDoes NOT radiate to carotidsCrescendo-decrescendoLouder with Valsalva/standing. Softer with squatting/handgrip. HCM ≠ AS.
VSDHolosystolicLLSBNoneHarshIncreases with handgrip. May have thrill.
Aortic Regurgitation (AR)Early diastolicLUSBNoneHigh-pitched, decrescendo, blowingBest heard sitting up, leaning forward, breath held at expiration. Austin Flint murmur at apex.
Mitral Stenosis (MS)Mid-diastolicApexNoneLow-pitched rumble; use bell in left lateral decubitusOpening snap precedes rumble. Shorter S2→OS interval = more severe MS.
PDAContinuous ("machinery")Left infraclavicularNoneContinuous, machine-likeBenign in premature infants; may need closure if large
Dynamic Auscultation Maneuvers — The Most Tested Table
⚑ Key Principle: Decrease Preload → Most Murmurs Softer. Two Exceptions: HCM and MVP Get LOUDER.
  • Valsalva / Standing: ↓ preload → HCM louder, MVP click moves earlier + murmur longer, AS/MR softer
  • Squatting / Passive leg raise: ↑ preload + ↑ afterload → HCM softer, MVP click moves later, AS/MR louder
  • Handgrip: ↑ afterload → MR, AR, VSD louder; HCM, AS softer
  • Inspiration: ↑ right-sided venous return → TR, pulmonary stenosis louder (Carvallo sign)
When to Order Echocardiography
  • Any diastolic or continuous murmur (except venous hum/mammary soufflé)
  • Holosystolic or late systolic murmurs
  • Midsystolic murmurs grade ≥3
  • Any murmur with associated symptoms — dyspnea, syncope, chest pain, exertional limitation
  • Any murmur that increases with Valsalva or standing — suggests HCM or MVP
⚑ Board Traps — Murmurs
  • HCM murmur does NOT radiate to carotids — this distinguishes it from AS (which does). Both are crescendo-decrescendo at similar locations.
  • HCM gets LOUDER with Valsalva; AS gets SOFTER — the single most tested murmur maneuver distinction
  • MVP click moves EARLIER with Valsalva/standing (smaller LV → earlier prolapse). Moves LATER with squatting (↑ preload → larger LV → later prolapse).
  • AR is best heard with the patient sitting up, leaning forward, in full expiration
  • MS: shorter S2→opening snap interval = more severe stenosis (higher LA pressure → valve opens earlier)
  • Innocent murmurs: Soft (grade 1–2), midsystolic, no radiation, asymptomatic, normal S1/S2, no clicks. No echo required.
★ Memory Trick
All diastolic = pathologic. Systolic may be innocent. HCM vs AS: "HCM = Harder with Valsalva. AS = Attenuated with Valsalva." HCM: "No carotid radiation = not AS" MVP: "Valsalva = valve prolapses sooner = click earlier + murmur longer" Squatting: "Squatting fills the ventricle = HCM shrinks (gets softer)" Inspiration: "Inspires right-sided murmurs to get louder (Carvallo)" AR: "Lean forward, hold your breath, use the diaphragm — it whispers in expiration"
Domain 2 · Ischemic Heart Disease — Most Tested on PANCE
Ischemic Heart Disease
Before you beginAcute Coronary Syndromes3 in-session · 2 homework
Core Topic 2 — Acute Coronary Syndromes. Attempt the three in-session questions before the domain is taught — they run in the room, in this order: recognition, then management, then the trap. The two homework questions are for tonight, after the teaching. Getting them wrong first is expected and useful; each explanation unlocks only after you submit.
In-sessionQ1 of 3 · NSTEMI · Diagnosis & Timing
A 48-year-old man presents with chest pain at rest. ECG shows ST depressions in V3–V6. Troponin is elevated. What is the diagnosis and best next step?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: C — NSTEMI — invasive coronary angiography within 24 hours
Ischemic symptoms plus ST depression plus a rise in troponin define NSTEMI. He goes on antithrombotic therapy now and to an early invasive strategy. Timing follows risk: a positive troponin with dynamic ST depression is a high-risk feature, so this patient earns angiography within 24 hours. Intermediate-risk NSTEMI without those features can wait 24–72 hours. Anyone with refractory ischemia, hemodynamic or electrical instability, or acute heart failure goes immediately instead.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Unstable angina — discharge with outpatient follow-up — Incorrect. Unstable angina is ischemia without troponin elevation. His troponin is up, so this is an infarct, and discharge would be dangerous.
  • STEMI — activate the cath lab for emergent reperfusion — Incorrect. STEMI requires ST elevation (or a STEMI equivalent). He has depressions.
  • Pericarditis — start NSAIDs and colchicine — Incorrect. Pericarditis gives diffuse ST elevation with PR depression and pleuritic, positional pain — not territorial ST depression with a rising troponin.
  • Vasospastic angina — start a calcium channel blocker and nitrates — Incorrect. Vasospastic (Prinzmetal) angina produces transient ST elevation during pain with angiographically normal coronaries, and troponin is usually normal or only minimally raised. Territorial ST depression with a definite troponin rise is thrombotic disease, not vasospasm.
Board pearlSort chest pain in two steps: ST elevation or not, then troponin up or not. Elevation = cath lab now. Depression or T-wave inversion with a positive troponin = NSTEMI, treat and take to angiography early. Same picture with a negative troponin = unstable angina.
Covered below under Topic C-1 — Acute Coronary Syndrome
In-sessionQ2 of 3 · STEMI · Reperfusion Strategy
A 60-year-old woman presents with 2 hours of chest pain. ECG shows 3 mm ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. What is the best next step?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: D — Emergent PCI within 120 minutes
ST elevation in II, III, and aVF is an inferior STEMI. Primary PCI is the preferred reperfusion strategy: within 90 minutes of first medical contact at a PCI-capable hospital, and within 120 minutes when transfer is required. Fibrinolytics are the fallback only when that 120-minute window cannot be met.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Obtain CT angiography of the chest — Incorrect. The diagnosis is already made on the ECG; imaging only delays reperfusion. (The exception to think about, not to order reflexively, is a genuine suspicion of aortic dissection.)
  • Start a heparin drip and observe — Incorrect. Anticoagulation is adjunctive. Observing a STEMI without reperfusion means watching myocardium die.
  • Administer fibrinolytics immediately — Incorrect. Second-line. Lytics are for the STEMI who cannot reach a cath lab within 120 minutes, and they carry intracranial hemorrhage risk that primary PCI does not.
  • Arrange coronary angiography the following morning — Incorrect. This is the delay trap in a different costume. Reperfusion benefit in STEMI is measured in minutes, not hours — deferring to the next day abandons myocardium that is infarcting right now.
Board pearlInferior STEMI carries two traps: check a right-sided ECG for RV involvement, and be very cautious with nitrates — an RV infarct is preload-dependent, and nitroglycerin can drop the pressure to the floor. Bradycardia plus hypotension in an inferior MI is RV infarct until proven otherwise.
Covered below under Topic C-1 — Acute Coronary Syndrome
In-sessionQ3 of 3 · STEMI · Pharmacoinvasive Strategy
A patient with STEMI arrives at a non-PCI-capable hospital. Transfer to a PCI center will take 3 hours. The patient is 50 years old with no contraindications. What is the best next step?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: A — Give full-dose fibrinolytics, then transfer for PCI within 24 hours
PCI cannot be delivered within 120 minutes, so give a fibrinolytic (full dose in a patient under 75 with no contraindications) as soon as possible — ideally within 30 minutes of arrival — and transfer for angiography within 24 hours. That is the pharmacoinvasive strategy. If reperfusion fails, transfer immediately for rescue PCI rather than waiting.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Perform thrombolysis only if his symptoms worsen en route — Incorrect. Backwards. Lytic benefit is greatest earliest and falls off sharply with delay.
  • Start heparin and aspirin and await transfer — Incorrect. Antithrombotics do not reopen an occluded artery. Withholding reperfusion here is the error the question is testing.
  • Wait for transfer and perform PCI at the receiving hospital — Incorrect. Three hours of ongoing occlusion means substantially more infarcted myocardium. Time is muscle.
  • Give half-dose fibrinolytics, then transfer for rescue PCI — Incorrect. Half-dose lytic followed by immediate PCI — the facilitated PCI strategy — was formally tested and abandoned: it increased bleeding and reinfarction without improving outcomes. Give the full lytic dose, then transfer.
Board pearlThe number that governs the whole decision is 120 minutes from first medical contact to wire crossing. Beatable, go to PCI. Not beatable, give lytics fast and transfer anyway. Screen for absolute contraindications before lysing: prior intracranial hemorrhage, known structural cerebrovascular lesion, ischemic stroke within 3 months, suspected aortic dissection, active bleeding.
Covered below under Topic C-1 — Acute Coronary Syndrome
Homework — after the session
HomeworkQ1 of 2 · ACS · First Test
A 55-year-old man presents with crushing substernal chest pain radiating to the left arm for 45 minutes. He is diaphoretic and nauseated. What is the best initial diagnostic test?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: D — 12-lead ECG
A 12-lead ECG must be obtained and interpreted within 10 minutes of arrival in any patient with suspected ACS. It is the single test that separates STEMI from NSTE-ACS, and that distinction determines whether the patient goes to the cath lab now or is managed medically with risk stratification. Troponin follows; it does not come first.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • High-sensitivity troponin — Incorrect. Essential for diagnosing NSTEMI, and the ECG and troponin are usually drawn nearly together — but troponin takes time to turn positive and a normal early value does not exclude infarction. The ECG comes first.
  • Chest X-ray — Incorrect. Useful for alternative diagnoses such as pneumothorax or a widened mediastinum, but it never diagnoses ACS and must not delay the ECG.
  • CT coronary angiography — Incorrect. Has a role in low-to-intermediate risk chest pain workup, not in the acute evaluation of a patient who looks like this.
  • Bedside transthoracic echocardiogram — Incorrect. Echocardiography is valuable for wall-motion assessment and for excluding alternatives such as tamponade or dissection, but it is neither the first nor the fastest test in a patient who needs an ECG within 10 minutes.
Board pearlECG within 10 minutes — that number is worth memorizing verbatim. And a single normal ECG never rules out ACS: repeat it every 15–30 minutes if pain persists, because occlusion evolves.
Covered below under Topic C-1 — Acute Coronary Syndrome
HomeworkQ2 of 2 · ACS · Antithrombotic Therapy
Which medication combination should be initiated in ALL patients presenting with ACS without contraindications?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: A — Aspirin + P2Y12 inhibitor + parenteral anticoagulant
The immediate pharmacologic backbone of ACS is antithrombotic: aspirin 162–325 mg chewed, a P2Y12 inhibitor (ticagrelor or prasugrel preferred over clopidogrel in most ACS), and a parenteral anticoagulant such as unfractionated heparin or enoxaparin. This attacks both platelet aggregation and thrombin generation at the culprit plaque.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Clopidogrel + warfarin + beta-blocker — Incorrect. Warfarin has no role in acute ACS management, and this regimen omits aspirin entirely.
  • Aspirin + statin + ACE inhibitor — Incorrect. High-intensity statin and an ACE inhibitor are genuinely important and are started during the admission, but they are secondary prevention — they do not treat the thrombus that is occluding the artery right now.
  • Aspirin + calcium channel blocker + nitrate — Incorrect. Nitrates relieve pain and calcium channel blockers have niche uses (vasospasm, rate control when beta-blockers are contraindicated), but neither is part of the universal ACS regimen.
  • Aspirin + P2Y12 inhibitor + high-intensity statin — Incorrect — and it is close. All three belong in ACS care, but this regimen omits the parenteral anticoagulant. Dual antiplatelet therapy plus heparin (or a low-molecular-weight heparin, or bivalirudin) is what treats the active thrombus; the statin is prevention.
Board pearlDistinguish what stops the clot from what prevents the next event. Antiplatelet plus anticoagulant is the acute answer; statin, ACE inhibitor, beta-blocker, and cardiac rehabilitation are the discharge answer. Watch prasugrel's contraindication: prior stroke or TIA.
Covered below under Topic C-1 — Acute Coronary Syndrome
Tier 1
Topic C-1
Acute Coronary Syndrome
STEMI · NSTEMI · Unstable Angina · Mechanical Complications
★★★ PANCE Priority
Why the PANCE Tests This

#1 cause of death in the US. Boards test STEMI vs NSTEMI distinction, reperfusion timing, contraindications, and post-MI medications. Every exam has multiple ACS questions.

Core Recognition Pattern
TypeEKGTroponinKey Action
STEMIST elevation ≥1mm in ≥2 contiguous leads (V2–V3: ≥2mm men, ≥1.5mm women)ElevatedPCI ≤90 min. Lytics if PCI >120 min from FMC.
NSTEMIST depression, TWI, or normalElevatedInvasive strategy 24–48h. No immediate lytics.
Unstable AnginaST changes or normalNormalAntiplatelet + anticoagulation. Conservative or invasive per risk.
Type 2 MIVariableElevatedTreat the CAUSE (sepsis, tachycardia, anemia) — NOT PCI unless true occlusion
Classic Board Presentation
  • Classic: 58M, diabetic, smoker. Crushing substernal pressure, left arm radiation, diaphoresis, nausea. Onset 2 hours ago.
  • Atypical (test favorite): Diabetics and women → jaw pain, fatigue, epigastric pain, nausea — no chest pain. Still ACS.
  • Vitals: Tachycardia (sympathetic surge), possible hypotension (inferior MI with RV involvement or cardiogenic shock)
Diagnostic Workup
  • First test: EKG within 10 minutes of presentation. Always.
  • Troponin: High-sensitivity troponin rises at 1–3 hours. Repeat at 3–6 hours if initial negative. Peak at 12–24 hours.
  • STEMI mimics to exclude: Aortic dissection (tearing quality + BP differential), pericarditis (diffuse + PR depression), LBBB (apply Sgarbossa)
Treatment Algorithm
MONA-B — Updated Protocol
  • M — Morphine: Only for refractory pain. Caution in NSTEMI — delays P2Y12 absorption, possible ↑ mortality
  • O — Oxygen: ONLY if SpO₂ <90%. Hyperoxia causes coronary vasoconstriction — do NOT give routinely
  • N — Nitroglycerin: SL × 3, then IV. CONTRAINDICATED: RV MI, hypotension, PDE-5 inhibitor use (sildenafil 24h, tadalafil 48h)
  • A — Aspirin: 162–325 mg chewed immediately. Continued at 81 mg indefinitely.
  • B — Beta-blocker: Oral within 24 hours if no acute HF, shock, heart block, or bronchospasm
  • DAPT: Aspirin + P2Y12 inhibitor. Ticagrelor (preferred) or prasugrel. Clopidogrel if high bleeding risk.
  • Anticoagulation: UFH, enoxaparin, or bivalirudin
  • Post-MI four pillars: ACE-I/ARB + high-intensity statin + beta-blocker + DAPT × 12 months
  • MRA (eplerenone): If LVEF ≤40% + HF symptoms or diabetes post-MI. Monitor K⁺ and renal function.
Mechanical Complications of MI (3–5 Days Post-MI)
ComplicationPresentationMurmurConfirmRx
Free Wall RuptureSudden PEA/tamponadeNoneEcho (tamponade)Emergency surgery. Mortality >50%.
Ventricular Septal DefectNew HF + shockLoud holosystolic LSB + thrillEcho, O₂ step-up RA→RV on right heart cathIABP bridge → urgent surgical or percutaneous repair
Papillary Muscle RuptureFlash pulmonary edema + shockSoft or absent systolic murmur at apexEcho (eccentric MR jet, mobile mass)Emergency MVR. Nitroprusside + IABP bridge.
Dressler SyndromeFever + pleuritic pain 1–8 weeks post-MIFriction rubClinical + echo (effusion)NSAIDs + colchicine. Avoid anticoagulation (hemorrhagic pericarditis risk).
⚑ Board Traps — ACS
  • Type 2 MI: Higher mortality than Type 1. Treat the precipitant (sepsis, anemia, tachycardia), NOT with PCI unless true occlusion
  • Inferior STEMI + hypotension: Get right-sided EKG. RV MI. Give IV fluids. NO nitrates — drops preload, causes cardiovascular collapse.
  • O₂ in normoxic ACS: Do NOT give. Worsens outcomes per DETO2X-AMI trial.
  • Papillary muscle rupture murmur may be SOFT or ABSENT despite severe MR — do not rely on murmur intensity
  • Troponin ≠ ACS: Elevated troponin in PE, myocarditis, sepsis, CKD. Dynamic rise/fall + ischemic features = MI.
  • New LBBB: Apply Sgarbossa criteria — not automatic cath lab activation
  • Wellens + stress test = contraindicated → go straight to cath
  • Fibrinolytics: NEVER for isolated ST depression (even if posterior MI suspected — confirm first with posterior leads)
★ Memory Trick
STEMI Timing: "90 for PCI, 30 for Lytics" (door-to-balloon and door-to-needle goals) Post-MI drugs: ACE + STATIN + BETA + DAPT = "A Stab at the Beta" Inferior MI + Hypotension = RV MI → Fluids YES, Nitro NO
Clinical Vignette
A 64-year-old woman with diabetes presents with 3 hours of jaw pain, nausea, and fatigue. No chest pain. BP 88/60, HR 52. EKG shows 2mm ST elevation in II, III, aVF. She received sublingual nitroglycerin in the ambulance and her BP dropped to 68/40.
Answer: Inferior STEMI with RV involvement. The nitro caused preload reduction → cardiovascular collapse. Get V4R (likely shows ST elevation). Give 1L IV NS bolus. Activate cath lab. Her inferior MI pattern + bradycardia + hypotension = RV MI until proven otherwise. Never give nitrates in inferior MI with hemodynamic compromise.
Rapid Review Bullets
  • STEMI = PCI ≤90 min (FMC to device ≤120 min)
  • Troponin rises 1–3h, peaks 12–24h, normalizes 5–14 days
  • Prasugrel: CONTRAINDICATED in prior stroke/TIA, age ≥75, weight <60kg
  • DAPT standard duration: 12 months post-ACS
  • ACEI/ARB: Start within 24h, especially anterior MI or LVEF ≤40%
  • High-intensity statin (atorvastatin 80mg or rosuvastatin 20–40mg): Start in hospital, continue indefinitely
Tier 2
Topic C-2
Stable Angina & Vasospastic Angina
Prinzmetal · MINOCA · Diagnosis · Medical Management
★★ PANCE Blueprint
Core Recognition
  • Stable angina: Predictable chest pressure with exertion, relieved by rest or nitroglycerin within 5 minutes. NOT worsening, NOT at rest.
  • Vasospastic (Prinzmetal) angina: Chest pain at REST, often nocturnal/early morning. ST elevation during episodes (transient). Normal or non-obstructive coronary arteries on cath. Triggered by cold, smoking, cocaine, triptans.
  • MINOCA (MI with non-obstructive coronary arteries): Troponin positive, STEMI/NSTEMI pattern, but clean coronaries. Causes: coronary spasm, plaque erosion, SCAD, microvascular disease, Takotsubo.
Treatment
  • Stable angina: Beta-blocker first-line (reduces O₂ demand). CCBs or long-acting nitrates as alternatives. Ranolazine for refractory symptoms.
  • Vasospastic angina: Calcium channel blockers (first-line — verapamil, diltiazem, amlodipine) + long-acting nitrates. AVOID beta-blockers — can worsen coronary spasm by leaving alpha-adrenergic tone unopposed.
  • All stable CAD: Aspirin + statin + BP control + lifestyle modification
⚑ Board Trap
  • Beta-blockers are CONTRAINDICATED in vasospastic (Prinzmetal) angina — unopposed alpha-adrenergic activity worsens coronary spasm
  • MINOCA ≠ "clear" — still has troponin elevation and needs workup (echo, cardiac MRI, sometimes OCT/IVUS)
Before you beginCardiac Stress Testing3 in-session
Topic C-3 — Cardiac Stress Testing. Three in-session questions covering the three angles the PANCE actually tests: modality selection, risk stratification of the result, and pre-test preparation. Attempt them before the topic is taught — getting them wrong first is expected and useful. Each explanation unlocks only after you submit.
In-sessionQ1 of 3 · Stress Testing · Modality Selection
A 62-year-old woman is referred for 3 months of exertional chest pressure. She has asthma that is not well controlled — albuterol 4×/week and one prednisone burst 2 months ago — but she is not wheezing today and has no active bronchospasm. Severe knee osteoarthritis limits her to <4 METs. Resting ECG shows a left bundle branch block. She is obese, and a prior echocardiogram was reported as having poor acoustic windows. Which of the following is the most appropriate stress testing strategy?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: C — Regadenoson SPECT myocardial perfusion imaging
Three constraints have to be satisfied at the same time, and only one option clears all three. She cannot exercise (<4 METs), she has poor acoustic windows (echo is out), and she has bronchospastic airway disease (nonselective vasodilators are out). Layer on the LBBB: any stress that raises heart rate — exercise or dobutamine — produces artifactual septal perfusion defects in LBBB even when the coronaries are normal, because the septum depolarizes and relaxes out of phase. Vasodilator stress barely moves the heart rate, which is exactly why vasodilator perfusion imaging is the preferred modality in LBBB. Among the vasodilators, regadenoson is a selective A2A agonist and, unlike adenosine and dipyridamole, is acceptable in stable bronchospastic disease without active wheezing. One honest caveat worth saying out loud in the room: her obesity makes SPECT vulnerable to attenuation artifact, so regadenoson PET would be the better test if the center has it — PET simply is not among the options here.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Exercise treadmill ECG using the Bruce protocol — Incorrect, and it fails twice. She cannot reach the ≥5 METs an exercise study requires, and LBBB makes the exercise ECG uninterpretable for ST-segment analysis regardless of how far she walks.
  • Exercise stress echocardiography — Incorrect. Same inability to exercise, and poor acoustic windows are an explicit limitation of stress echocardiography — you cannot grade wall motion you cannot see.
  • Adenosine SPECT myocardial perfusion imaging — Incorrect — and this is the intended trap. Adenosine is a nonselective adenosine receptor agonist; A2B and A3 stimulation drives bronchoconstriction, so bronchospastic airway disease is a contraindication. The modality is right; the agent is wrong.
  • Dobutamine stress echocardiography — Incorrect on two counts. Dobutamine does avoid bronchospasm, but it is paired here with echo, which her acoustic windows defeat — and because dobutamine raises heart rate, it carries the same LBBB septal artifact problem as exercise if paired with perfusion imaging instead.
Board pearlLearn the vasodilator rule in two layers. Layer 1, the default: bronchospastic disease + needs pharmacologic stress → dobutamine, because adenosine and dipyridamole are contraindicated. Layer 2, the tiebreaker: when dobutamine is also blocked — LBBB, poor echo windows, tachyarrhythmia, severe hypertension — regadenoson is acceptable in stable asthma/COPD without active wheezing. Also memorize regadenoson's own contraindications: second- or third-degree AV block or sinus node dysfunction without a pacemaker, SBP <90 mm Hg, and dipyridamole within 48 hours.
Covered below under Topic C-3 — Cardiac Stress Testing
In-sessionQ2 of 3 · Stress Testing · High-Risk Result
A 58-year-old man completes 9 minutes of a Bruce protocol treadmill test for atypical chest pain. He develops 2.5 mm of horizontal ST-segment depression in V4–V6 beginning 3 minutes into stage 2 and persisting 6 minutes into recovery, along with a fall in systolic blood pressure from 138 to 102 mm Hg. Which feature most strongly indicates high-risk disease warranting prompt coronary angiography?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: E — ≥2 mm ST depression at low workload that persists into recovery
High-risk stress ECG findings — those carrying a >3% annual risk of death or MI — are ≥2 mm ST depression at low workload or persisting into recovery, exercise-induced ST elevation, and exercise-induced VT/VF. This patient has 2.5 mm of horizontal depression that is still there 6 minutes into recovery: both the magnitude and the persistence are met. His exertional hypotension (138 → 102 mm Hg) is a second, independently high-risk finding listed alongside ST elevation and prolonged ST depression — it corroborates the answer rather than competing with it, and it is not offered as a choice. Prompt angiography is appropriate.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Atypical rather than typical anginal chest pain — Incorrect. Symptom quality modifies pretest probability; it is not a risk-stratifying test finding. Once the stress ECG is high-risk, angiography is appropriate in typical, atypical, and even asymptomatic patients alike.
  • ST depression in the lateral precordial leads localizing the ischemia to the left circumflex territory — Incorrect, and a classic distractor. Exercise ECG ST depression does not reliably localize the ischemic territory. Unlike ST elevation in STEMI, the depression pattern does not map to a culprit vessel — that is what the imaging or the angiogram is for.
  • Completion of 9 minutes of exercise — Incorrect — it is the opposite. Nine minutes of Bruce is roughly 10 METs, a favorable prognostic feature. Good exercise capacity is part of the low-risk definition (maximal exercise with no new ST change), not the high-risk one.
  • Sinus tachycardia at peak exercise — Incorrect. An appropriate rise in heart rate is the expected normal response. It is the failure to mount one — chronotropic incompetence — along with hypotension, that carries an adverse prognosis.
Board pearlRead the stress test result on three axes, not one: how much ST change (≥2 mm), how early and how long (low workload, persists into recovery), and what the blood pressure did (a fall ≥10 mm Hg is high-risk). Ischemia appearing at a low workload beats the same ischemia appearing at peak. And remember the inverse: exercise capacity is prognosis — <5 METs predicts poorly, ≥10 METs predicts well.
Covered below under Topic C-3 — Cardiac Stress Testing
In-sessionQ3 of 3 · Stress Testing · Pre-Test Preparation
A 71-year-old man is scheduled for open infrarenal AAA repair. He has known CAD with prior PCI, severe peripheral arterial disease causing claudication at half a block, and a permanent pacemaker for sinus node dysfunction. He drinks two cups of coffee each morning. Which of the following is the single most important pre-test consideration before proceeding with vasodilator SPECT myocardial perfusion imaging?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: B — Caffeine-containing products and methylxanthines must be withheld before the study
Xanthines competitively block adenosine receptors. Caffeine and theophylline blunt the hyperemic response the entire test depends on, producing a false-negative study in a man who is about to have open aortic surgery — the worst possible moment for a falsely reassuring result. Both must be stopped beforehand. The exact window varies by source, and it is worth knowing that it varies: the ACR practice parameters specify 24–48 hours, the AHA exercise standards say 24 hours, and the 2024 ACC/AHA perioperative guideline lists methylxanthine use within 12 hours as a contraindication. Know the principle and the shortest defensible window (12 h); if a question forces one number, follow the guideline it names.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • His pacemaker is an absolute contraindication to vasodilator stress — Incorrect, and it inverts the rule. Sinus node dysfunction or high-grade AV block contraindicates vasodilator stress only in the absence of a functioning pacemaker. His pacemaker removes the barrier rather than creating one.
  • Dobutamine should be substituted because of his peripheral arterial disease — Incorrect. Claudication is the reason he needs pharmacologic rather than exercise stress — it says nothing about which pharmacologic agent. Vasodilators remain first-line for SPECT; dobutamine is reserved for when vasodilators are contraindicated.
  • Beta-blockers must be held for 48 hours before the study to allow an adequate diagnostic heart rate response — Incorrect, and potentially harmful. Beta-blockade blunts exercise and dobutamine responses but does not meaningfully affect vasodilator-induced hyperemia, which is not heart-rate dependent. Routinely stopping beta-blockers before vascular surgery risks withdrawal ischemia.
  • Aminophylline must be avoided in the stress lab entirely — Incorrect — the opposite is true. Aminophylline (1–2 mg/kg) must be immediately available as the reversal agent for severe vasodilator side effects. The one nuance: it should not be used for seizures associated with regadenoson.
Board pearlCaffeine is the highest-yield pre-test question on the whole topic, and it cuts both ways: patients must hold xanthines before a vasodilator study, yet a xanthine (aminophylline) is the antidote kept at the bedside. Same receptor, opposite roles. Second pearl: hold beta-blockers for exercise and dobutamine studies, not for vasodilator studies — and never stop them casually in a patient headed for vascular surgery.
Covered below under Topic C-3 — Cardiac Stress Testing
Tier 2
Topic C-3
Cardiac Stress Testing — Selection & Interpretation
Exercise vs Pharmacologic · Imaging Modality Selection · Positive Criteria · Contraindications
★★ PANCE Blueprint
Why It Matters for Boards
  • Stress testing detects myocardial ischemia by increasing O₂ demand (exercise) or altering coronary flow (pharmacologic agents)
  • Used for risk stratification in known/suspected CAD, post-MI/PCI/CABG prognosis, and preoperative cardiac risk assessment
  • The PANCE tests modality SELECTION far more than raw interpretation — know which test fits which patient
Step 1 — Can the Patient Exercise?
ScenarioChooseWhy
Can exercise to ≥5 METsExercise stress testAlways preferred — gives functional capacity + prognostic data that pharmacologic tests cannot
Cannot exercise (deconditioned, amputee, severe arthritis, PAD)Pharmacologic stressVasodilator or dobutamine substitutes for the workload

🩺 PANCE Pearl: "Can the patient walk on a treadmill?" is the first branch point in every stress test question. Exercise > pharmacologic whenever physically possible.

Step 2 — Is the Baseline ECG Interpretable?

Exercise ECG alone (no imaging) only works if the baseline ECG can show ischemic changes. It CANNOT be used with:

  • LBBB (left bundle branch block)
  • Paced rhythm
  • WPW (Wolff-Parkinson-White) pattern
  • ≥0.5 mm ST depression at rest
  • LVH (left ventricular hypertrophy) with strain pattern
  • Digoxin use

🚨 Classic Trap: Patient with LBBB needs a stress test → the answer is vasodilator stress with nuclear imaging, NOT exercise ECG and NOT dobutamine. LBBB itself can mimic ischemic ST changes during exercise, making plain exercise ECG unreliable — and dobutamine increases heart rate similarly to exercise, so it carries the same false-positive risk in LBBB. Vasodilators don't significantly raise heart rate, avoiding this problem.

Pharmacologic Agents — Vasodilator vs Dobutamine
AgentMechanismUsed WithContraindications
Adenosine / Dipyridamole / RegadenosonCoronary vasodilation → flow heterogeneitySPECT, PET, cardiac MRIAdenosine / dipyridamole: bronchospastic disease (asthma/COPD). All three: high-degree AV block or sinus node dysfunction without a pacemaker, SBP <90 mmHg, dipyridamole within 48h. Regadenoson: acceptable in stable asthma/COPD — avoid only with active bronchospasm/wheezing
Dobutamine↑ HR, contractility, O₂ demand (sympathomimetic)Echocardiography or nuclear imagingSevere HTN, significant arrhythmias, HOCM, aortic dissection
  • Regadenoson is the most commonly used vasodilator — a selective A2A receptor agonist, better tolerated than adenosine. Because it is selective, it is acceptable in stable mild-to-moderate asthma/COPD; adenosine and dipyridamole are not
  • Dobutamine is the fallback when vasodilators are contraindicated (i.e., in a COPD patient who needs pharmacologic stress)

🚨 Classic Trap — learn it in two layers: Layer 1 (the default answer): asthma/COPD patient needs pharmacologic stress → adenosine and dipyridamole are CONTRAINDICATED (bronchospasm risk) → use dobutamine. Layer 2 (the tiebreaker): when dobutamine is also blocked — LBBB, poor echo windows, tachyarrhythmia, severe HTN — regadenoson is acceptable in stable asthma/COPD without active wheezing, because it is a selective A2A agonist. A stem that stacks LBBB + poor windows + stable asthma is asking for regadenoson, not dobutamine.

Imaging Modality Selection
ModalityKey FeatureBest Use / Limitation
Exercise ECG aloneNo imaging, no radiation, lowest costLow-risk patients with interpretable baseline ECG only
Stress EchocardiographyAssesses wall motion, no radiationHigh specificity; limited by obesity/poor windows
SPECT (nuclear)Tc-99m sestamibi/tetrofosmin or Thallium-201Widely available; radiation exposure; attenuation artifacts in obesity
PET (nuclear)Higher accuracy than SPECT, lower radiationPreferred over SPECT when available; limited access/cost
Stress Cardiac MRIAssesses function, ischemia, scar/viability — no radiationAvoid gadolinium in renal dysfunction; limited by cost/availability
Coronary CTAAnatomic (not stress-based) — high NPVPreferred <65y without known CAD; avoid with renal dysfunction/contrast allergy
Absolute Contraindications
  • Acute MI within 2 days
  • Unstable angina not yet stabilized
  • Symptomatic severe aortic stenosis
  • Uncontrolled heart failure
  • Acute PE or pulmonary infarction
  • Acute myocarditis or pericarditis
  • Acute aortic dissection

🚨 Classic Trap: Symptomatic severe AS is an ABSOLUTE contraindication to stress testing — exercise can precipitate syncope or sudden death by failing to augment cardiac output across a fixed obstruction.

Positive (Ischemic) Test Criteria
  • ECG: ≥1 mm horizontal or downsloping ST depression 60–80 ms after the J-point = positive. ST elevation ≥1 mm (no Q waves) = transmural ischemia/spasm
  • Hemodynamics: SBP drop ≥10 mmHg from baseline during exercise = high-risk finding, suggests severe CAD or LV dysfunction — stop the test if accompanied by ischemic signs
  • Imaging: Reversible defect (stress only, normal at rest) = ischemia. Fixed defect (abnormal at both stress and rest) = old infarct/scar. Partially reversible = mixed scar + ischemia

🩺 PANCE Pearl: "Reversible = alive but starving (ischemia). Fixed = dead tissue (scar)." This single sentence answers most nuclear stress test interpretation questions.

Exercise Capacity & Prognosis
  • <5 METs = poor prognosis, cannot perform many activities of daily living
  • ≥10 METs = low risk of cardiac events
  • Target heart rate = 85% of age-predicted max (220 − age)
  • Duke Treadmill Score combines exercise time, ST deviation, and angina symptoms for overall prognosis
Pre-Test Prep — High-Yield Details
  • Hold beta-blockers 24–48h before EXERCISE or DOBUTAMINE stress if safe — they blunt the heart rate response needed to reach target HR. They do not meaningfully affect vasodilator hyperemia, so they need not be held for a vasodilator study — and should not be stopped casually in a patient headed for vascular surgery (withdrawal ischemia)
  • Hold caffeine and methylxanthines before vasodilator stress — xanthines competitively block adenosine receptors and cause false-negative results. Windows differ by source: ≥12h (2024 ACC/AHA perioperative), 24h (AHA exercise standards), 24–48h (ACR practice parameters). Know the principle; follow the guideline a question names
  • Aminophylline (1–2 mg/kg) must be immediately available as the reversal agent for severe vasodilator side effects — but is not used for regadenoson-associated seizures

🚨 Classic Trap: A patient drinks coffee the morning of a scheduled regadenoson stress test → the test should be rescheduled. Caffeine directly antagonizes the adenosine receptor the test depends on.

Quick Decision Algorithm
  • Can exercise + interpretable ECG → Exercise ECG alone (low-risk) or Exercise + imaging (intermediate/high-risk)
  • Can exercise + LBBB/paced/WPW/baseline ST changes → Exercise + imaging required (not ECG alone)
  • Cannot exercise + no bronchospasm → Vasodilator (regadenoson) + nuclear imaging or CMR
  • Cannot exercise + asthma/COPD → Dobutamine + echo or nuclear imaging. But if dobutamine is also blocked (LBBB, poor acoustic windows) → regadenoson + perfusion imaging, provided the airway disease is stable
  • Cannot exercise + LBBBVasodilator + perfusion imaging. Never exercise or dobutamine — both raise HR and create false septal defects
  • Valvular disease (especially MR) → Stress echo preferred (assesses hemodynamic changes)
  • Age <65, no known CAD, need anatomic answer → Coronary CTA
Domain 3 · Arrhythmias
Arrhythmias
Before you beginAtrial Fibrillation / Flutter3 in-session · 2 homework
Core Topic 3 — Atrial Fibrillation & Flutter. Attempt the three in-session questions before the domain is taught — they run in the room, in this order: recognition, then management, then the trap. The two homework questions are for tonight, after the teaching. Getting them wrong first is expected and useful; each explanation unlocks only after you submit.
In-sessionQ1 of 3 · AFib · Acute Rate Control
A 65-year-old man with atrial fibrillation and a ventricular rate of 148 bpm is hemodynamically stable, with no known heart failure. What is the best initial treatment for rate control?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: D — IV metoprolol
In hemodynamically stable atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response, the first-line agents are an IV beta-blocker (metoprolol) or a non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker (diltiazem). Both slow AV nodal conduction within minutes.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Synchronized cardioversion — Incorrect. Reserved for hemodynamic instability — hypotension, ischemia, pulmonary edema, altered mentation. He is stable.
  • Digoxin alone — Incorrect. Onset is hours, and it controls resting rate poorly with exertion. Useful as an add-on, or as a first choice in decompensated HFrEF or hypotension where beta-blockers and calcium channel blockers are unsafe.
  • Amiodarone — Incorrect. Primarily a rhythm-control agent here. It does slow the AV node and has a role when first-line agents fail or are contraindicated, but it is not the initial choice, and it carries thyroid, pulmonary, hepatic, and ocular toxicity.
  • IV adenosine 6 mg rapid push — Incorrect. Adenosine terminates arrhythmias that depend on the AV node for reentry, such as AVNRT. Atrial fibrillation is driven by chaotic atrial activity that does not require the AV node, so adenosine produces a brief block and no lasting rate control.
Board pearlThe branch point is ejection fraction. Preserved EF: beta-blocker or diltiazem, either is fine. Reduced EF: beta-blocker if compensated, and digoxin or amiodarone if decompensated — never verapamil or diltiazem in decompensated HFrEF.
Covered below under Topic A-1 — Atrial Fibrillation & Atrial Flutter · see also Topic H-1
In-sessionQ2 of 3 · AFib · Stroke Prevention
A 72-year-old woman with newly diagnosed atrial fibrillation has hypertension, diabetes, and a prior stroke. Her CHA₂DS₂-VASc score is 6. What is the best next step for stroke prevention?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: B — Direct oral anticoagulant (e.g., apixaban)
A CHA₂DS₂-VASc score of 2 or more in men, or 3 or more in women, warrants oral anticoagulation. Hers is 6, and she has already had a stroke. DOACs (apixaban, rivaroxaban, edoxaban, dabigatran) are preferred over warfarin in nonvalvular atrial fibrillation: equal or better stroke prevention, less intracranial hemorrhage, no INR monitoring.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Aspirin 81 mg daily — Incorrect. Aspirin is clearly inferior to anticoagulation for cardioembolic stroke prevention in atrial fibrillation and is no longer recommended as a substitute.
  • Aspirin plus clopidogrel — Incorrect. Dual antiplatelet therapy is less effective than anticoagulation and carries a comparable bleeding burden — the worst of both.
  • No anticoagulation needed — Incorrect. A score of 6 with a prior stroke is among the highest-risk presentations you will see.
  • Left atrial appendage occlusion device — Incorrect. Percutaneous appendage occlusion is reserved for patients with a genuine long-term contraindication to anticoagulation, such as recurrent life-threatening bleeding. It is an alternative for those who cannot take a DOAC, not a first choice for someone who can.
Board pearlTwo situations still require warfarin, not a DOAC: a mechanical heart valve and moderate-to-severe rheumatic mitral stenosis. Everything else nonvalvular gets a DOAC. Also note that the stroke risk is the same for paroxysmal and persistent atrial fibrillation — the pattern does not lower the score.
Covered below under Topic A-1 — Atrial Fibrillation & Atrial Flutter
In-sessionQ3 of 3 · AFib · Pre-Cardioversion
A patient with new-onset atrial fibrillation is being considered for elective cardioversion. The duration of atrial fibrillation is unknown. What must be done before cardioversion?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: D — Anticoagulate 3 weeks or perform TEE to exclude left atrial thrombus
When atrial fibrillation has lasted more than 48 hours or the duration is unknown, an organized atrial thrombus may already have formed. Either anticoagulate therapeutically for at least 3 weeks before cardioversion, or perform a TEE to exclude left atrial appendage thrombus and cardiovert under anticoagulation. Either way, anticoagulation continues for at least 4 weeks afterward, because atrial mechanical function lags behind electrical recovery.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • No preparation needed — proceed directly — Incorrect. Cardioverting an unprepared patient with a possible atrial thrombus can dislodge it and cause a stroke. The exception is hemodynamic instability, where you cardiovert immediately regardless.
  • Start aspirin for 4 weeks — Incorrect. Aspirin does not prevent cardioembolic stroke in this setting.
  • Obtain a stress test — Incorrect. Not part of the pre-cardioversion pathway.
  • Obtain a transthoracic echocardiogram instead — Incorrect — wrong window. A TTE cannot reliably visualize the left atrial appendage, which is where the thrombus forms. Excluding appendage thrombus requires a transesophageal study; a reassuring TTE does not make cardioversion safe.
Board pearlThe 48-hour mark governs everything. Under 48 hours with low risk, you may cardiovert with anticoagulation started at the time of the procedure. Over 48 hours or unknown: 3 weeks of anticoagulation or a TEE first, then 4 weeks of anticoagulation after — regardless of CHA₂DS₂-VASc score.
Covered below under Topic A-1 — Atrial Fibrillation & Atrial Flutter
Homework — after the session
HomeworkQ1 of 2 · AFib · Initial Workup
A 68-year-old man presents with palpitations and an irregularly irregular pulse at 142 bpm. What is the best initial diagnostic test?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: E — 12-lead ECG
The 12-lead ECG confirms atrial fibrillation — absent organized P waves, an irregularly irregular rhythm — and simultaneously tells you the ventricular rate, whether there is pre-excitation or bundle branch block, and whether ischemic changes are present. It is fast, universally available, and drives the next decision.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Cardiac catheterization — Incorrect. No role in diagnosing an arrhythmia.
  • Holter monitor — Incorrect. Ambulatory monitoring is for intermittent or paroxysmal symptoms when the arrhythmia is not present in front of you. This patient is in it now.
  • Transesophageal echocardiogram — Incorrect. TEE is used to exclude left atrial appendage thrombus before cardioversion, not to make the diagnosis.
  • Serum TSH and electrolyte panel — Incorrect — as the initial test. Thyroid and electrolyte studies are part of the standard first-visit workup once atrial fibrillation is established, and thyrotoxicosis is a genuine precipitant. But they identify a cause; they do not make the diagnosis.
Board pearl“Irregularly irregular” in a stem is atrial fibrillation until proven otherwise, and the confirmatory test is always the 12-lead ECG. Then work the standard first-visit panel: TSH, electrolytes, CBC, and a TTE for structural disease.
Covered below under Topic A-1 — Atrial Fibrillation & Atrial Flutter
HomeworkQ2 of 2 · AFib + HFrEF · Refractory Rhythm
A 70-year-old woman with persistent atrial fibrillation and HFrEF (LVEF 30%) has failed rate control with beta-blockers. What is the best next step?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: A — Refer for catheter ablation
Catheter ablation is recommended for symptomatic atrial fibrillation in HFrEF when medical rate or rhythm control has failed or is not tolerated. In this population, restoring sinus rhythm by ablation improves ejection fraction, quality of life, and heart failure hospitalization compared with continued drug therapy — the atrial fibrillation is contributing to the cardiomyopathy, not just coexisting with it.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Add digoxin for additional rate control — Incorrect. A reasonable adjunct for rate in HFrEF, but it leaves her in atrial fibrillation and does not address the rhythm driving her decline.
  • Start flecainide — Incorrect. Class IC antiarrhythmics are contraindicated in structural heart disease and reduced ejection fraction because of proarrhythmic mortality risk. This is the dangerous distractor.
  • Increase metoprolol to the maximum tolerated dose — Incorrect. She has already failed beta-blockade, and pushing the dose in HFrEF risks symptomatic bradycardia and fatigue without controlling the rhythm.
  • Start sotalol for rhythm control — Incorrect. Sotalol has both class III and beta-blocking activity, and in HFrEF it carries real risk: QT prolongation with torsades, plus negative inotropy in a ventricle that cannot afford it. If a drug is used for rhythm here, amiodarone is the safer choice.
Board pearlTwo rhythm drugs are the tested landmines: flecainide and propafenone are out in structural heart disease, and sotalol and dofetilide prolong the QT. In HFrEF the safe antiarrhythmic choices are amiodarone or dofetilide with monitoring — and increasingly, ablation.
Covered below under Topic A-1 — Atrial Fibrillation & Atrial Flutter · see also Topic H-1
Tier 1
Topic A-1
Atrial Fibrillation & Atrial Flutter
Rate vs Rhythm · CHA₂DS₂-VASc · Cardioversion · Antiarrhythmics · 2023 Guidelines
★★★ PANCE Priority
Core Recognition
  • AFib EKG: Irregularly irregular rhythm, absent P waves, fibrillatory baseline. Ventricular rate varies.
  • AFL EKG: Regular sawtooth flutter waves at ~300 bpm, typically 2:1 AV conduction → ventricular rate ~150 bpm (classic "150 bpm regular tachycardia" = flutter until proven otherwise)
  • 2023 Staging: Stage 1 (at risk) → Stage 2 (pre-AF changes) → Stage 3 (paroxysmal or persistent AF) → Stage 4 (permanent AF)
Rate vs Rhythm Control — 2023 Paradigm Shift
  • AFFIRM trial: Rate and rhythm control had comparable outcomes in stable older patients
  • EAST-AFNET 4 trial: Early rhythm control (within 1 year of AF diagnosis) reduced CV death, stroke, HF hospitalization — major paradigm shift
  • 2023 ACC/AHA guideline now prioritizes rhythm control especially for: age <70, recent-onset AF, AF with HFrEF, symptomatic patients
  • Rate control target: HR <110 bpm at rest (lenient; RACE II trial)
  • Catheter ablation: Now first-line for symptomatic paroxysmal AF and AF with HFrEF
Rate Control Drug Selection — The Critical EF Check
DrugUse WhenAVOID WhenBoard Key
Diltiazem / VerapamilNormal EF, symptomatic RVRHFrEF (EF <40%) — worsens pump function, increases mortalityCHECK EF BEFORE ORDERING
Metoprolol (BB)Normal or reduced EFAcute bronchospasm, severe bradycardia, decompensated HFSafe in HFrEF at stable doses
DigoxinHFrEF when BB not tolerated; sedentary patientsWPW (forces accessory pathway conduction → VF)Check levels; toxicity with hypokalemia
AmiodaroneRate control when other drugs fail; ICUAvoid long term; extensive toxicity (thyroid, lung, liver, eyes, skin)Drug of last resort for AF due to toxicity profile
Anticoagulation — CHA₂DS₂-VASc
CHA₂DS₂-VASc Scoring
  • CHF (1) · HTN (1) · A₂ge ≥75 (2 pts) · DM (1) · S₂troke/TIA (2 pts — highest) · Vascular disease (1) · Age 65–74 (1) · Scex female (1)
  • Score ≥2 (men) or ≥3 (women) → Anticoagulate. DOACs preferred over warfarin.
  • Score 1 (men) or 2 (women) → Consider anticoagulation
  • Score 0 (men) or 1 (women, lone female sex) → No anticoagulation
  • DOACs contraindicated with: mechanical valves (use warfarin only) and moderate-to-severe mitral stenosis
  • Aspirin alone is NOT adequate stroke prevention in AF
Cardioversion — 2023 ACC/AHA/ACCP/HRS Guidelines
ScenarioStrategyClassPost-CV OAC
AF ≥48h or unknown duration3 weeks therapeutic OAC BEFORE cardioversion OR TEE/cardiac CT to exclude LAA thrombusClass I, LOE B-R≥4 weeks ALL patients
AF <48h + CHA₂DS₂-VASc ≥2Precardioversion imaging may be considered — <48h window NOT uniformly safeClass IIb≥4 weeks OAC
AF <12h + CHA₂DS₂-VASc 0–1Benefit of imaging/OAC uncertain — very low event rateClass IIbPer long-term indication
LAA thrombus foundDefer cardioversion → OAC 3–6 weeks → repeat imaging → proceedClass I≥4 weeks after successful repeat imaging
Hemodynamically UNSTABLEImmediate cardioversion regardless of duration or OAC statusClass IOAC ASAP + ≥4 weeks

Why 4 weeks post-CV for ALL: atrial stunning (mechanical function takes up to 1 month to recover), transient prothrombotic state, and high early AF recurrence rate — independent of CHA₂DS₂-VASc score. The <48h window carries 0.7–1.1% stroke risk in low-risk patients.

Antiarrhythmic Drug Selection
Structural Heart Disease?Safe AntiarrhythmicsContraindicated
No structural diseaseFlecainide, propafenone, sotalol, dofetilide, dronedaroneUse AV nodal blocker WITH flecainide/propafenone to prevent 1:1 flutter
Structural disease / HFrEF (EF ≤40%)Amiodarone or Dofetilide ONLYAll others — CAST trial: flecainide/encainide increased mortality post-MI
  • Dronedarone: CONTRAINDICATED in permanent AF (PALLAS trial: ↑ mortality, stroke, HF) AND decompensated HF (ANDROMEDA trial: ↑ mortality)
  • Amiodarone toxicity: Thyroid (hypo > hyper), pulmonary fibrosis, hepatic, corneal deposits, blue-gray skin, QT prolongation (low TdP risk). Half-life 40–55 days. Monitor TSH + LFTs every 6 months.
  • Sotalol: Requires 3-day in-hospital initiation with QT monitoring. TdP risk ~2–4%. Contraindicated if QTc >450ms or CrCl <40.
  • Dofetilide: Mandatory 3-day hospital initiation. Multiple drug interactions — verapamil, cimetidine, TMP, ketoconazole, HCTZ all contraindicated.
⚑ Critical Board Traps — AFib
  • EF check before rate control drug — diltiazem/verapamil in HFrEF is the #1 tested lethal drug error
  • WPW + AFib = AV nodal blockers CONTRAINDICATED (adenosine, digoxin, diltiazem, verapamil, beta-blockers) — forces conduction down accessory pathway → VF → cardiac arrest. Use procainamide or cardioversion.
  • Amiodarone is CYP450 inhibitor — increases warfarin levels (reduce warfarin by 30–50%), digoxin levels
  • Aspirin alone ≠ stroke prevention in AF
  • Post-CV OAC 4 weeks is mandatory for ALL patients regardless of CHA₂DS₂-VASc or AF duration — atrial stunning
  • DOAC with mechanical valve = ABSOLUTELY CONTRAINDICATED (RE-ALIGN trial: ↑ thromboembolism and bleeding)
★ Memory Trick
AFib Rate Control: "DELAY" Diltiazem if EF normal · metoprolol if EF Low · digoxin if Elderly/sedentary · Amiodarone if all fail Yet urgent Antiarrhythmics: "Structural disease? FLUNK everyone except Amiodarone and Dofetilide"
Tier 1
Topic A-2
SVT & Wide-Complex Tachycardia
AVNRT · AVRT · Adenosine · Brugada Criteria · VT vs SVT
★★★ PANCE Priority
Core Recognition
FeatureSVT (narrow)VT (wide)
QRSNarrow <120ms (usually)Wide >120ms
Common patientYoung, female, no structural diseaseOlder, post-MI, structural disease
AV dissociationAbsent (AV node in circuit)Present (P waves march independently) — pathognomonic for VT
Adenosine responseTerminates AVNRT/AVRTDoes NOT terminate VT; can cause hemodynamic collapse
Board default ruleNarrow + stable = adenosineWide = VT until proven otherwise
Acute Management Protocol
The Tachycardia Decision Tree
  • UNSTABLE (any arrhythmia)? → Synchronized cardioversion immediately (all unstable tachycardias with a pulse)
  • Narrow complex + stable (SVT)? → Vagal maneuver → Adenosine 6mg rapid IV push + 20mL saline flush → 12mg → 12mg
  • Wide complex + stable? → Assume VT → Amiodarone 150mg IV over 10 min → 1mg/min drip
  • Pulseless VT / VF? → CPR + Unsynchronized defibrillation. Amiodarone 300mg IV push.
  • Torsades de Pointes? → IV Magnesium 2g — NOT amiodarone (prolongs QT further)
Brugada Criteria — Differentiating VT from SVT with Aberrancy
  • Step 1: No RS complex in any precordial lead? → VT
  • Step 2: RS interval >100ms in any precordial lead? → VT
  • Step 3: AV dissociation? → VT (most reliable if present)
  • Step 4: Morphologic VT criteria in V1–V2 and V6? → VT
  • If none of above → SVT with aberrancy (diagnosis of exclusion)

Concordance (all precordial QRS all-positive or all-negative) → VT. Fusion and capture beats = pathognomonic for VT.

⚑ Critical Board Traps — SVT/VT
  • Wide complex = VT until proven otherwise. Giving verapamil/diltiazem to VT can cause cardiovascular collapse and death
  • Hemodynamic stability does NOT exclude VT — patients can be stable in VT for hours
  • Prior MI + wide complex = VT until proven otherwise
  • Adenosine: RAPID IV push + immediate saline flush — if given slowly, it does not work. Half-life ~6 seconds.
  • Adenosine contraindicated in WPW with pre-excited AF and antidromic AVRT (wide complex)
  • Torsades = Magnesium IV. NOT amiodarone. Standard antiarrhythmics worsen TdP.
  • Synchronized vs unsynchronized: Synchronized = pulse present. Unsynchronized = pulseless VT or VF.
QT-Prolonging Drugs — High-Yield Board List (TdP Risk)
  • Antiarrhythmics: Sotalol, dofetilide, procainamide (high risk). Amiodarone (low risk despite prolonging QT).
  • Antibiotics: Macrolides (azithromycin, erythromycin), fluoroquinolones (levofloxacin, moxifloxacin)
  • Antipsychotics: Haloperidol, ziprasidone, thioridazine
  • Antiemetics: Ondansetron (high-dose), metoclopramide
  • Antidepressants: TCAs, citalopram, escitalopram
  • Other: Methadone, hydroxychloroquine
★ Memory Trick
Wide + Unstable = SHOCK (synchronized). Wide + Stable = AMIODARONE. Narrow + Stable = ADENOSINE (after vagal). Pulseless = DEFIBRILLATE (unsynchronized). Torsades = MAGNESIUM always. Never amiodarone.
Tier 2
Topic A-3
Sick Sinus Syndrome, Junctional Rhythms & Ectopy
SSS · Brady-Tachy Syndrome · Junctional Escape · PVCs · PACs · PVC-Induced Cardiomyopathy
★★ PANCE Blueprint★ Gap Added
Why It Matters for Boards

This is sinus node disease and ectopy — distinct from the AV conduction blocks covered next in Topic A-4 — Heart Blocks & Pacing Indications. The two highest-yield decisions here are the pacemaker-before-antiarrhythmic rule in brady-tachy syndrome, and knowing when frequent PVCs stop being benign.

Sick Sinus Syndrome (Sinus Node Dysfunction)
  • Spectrum of findings: inappropriate sinus bradycardia, sinus pauses or arrest, sinoatrial exit block, failure of rate to rise with exertion (chronotropic incompetence), and alternating bradycardia with atrial tachyarrhythmia.
  • Presentation: fatigue, exercise intolerance, lightheadedness, presyncope or syncope in an older adult. Symptoms must be correlated with the rhythm — an asymptomatic pause is not an indication to pace.
  • Causes: age-related fibrosis of the sinus node is the most common. Also drugs (beta-blockers, non-dihydropyridine CCBs, digoxin, amiodarone, clonidine, lithium), ischemia of the RCA territory, hypothyroidism, obstructive sleep apnea, infiltrative disease, and increased vagal tone.
  • Workup: ECG plus ambulatory monitoring to link symptoms to rhythm. Always review the medication list and check TSH before diagnosing intrinsic disease — reversible causes come first.
  • Treatment: remove the offending drug if possible. Permanent pacemaker for symptomatic sinus node dysfunction once reversible causes are excluded.
Brady-Tachy Syndrome — The Tested Trap
  • Pattern: episodic atrial tachyarrhythmia (usually atrial fibrillation) alternating with symptomatic bradycardia or long pauses on termination.
  • The trap: the tachycardia begs for rate control or an antiarrhythmic — but any drug that suppresses the tachycardia will further suppress an already diseased sinus node, producing dangerous pauses or asystole.
  • A pacemaker must be in place before, or at the same time as, rate-controlling or antiarrhythmic therapy. Pace first, then treat the tachycardia.
  • Anticoagulation decisions still follow CHA₂DS₂-VASc, independent of the pacing decision.
Junctional Rhythms
RhythmRateEKGSignificance
Junctional escape40–60 bpmNarrow QRS with absent, inverted or retrograde P wavesA protective backup when the sinus node fails. Do not suppress it — find and fix the reason the sinus node stopped.
Accelerated junctional60–100 bpmSame morphology, faster than escapeClassic in digoxin toxicity; also ischemia, myocarditis, post-cardiac surgery.
Junctional tachycardia>100 bpmNarrow QRS, no preceding upright P in lead IIStrongly suggests digoxin toxicity — check the level and the potassium.

🩺 PANCE Pearl: A junctional rhythm plus nausea, visual color changes or confusion in a patient on digoxin is digoxin toxicity — not a primary conduction problem.

Premature Complexes — PACs vs PVCs
FeaturePAC (atrial)PVC (ventricular)
QRS widthNarrow (normal conduction)Wide (>120 ms), bizarre morphology
Preceding P wavePresent but early and abnormally shapedAbsent
Following pauseNon-compensatory — resets the sinus nodeCompensatory — sinus node keeps its own timing
Other cluesMay be non-conducted (a "dropped" beat)Fusion and capture beats; T wave opposite the QRS direction
SignificanceUsually benign; frequent PACs predict future atrial fibrillationBenign in a structurally normal heart; burden and context determine risk
  • Terminology: bigeminy = every other beat is a PVC. Trigeminy = every third. Couplet = two in a row. Three or more consecutive at >100 bpm = ventricular tachycardia (non-sustained if under 30 seconds).
  • Uniform (monomorphic) PVCs arise from one focus; multiform PVCs suggest more diffuse disease or a metabolic trigger.
PVC Burden — When Ectopy Becomes Disease
  • In a structurally normal heart, PVCs are benign and require reassurance rather than suppression. Reduce caffeine, alcohol and stimulants; correct electrolytes and hypomagnesemia; screen for hyperthyroidism.
  • A PVC burden above roughly 10–15% of total beats can cause PVC-induced cardiomyopathy — a genuinely reversible cause of reduced ejection fraction. Quantify the burden on ambulatory monitoring and obtain an echocardiogram.
  • Treatment when symptomatic or high burden: beta-blocker first line; non-dihydropyridine CCB as an alternative in preserved EF; catheter ablation of the PVC focus for refractory cases or established PVC-induced cardiomyopathy, which can normalize the EF.
  • Red flags demanding structural workup: exertional PVCs or PVCs that worsen with exercise, syncope, family history of sudden death, PVCs in the setting of known cardiomyopathy or prior MI.
⚑ Board Traps — SSS, Junctional Rhythms & Ectopy
  • Brady-tachy syndrome: pace BEFORE you give the antiarrhythmic or rate-control drug. Treating the tachycardia first can produce asystole.
  • Review medications and check TSH before diagnosing intrinsic sinus node disease — beta-blockers, diltiazem, digoxin, amiodarone and hypothyroidism all mimic it, and all are reversible.
  • Do not suppress a junctional escape rhythm — it is the backup keeping the patient alive. Treat the cause of sinus failure.
  • Junctional tachycardia in a digoxin patient = digoxin toxicity, not a primary arrhythmia.
  • Do not treat asymptomatic PVCs with antiarrhythmics. The CAST trial showed that suppressing post-MI PVCs with Class IC agents increased mortality.
  • A high PVC burden is a reversible cause of cardiomyopathy — quantify it and get an echo rather than dismissing frequent PVCs as benign.
  • An asymptomatic pause is not a pacemaker indication. Sinus node dysfunction requires symptom-rhythm correlation.
  • Sinus bradycardia in a trained athlete or during sleep is normal physiology, not sick sinus syndrome.
★ Memory Trick
Brady-tachy: "Pace first, then place the drug" — never the reverse Reversible mimics of SSS: "Drugs, Thyroid, Vagus" — check all three before pacing PAC vs PVC: "Early and narrow = Atrial. Wide and rude = Ventricular." Pauses: "PAC resets the clock (non-compensatory). PVC does not (compensatory)." Junctional tachycardia: "Junctional + digoxin = toxic until proven otherwise" PVC burden: "Over 10%, order the echo" CAST rule: "Silencing PVCs after MI silences the patient" — no Class IC Escape rhythms are friends: "Don't shoot the lifeboat"
Tier 1
Topic A-4
Heart Blocks & Pacing Indications
1st Degree · Mobitz I vs Mobitz II · Complete Heart Block · Pacemaker Indications
★★★ PANCE Priority
📈 Ladder diagram — the conduction-slope view of PR lengthening versus fixed PR now lives in the PA Bootcamp EKG Syllabus, Rhythm Recognition. Open the EKG Syllabus ↗
The Four Degrees — Pattern, Level & Pacing
Block TypeEKG PatternLevelPacemaker?Board Key
1° AV BlockPR >200ms, all P waves conductedAV nodeNo (unless symptomatic hemodynamic compromise)Benign. No treatment.
2° Mobitz I (Wenckebach)Progressive PR prolongation → dropped QRS. Grouped beating.AV node (supra-nodal)No (unless symptoms correlate; Class IIa)Common in athletes, sleep. Usually benign. Pacing rarely needed.
2° Mobitz IIConstant PR → sudden dropped QRS. No progressive lengthening.Infranodal (His-Purkinje)YES — regardless of symptoms (Class I)High risk of sudden complete heart block. Wide QRS = more dangerous.
3° (Complete) AV BlockComplete AV dissociation. Atrial rate > ventricular rate. Escape rhythm.InfranodalYES — regardless of symptoms (Class I)Wide QRS escape = most dangerous. Unreliable with risk of asystole.
⚑ Board Trap
  • Mobitz I = usually benign, no pacing. Mobitz II and 3rd degree = pacemaker regardless of symptoms.
  • Mobitz II with wide QRS = most dangerous pattern — diffuse conduction system disease, can deteriorate to asystole without warning
  • Wenckebach that worsens with exercise suggests infranodal block (not typical AV node Wenckebach) — may need pacing
Domain 4 · Heart Failure
Heart Failure
Before you beginHeart Failure3 in-session · 2 homework
Core Topic 1 — Heart Failure. Attempt the three in-session questions before the domain is taught — they run in the room, in this order: recognition, then management, then the trap. The two homework questions are for tonight, after the teaching. Getting them wrong first is expected and useful; each explanation unlocks only after you submit.
In-sessionQ1 of 3 · HFrEF · Four-Pillar GDMT
A 58-year-old woman is diagnosed with HFrEF (LVEF 30%). She is hemodynamically stable with no contraindications. Which of the following is the best initial pharmacologic regimen?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: C — ACEi/ARB (or ARNI), beta-blocker, MRA, and SGLT2 inhibitor
ACC/AHA guidelines recommend “quadruple therapy” — ARNI (or ACEi/ARB) + an evidence-based beta-blocker (carvedilol, metoprolol succinate, or bisoprolol) + an MRA + an SGLT2 inhibitor — as foundational guideline-directed medical therapy for HFrEF. All four classes reduce mortality, and current practice is to start them early at low dose and uptitrate rather than maximize one pillar before adding the next.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Hydralazine plus isosorbide dinitrate as the initial regimen — Incorrect. This combination is an alternative for patients who cannot tolerate an ACEi/ARB/ARNI, and an add-on for persistently symptomatic self-identified Black patients — not first-line monotherapy.
  • Digoxin and furosemide — Incorrect. Digoxin reduces hospitalizations but not mortality, and loop diuretics treat congestion only. Neither is disease-modifying.
  • Calcium channel blocker plus a thiazide diuretic for afterload reduction — Incorrect. Non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers (diltiazem, verapamil) are contraindicated in HFrEF because of their negative inotropic effect.
  • Beta-blocker and loop diuretic alone, adding other agents only if symptoms persist — Incorrect — and this is the sequencing trap. The four pillars are started together (or in rapid succession) at low doses and then titrated, because each cuts mortality independently. Waiting for symptoms before adding the rest leaves proven benefit on the table.
Board pearlFour pillars, all mortality-reducing: ARNI or ACEi/ARB + beta-blocker + MRA + SGLT2 inhibitor. Two gates before an MRA: K⁺ below 5.0 and eGFR at or above 30. SGLT2 inhibitors need only eGFR at or above 20 and work regardless of diabetes status.
Covered below under Topic H-1 — Heart Failure, HFrEF & HFpEF
In-sessionQ2 of 3 · HFpEF · Evidence-Based Therapy
A 65-year-old woman with HFpEF (LVEF 60%) presents with worsening dyspnea and peripheral edema. Which medication has the strongest evidence for reducing heart failure hospitalization in HFpEF?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: B — Empagliflozin
SGLT2 inhibitors (empagliflozin, dapagliflozin) are the first-line disease-modifying therapy in HFpEF and carry the strongest guideline recommendation. EMPEROR-Preserved showed a 21% relative reduction in the composite of cardiovascular death or heart failure hospitalization with empagliflozin in patients with LVEF above 40%, driven mainly by fewer hospitalizations. The benefit is independent of diabetes status. Diuretics still treat her congestion, but they are symptomatic therapy.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Lisinopril — Incorrect. ACE inhibitors and ARBs have repeatedly failed to show definitive hospitalization or mortality benefit in HFpEF trials, even though treating her hypertension remains important.
  • Metoprolol succinate — Incorrect. Beta-blockers have not reduced mortality or hospitalization in HFpEF, and by blunting the heart rate response they can worsen exercise tolerance. Keep them if she needs one for another indication.
  • Amlodipine — Incorrect. Lowers blood pressure with no heart failure outcome benefit, and it commonly causes peripheral edema that gets mistaken for worsening congestion.
  • Spironolactone — Incorrect — though it is the best of the wrong answers. TOPCAT suggested benefit in HFpEF but missed its primary endpoint, leaving MRAs with a weaker (2b) recommendation. The question asks for the strongest evidence, and only the SGLT2 inhibitors have a clearly positive dedicated trial program.
Board pearlHFpEF has exactly one pillar with hard outcome data: an SGLT2 inhibitor. Everything else is treating comorbidity — diuretics for congestion, blood pressure control for the hypertensive substrate, rate control for atrial fibrillation. An MRA and an ARNI carry weaker (2b) recommendations in selected patients.
Covered below under Topic H-1 — Heart Failure, HFrEF & HFpEF
In-sessionQ3 of 3 · HFrEF · Device Timing
A 55-year-old man with newly diagnosed HFrEF has an LVEF of 28% and NYHA class II symptoms. BNP is 850 pg/mL. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step after initiating GDMT?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: D — Repeat echocardiogram in 3–6 months to reassess LVEF
Reassess the ejection fraction after 3 months or more of optimized guideline-directed medical therapy, before committing to device therapy. A meaningful proportion of patients recover ejection fraction on four-pillar therapy, which changes ICD and CRT eligibility entirely — so the echo is what determines whether a device conversation is even needed.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Immediate ICD placement — Incorrect. Primary-prevention ICD requires at least 3 months of optimized GDMT with a persistent LVEF at or below 35% and a reasonable expectation of survival beyond one year. Implanting now may commit him to a device he no longer qualifies for.
  • Referral for advanced heart failure and transplant evaluation — Incorrect. Premature. Transplant evaluation is for advanced, refractory disease after GDMT has been optimized, not NYHA class II at diagnosis.
  • Start IV milrinone — Incorrect. Inotropes are for refractory end-stage disease or as a bridge to advanced therapies, not for a stable outpatient.
  • Refer for cardiac resynchronization therapy evaluation now — Incorrect. CRT requires a wide QRS — generally 150 ms or more with a left bundle branch pattern — and, like the ICD, a persistently low EF after GDMT has been optimized. No QRS duration is given, and therapy has only just started.
Board pearlThe sequence is fixed and heavily tested: GDMT first, echo at 3–6 months, device only if the EF stays at or below 35%. Do not let a low initial EF pull you into ordering the ICD on day one.
Covered below under Topic H-1 — Heart Failure, HFrEF & HFpEF
Homework — after the session
HomeworkQ1 of 2 · Heart Failure · Initial Workup
A 62-year-old man presents with progressive dyspnea on exertion, orthopnea, and bilateral lower extremity edema. Exam reveals bibasilar crackles and an S3 gallop. What is the best initial diagnostic test?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: C — Transthoracic echocardiogram
Transthoracic echocardiography (TTE) is the first-line diagnostic test for suspected heart failure. It gives you left ventricular ejection fraction, chamber size, wall motion, valvular function, and diastolic parameters in one study — everything needed to separate HFrEF from HFpEF and to direct therapy. Natriuretic peptides (BNP/NT-proBNP) support the diagnosis but do not replace imaging.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Cardiac catheterization — Incorrect. Invasive and reserved for cases needing hemodynamic assessment or coronary evaluation, not the initial workup of new heart failure.
  • Coronary CT angiography — Incorrect. Defines coronary anatomy but tells you nothing about ejection fraction, filling pressures, or valve function.
  • Cardiac MRI — Incorrect. Superb structural and tissue characterization (and the test of choice for suspected infiltrative disease), but it is a second-line study used when echocardiography is inconclusive.
  • Right heart catheterization with pressure measurement — Incorrect. Invasive hemodynamics are reserved for cases where volume status or filling pressures remain genuinely unclear, or where pulmonary hypertension needs characterizing. Echocardiography answers the initial question non-invasively.
Board pearlNew heart failure = echo first. The single question the echo answers is the one that drives every subsequent decision: is the EF reduced or preserved? Order an ECG and BNP alongside it, but the echo is the answer to “best initial diagnostic test.”
Covered below under Topic H-1 — Heart Failure, HFrEF & HFpEF
HomeworkQ2 of 2 · Acute Decompensated HF
A 70-year-old man with HFrEF (LVEF 25%) on optimal GDMT presents with acute decompensation: severe dyspnea at rest, JVD, and bilateral crackles. BP is 145/90 mmHg. What is the best next step?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: E — Administer IV furosemide
This is acute decompensated heart failure that is wet and warm — congested but adequately perfused, with a blood pressure of 145/90. IV loop diuretics are the correct first move to relieve congestion. Oral bioavailability is unreliable in a congested gut, so give the loop diuretic intravenously.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Start a dobutamine infusion — Incorrect. Inotropes are for the wet and cold patient — hypotension with inadequate cardiac output. Giving an inotrope to a patient at 145/90 adds arrhythmia and mortality risk for no benefit.
  • Perform emergent cardiac catheterization — Incorrect. Emergent catheterization is for ACS. Nothing here points to an acute ischemic event.
  • Add digoxin — Incorrect. Onset is far too slow for acute decongestion, and digoxin does not treat volume overload.
  • Start IV nitroglycerin as monotherapy — Incorrect — as monotherapy. A nitroglycerin infusion is a reasonable adjunct for a hypertensive, congested patient and unloads the ventricle quickly. It does not remove volume, and this patient's problem is the volume.
Board pearlDecongestion has its own set of tested details. Give the loop diuretic IV, not oral — gut wall edema makes absorption unreliable — at roughly 1 to 2.5 times the home daily oral dose. And do not stop the GDMT: withdrawing the beta-blocker or ACEi/ARNI in a patient who is congested but well perfused is a classic wrong answer, reserved for hypotension or true shock. Track daily weights and strict intake/output, and expect a modest early creatinine rise during effective diuresis — that alone is not a reason to stop. If urine output stalls, escalate the loop dose or add a thiazide.
Covered below under Topic H-1 — Heart Failure · Acute Decompensated HF
Tier 1
Topic H-1
Heart Failure — HFrEF & HFpEF
Four Pillars of GDMT · ADHF Management · Contraindicated Drugs
★★★ PANCE Priority
Core Recognition
HFrEFHFmrEFHFpEF
LVEF≤40%41–49%≥50%
MechanismPump fails to contractMildly reducedPump fails to relax (stiff)
Common causesCAD, dilated CMP, myocarditisMixedHTN, DM, obesity, AFib, HCM
EchoDilated, hypokinetic LVMild dilationNormal size, impaired relaxation
Mortality drugsARNI + BB + MRA + SGLT2i — each reduces mortality independently; comprehensive four-drug therapy ≈47% lower all-cause mortality vs ACEi/ARB + BB alone (Vaduganathan, Lancet 2020)GDMT benefit emergingNo proven mortality benefit; diuretics for symptoms
The Four Pillars of GDMT — HFrEF (2024 ACC Expert Consensus)
PillarDrugKey TrialBoard Trap
1 — ARNI (preferred) or ACEi/ARBSacubitril/valsartan (Entresto) → ACEi → ARBPARADIGM-HF: 20% ↓ CV death vs enalapril36-hour washout required when switching ACEi → ARNI (angioedema risk). No washout ARB → ARNI.
2 — Evidence-based BB (only 3)Carvedilol · Metoprolol succinate · BisoprololMERIT-HF, CIBIS-II, COPERNICUSONLY these 3. NOT atenolol, metoprolol tartrate, or propranolol. Do NOT initiate in acute decompensation. Do NOT abruptly stop if already on.
3 — MRASpironolactone or eplerenoneRALES, EMPHASIS-HF, EPHESUSContraindicated if K⁺ >5.0 or eGFR <30. Monitor K⁺ + creatinine.
4 — SGLT2 inhibitorDapagliflozin or empagliflozin 10mg dailyDAPA-HF, EMPEROR-ReducedBenefit regardless of diabetes status. Can initiate at eGFR ≥20–25. Risk: euglycemic DKA, Fournier gangrene.
Additional HFrEF Therapies
  • Hydralazine/Isosorbide dinitrate: Self-identified Black patients with persistent symptoms on GDMT, or if ACEi/ARB/ARNI not tolerated
  • Ivabradine: Sinus rhythm + HR ≥70 on maximally tolerated BB (Class IIa)
  • Diuretics: Symptom relief (loop diuretics). No mortality benefit.
  • BNP interpretation: >400 likely HF. <100 HF unlikely. Falsely low in obesity. NT-proBNP preferred in patients on sacubitril/valsartan (ARNI inhibits BNP degradation → BNP rises with treatment — use NT-proBNP for monitoring)
Acute Decompensated Heart Failure (ADHF)
LMNOP Protocol
  • L — Lasix (IV furosemide): Mainstay. Give IV even if on oral (gut absorption impaired in ADHF). Continuous infusion may be superior to bolus in severe congestion.
  • N — Nitroglycerin IV: Excellent for preload/afterload reduction if SBP >90. Works in 2 minutes.
  • O — Oxygen: Titrate to SpO₂ ≥94%. CPAP/BiPAP reduces intubation in flash pulmonary edema.
  • P — Position: Sit upright, legs dependent — immediate preload reduction.
  • Inotropes (dobutamine/milrinone): ONLY for cardiogenic shock / low cardiac output states (Cold & Wet). Increase mortality with prolonged use.
⚑ Board Traps — Heart Failure
  • Non-dihydropyridine CCBs (verapamil, diltiazem) = CONTRAINDICATED in HFrEF — negative inotropy worsens pump function, increases mortality
  • Nesiritide = no longer recommended — no mortality benefit, causes hypotension
  • Do NOT initiate BB in acute decompensated HF ("wet" patient). Start only when euvolemic.
  • Metoprolol tartrate ≠ metoprolol succinate — tartrate has NO mortality benefit in HFrEF. Only succinate is evidence-based.
  • ARNI + ACEi = absolutely contraindicated together (angioedema risk). 36h washout from ACEi before starting ARNI.
  • S3 gallop = systolic dysfunction (HFrEF). S4 gallop = diastolic dysfunction (HFpEF, LVH). Boards test this distinction.
★ Memory Trick
HFrEF GDMT — "A BEAST": ARNI · BB (carvedilol/metosucc/bisoprolol) · SGLT2i · MRA (spironolactone/eplerenone) — quadruple therapy Only 3 BBs work: "Can My Boss care?" = Carvedilol · Metoprolol succinate · Bisoprolol
Domain 5 · Valvular Disease
Valvular Disease & Endocarditis
Before you beginValvular Heart Disease3 in-session · 2 homework
Core Topic 4 — Valvular Heart Disease. Attempt the three in-session questions before the domain is taught — they run in the room, in this order: recognition, then management, then the trap. The two homework questions are for tonight, after the teaching. Getting them wrong first is expected and useful; each explanation unlocks only after you submit.
In-sessionQ1 of 3 · Murmur Recognition
A 45-year-old woman has a holosystolic murmur best heard at the apex, radiating to the axilla. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: C — Mitral regurgitation
A holosystolic (pansystolic) murmur loudest at the apex and radiating to the axilla is the textbook finding of mitral regurgitation. Location and radiation are what separate the systolic murmurs from one another.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Tricuspid regurgitation — Incorrect. Also holosystolic, but at the left lower sternal border, and it gets louder with inspiration (Carvallo sign). Look for JVD, a pulsatile liver, and peripheral edema.
  • Aortic stenosis — Incorrect. Crescendo-decrescendo systolic murmur at the right upper sternal border radiating to the carotids, not the axilla.
  • Mitral stenosis — Incorrect. A diastolic low-pitched rumble at the apex with an opening snap.
  • Ventricular septal defect — Incorrect. A VSD also produces a holosystolic murmur, but it is harsh and loudest at the left lower sternal border, often with a palpable thrill, and it does not radiate to the axilla.
Board pearlUse the maneuvers to break ties: inspiration amplifies right-sided murmurs, expiration amplifies left-sided ones. Handgrip (increased afterload) makes MR and AR louder while making the HOCM murmur softer; standing or Valsalva does the reverse for HOCM.
Covered below under Topic V-1 — Valvular Disease, The Big Four · see also Topic F-3
In-sessionQ2 of 3 · Aortic Stenosis · Intervention
A 78-year-old woman has severe symptomatic aortic stenosis (valve area 0.8 cm², mean gradient 48 mmHg) with exertional dyspnea. What is the best next step?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: B — Aortic valve replacement (surgical or transcatheter)
Symptomatic severe aortic stenosis carries a grim prognosis without intervention — roughly 50% mortality within 2 years of symptom onset. Valve replacement, surgical (SAVR) or transcatheter (TAVR), is the only treatment that changes that. The choice between SAVR and TAVR turns on surgical risk, age, anatomy, and patient preference, decided by a heart team; at 78 with severe AS, TAVR is often favored.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Medical management with diuretics and vasodilator therapy — Incorrect. No medical therapy alters the natural history of severe AS, and vasodilators are dangerous here: with a fixed obstruction the ventricle cannot raise output to compensate for dropping systemic resistance, so blood pressure can collapse.
  • Serial echocardiographic monitoring every 6 months — Incorrect. Watchful waiting is for asymptomatic severe AS. She is symptomatic, which is precisely the trigger for intervention.
  • Start a beta-blocker — Incorrect. Does nothing for mechanical outflow obstruction, and excessive rate slowing can reduce cardiac output.
  • Balloon aortic valvuloplasty as the definitive treatment — Incorrect. Valvuloplasty gives only transient relief in calcific adult aortic stenosis and carries a high restenosis rate. Its role is a bridge in the unstable patient or palliation — not definitive therapy. (Contrast mitral stenosis, where balloon valvuloplasty is definitive for suitable anatomy.)
Board pearlSymptomatic severe AS = replace the valve, no matter how mild the symptoms sound. Also intervene in asymptomatic severe AS when the LVEF drops below 50% or the patient is already having other cardiac surgery.
Covered below under Topic V-1 — Valvular Disease, The Big Four
In-sessionQ3 of 3 · Mitral Regurgitation · Surgical Triggers
A patient with severe chronic primary mitral regurgitation has an LVEF of 55% and an LV end-systolic dimension of 42 mm. He is asymptomatic. What is the best next step?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: D — Refer for mitral valve repair rather than replacement
He is asymptomatic, but he has already crossed both surgical thresholds. In severe chronic primary MR, intervention is indicated (Class I) once the LVEF falls to 60% or below or the LVESD reaches 40 mm or more — either one is sufficient, and he meets both at 55% and 42 mm. These numbers look deceptively normal, which is the whole point: in a volume-overloaded ventricle unloading into a low-pressure left atrium, an “EF of 55%” already signals contractile impairment. Repair is preferred over replacement when the anatomy allows a durable result.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Start an ACE inhibitor and a diuretic — Incorrect. Vasodilators do not alter the natural history of primary (degenerative) MR and are not a substitute for fixing the valve. Medical therapy has a real role in secondary MR, where the problem is the ventricle rather than the leaflets.
  • Serial echocardiographic monitoring every 6–12 months — Incorrect, and this is the trap. Surveillance is correct only while the LVEF stays above 60% and the LVESD stays under 40 mm. Continuing to watch him allows irreversible LV dysfunction, and post-operative outcomes are measurably worse once surgery is delayed past these thresholds.
  • Cardiac catheterization to measure the regurgitant fraction — Incorrect. Not the next diagnostic step when the echo data are adequate, though coronary assessment is routine as part of pre-operative planning once the decision to operate is made.
  • Refer for transcatheter edge-to-edge repair rather than surgery — Incorrect. Transcatheter edge-to-edge repair is for patients at prohibitive surgical risk, or for secondary MR that persists on optimal medical therapy. This patient has primary degenerative MR and no stated surgical risk, so open repair remains the durable answer.
Board pearlTwo numbers decide surgery in asymptomatic severe primary MR: LVEF 60% or below, or LVESD 40 mm or above. Either one, on its own, is a Class I indication. Symptoms are also a Class I indication regardless of the numbers — so “asymptomatic with normal-looking EF” is never by itself a reason to keep waiting.
Covered below under Topic V-1 — Valvular Disease, The Big Four
Homework — after the session
HomeworkQ1 of 2 · Valvular Disease · Initial Workup
A 75-year-old man presents with exertional syncope, angina, and dyspnea. Exam reveals a harsh crescendo-decrescendo systolic murmur at the right upper sternal border radiating to the carotids. What is the best initial diagnostic test?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: C — Transthoracic echocardiogram
This is the classic triad of severe aortic stenosis — syncope, angina, dyspnea — with the matching murmur. TTE is the initial test for every suspected valve lesion: it establishes valve morphology, quantifies severity (mean gradient, peak velocity, calculated valve area), and assesses ventricular function and chamber size.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Chest X-ray — Incorrect. May show cardiomegaly or valve calcification, but it cannot grade severity.
  • Exercise stress test — Incorrect. Actively contraindicated in symptomatic severe aortic stenosis — the fixed obstruction cannot meet exercise demand, risking syncope, arrhythmia, or death.
  • Cardiac catheterization — Incorrect. Reserved for discordant clinical and echo findings, or for coronary assessment before intervention.
  • Transesophageal echocardiogram — Incorrect. TEE gives superb valve images but is invasive and unnecessary as a first study. TTE is what grades severity here; TEE is reserved for inadequate transthoracic windows or for pre-procedural planning.
Board pearlIn aortic stenosis, the appearance of any symptom is the turning point in the natural history. Memorize the severe-AS numbers: peak velocity 4 m/s or more, mean gradient 40 mmHg or more, valve area 1.0 cm² or less.
Covered below under Topic V-1 — Valvular Disease, The Big Four
HomeworkQ2 of 2 · Mitral Stenosis · Recognition
A 30-year-old woman with a history of rheumatic fever presents with dyspnea and a low-pitched diastolic rumble at the apex with an opening snap. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: E — Mitral stenosis
A low-pitched diastolic rumble at the apex following an opening snap is essentially diagnostic of mitral stenosis, and rheumatic heart disease remains its most common cause worldwide. Expect a loud S1 early on, and watch for the complications that actually harm these patients: atrial fibrillation, pulmonary hypertension, and hemoptysis.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Aortic regurgitation — Incorrect. A blowing early decrescendo diastolic murmur at the left sternal border, classically with a wide pulse pressure and bounding peripheral pulses.
  • Atrial septal defect — Incorrect. A fixed split S2 with a systolic pulmonary flow murmur — the split is the giveaway.
  • Mitral regurgitation — Incorrect. Holosystolic at the apex radiating to the axilla, not diastolic.
  • Tricuspid stenosis — Incorrect. Tricuspid stenosis is rare, and its diastolic rumble is loudest at the left lower sternal border and increases with inspiration. It presents with right-sided congestion — JVD, ascites, hepatomegaly — not the pulmonary findings described.
Board pearlRheumatic mitral stenosis is one of the two settings that still demands warfarin rather than a DOAC when atrial fibrillation develops (the other is a mechanical valve). Definitive treatment for suitable anatomy is percutaneous balloon mitral valvuloplasty.
Covered below under Topic V-1 — Valvular Disease, The Big Four
Tier 1
Topic V-1
Valvular Disease — The Big Four
AS · AR · MS · MR · MVP · Prosthetic Valve Anticoagulation
★★★ PANCE Priority
Valve LesionMurmurClassic FindingsKey Traps
Aortic StenosisSystolic crescendo-decrescendo, RUSB → carotids. Parvus et tardus.ASD triad: Angina → Syncope → Dyspnea (in order of worsening prognosis — angina ≈ 5 yr, syncope ≈ 3 yr, dyspnea/HF ≈ 2 yr). Single/absent S2.NO vasodilators or nitrates (fixed obstruction → catastrophic hypotension). Murmur becomes SOFT as CO falls — severe AS can have a quiet murmur.
Aortic RegurgitationDiastolic decrescendo, LUSB. Wide pulse pressure.Bounding pulses (water-hammer), de Musset sign (head bobbing), Duroziez sign, Quincke pulseSurgery when LVEF ≤55% or LVESD ≥50mm. Vasodilators (nifedipine, ACEi) reduce afterload in chronic severe AR.
Mitral StenosisDiastolic rumble at apex, best with bell + left lateral decubitus. Opening snap.Rheumatic fever. LA dilation → AFib, hemoptysis, pulmonary HTN.Most associated with AFib (LA dilation). Opening snap — shorter S2-OS interval = more severe. PMBC for pliable valves.
Mitral RegurgitationHolosystolic, apex → axillaVolume overload → LV dilation. Acute MR (papillary muscle rupture) = flash pulmonary edema, soft murmurAcute MR = surgical emergency. Nitroprusside + IABP bridge. Surgery when LVEF ≤60% or LVESD ≥40mm in chronic MR.
Mitral Valve ProlapseMid-systolic click + late systolic murmurMost common valvular abnormality. Usually benign. Women more common.Standing/Valsalva → click moves EARLIER, murmur louder. Squatting → click moves later, murmur softer. OPPOSITE of other murmurs.
Aortic Stenosis — Full Detail (Most Tested Valvular Lesion)
  • Etiology: Calcific/degenerative (age >65 — most common); Bicuspid AV (age <65 — most common in younger); Rheumatic (rare in developed countries)
  • Severe AS echo criteria: Valve area ≤1.0 cm², mean gradient ≥40 mmHg, aortic velocity ≥4.0 m/s
  • Survival post-symptom onset: Angina = 5 years; Syncope = 3 years; Dyspnea/HF = 2 years
  • Asymptomatic severe AS: Echo surveillance q6–12 months. Exercise stress testing may unmask symptoms.
  • Symptomatic severe AS = AVR (Class I). SAVR for low surgical risk; TAVR now approved all risk categories.
  • No effective medical therapy for severe AS — only AVR is definitive
Prosthetic Valve Anticoagulation
Valve TypeAnticoagulationTarget INRBoard Trap
Mechanical AorticWarfarin ONLY — lifelongINR 2.0–3.0DOACs absolutely contraindicated — RE-ALIGN trial: ↑ thromboembolism + bleeding
Mechanical MitralWarfarin ONLY — lifelongINR 2.5–3.5 (higher target)DOACs absolutely contraindicated. Higher INR target for mitral position (higher thromboembolic risk).
BioprostheticWarfarin × 3–6 months, then aspirinINR 2.0–3.0 initiallyDOAC may be considered after 3 months in select patients. No lifetime anticoagulation required.
Tier 1
Topic V-2
Infective Endocarditis
Duke Criteria · Organisms · Surgical Indications · Prophylaxis
★★★ PANCE Priority
Core Recognition Pattern
  • Classic triad: Fever + new/changing murmur + positive blood cultures
  • Peripheral signs: Janeway lesions (painLESS, palmar/plantar, embolic), Osler nodes (painFUL, finger/toe, immune complex), Roth spots (retinal), splinter hemorrhages
Organisms by Patient Type
PatientOrganismBoard Key
Native valve, communityStreptococcus viridans (most common subacute)Dental procedures → Strep viridans
IV drug userStaph aureus — RIGHT-SIDED (tricuspid)IVDU + bilateral cavitary lung lesions = septic emboli from tricuspid valve endocarditis
Prosthetic valve <60 daysStaph epidermidis (CoNS)Early prosthetic = CoNS or Staph aureus
GI/GU sourceEnterococcusGI/GU procedure history
Colon cancer patientStrep gallolyticus (bovis)Strep bovis IE = COLONOSCOPY (60% association with colorectal neoplasia)
Culture-negative IEHACEK organisms (Haemophilus, Aggregatibacter, Cardiobacterium, Eikenella, Kingella)Slow-growing; fastidious gram-negative rods; prolonged incubation needed
Surgical Indications (Class I)
  • Valve dysfunction causing HF — most common surgical indication
  • Heart block, annular abscess, or fistula formation
  • Fungal IE or highly resistant organisms
  • Persistent bacteremia/fever >5–7 days despite appropriate antibiotics
  • Large mobile vegetations >10mm + embolic events
  • Prosthetic valve IE with relapsing infection or dehiscence
Endocarditis Prophylaxis — Only Highest-Risk
  • Who needs it: Prosthetic valves (including TAVR), prior IE, unrepaired cyanotic CHD, cardiac transplant with valvulopathy
  • What procedure: Dental procedures involving gingival manipulation or oral mucosa perforation ONLY. NOT GI or GU procedures.
  • Drug: Amoxicillin 2g PO 30–60 min before procedure. If penicillin-allergic: cephalexin 2g, azithromycin or clarithromycin 500mg, or doxycycline 100mg. Clindamycin is no longer recommended (2021 AHA update — C. difficile risk).
  • MVP without MR = no prophylaxis required
⚑ Board Traps — Endocarditis
  • Strep bovis/gallolyticus IE = colonoscopy always — 60% colorectal neoplasia association
  • Blood cultures × 3 BEFORE antibiotics — once antibiotics started, cultures become negative
  • Staph aureus is now the most common cause of IE overall (surpassed Strep viridans due to IVDU and healthcare-associated exposure)
  • Prophylaxis NOT indicated for GI or GU procedures — only dental with gingival manipulation
Deep dive checkValvular Lesions — Intervention Thresholds8 in-session · 4 homework
Core Topic 4, Part 2 — The Four Lesions in Depth. These twelve questions go past murmur recognition and into the decisions that actually get tested: when the numbers say operate, which drug is harmful, and which reassuring finding is a trap. Two in-session questions per lesion run in the room; the four homework questions are for tonight. Each explanation unlocks only after you submit.
In-sessionQ1 of 8 · Aortic Stenosis · Severity Assessment
A 74-year-old man with exertional dyspnea has a late-peaking systolic murmur at the right upper sternal border and a single S2. Echocardiogram shows an aortic valve area of 0.8 cm², a mean gradient of 28 mmHg, and an LVEF of 32%. What is the most appropriate next step?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: D — Obtain a dobutamine stress echocardiogram to confirm true-severe stenosis
A small valve area with a low mean gradient and a reduced LVEF is the classic setup for low-flow, low-gradient aortic stenosis. Gradient depends on flow, so a weak ventricle cannot generate 40 mmHg even across a critically narrowed valve. Dobutamine stress echocardiography augments flow and separates true-severe AS (gradient rises, area stays small) from pseudo-severe AS (area opens up as flow improves), which is the distinction that determines whether the valve or the myocardium is the primary problem. A CT aortic valve calcium score is a reasonable flow-independent alternative.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Reassure him that the stenosis is moderate and repeat the echocardiogram in one year — Incorrect. The low gradient reflects low output, not mild disease. Dismissing this as moderate AS in a symptomatic patient with a valve area of 0.8 cm² misses true-severe stenosis.
  • Begin high-intensity statin therapy to slow progression of the valve lesion — Incorrect. Statins do not slow the progression of aortic stenosis. No medical therapy alters the natural history. Statins are given for atherosclerotic risk, not for the valve.
  • Proceed directly to aortic valve replacement based on valve area alone — Incorrect. Premature. Roughly a third of these patients have pseudo-severe AS, in which the real problem is cardiomyopathy and valve replacement will not help. Confirm severity first.
  • Perform right heart catheterization to measure pulmonary vascular resistance — Incorrect. Pulmonary pressures may be useful later for risk assessment, but they do not resolve the question at hand, which is whether the stenosis is genuinely severe.
Board pearlWhen the valve area and the gradient disagree, trust neither until you check the flow. Low gradient plus low EF calls for dobutamine stress echo or a CT calcium score (>1300 AU in women, >2000 AU in men).
Covered below under Topic V-3 — Aortic Stenosis, Deep Dive
In-sessionQ2 of 8 · Aortic Stenosis · The Trap
A 69-year-old woman reports two episodes of syncope while climbing stairs. Exam shows a harsh crescendo-decrescendo systolic murmur radiating to the carotids and a delayed carotid upstroke. Which of the following is contraindicated in this patient?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: A — Exercise treadmill stress testing
Exertional syncope plus a late-peaking systolic murmur and a delayed carotid upstroke means symptomatic severe aortic stenosis. Exercise testing is contraindicated once a patient with severe AS becomes symptomatic because provoking further outflow demand can cause syncope, malignant arrhythmia, or arrest. Exercise testing has a role only in the apparently asymptomatic patient, where it is used to unmask symptoms or detect an abnormal blood pressure response.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Transthoracic echocardiography — Incorrect. This is the diagnostic test of choice and is entirely safe. It confirms severity and assesses LV function.
  • Twelve-lead electrocardiography — Incorrect. Harmless and useful. It typically shows left ventricular hypertrophy with or without left atrial enlargement.
  • Measurement of serum B-type natriuretic peptide — Incorrect. Safe and sometimes informative; a BNP greater than three times the upper limit of normal suggests decompensation in severe AS.
  • Referral for evaluation by a multidisciplinary heart valve team — Incorrect. This is precisely what she needs. Symptomatic severe AS is a Class I indication for valve replacement, and the team decides between SAVR and TAVI.
Board pearlExertional syncope with a systolic murmur is a stop sign for the treadmill. Echocardiogram first, always. The same stem with an asymptomatic patient flips the answer, and exercise testing becomes appropriate.
Covered below under Topic V-3 — Aortic Stenosis, Deep Dive
In-sessionQ3 of 8 · Mitral Stenosis · Recognition
A 38-year-old woman who emigrated from India as a teenager has progressive exertional dyspnea. Auscultation reveals a loud S1, an opening snap shortly after S2, and a low-pitched diastolic rumble at the apex. Compared with a patient whose opening snap occurs later after S2, this short S2–opening snap interval indicates which of the following?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: E — More severe stenosis, reflecting higher pressure within the left atrium
The opening snap occurs when left atrial pressure exceeds left ventricular pressure and forces the stenotic valve open. The higher the left atrial pressure, the earlier in diastole that crossover happens, so a shorter S2–opening snap interval indicates more severe stenosis. This relationship is counterintuitive and therefore heavily tested.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • A more pliable valve that is better suited to balloon commissurotomy — Incorrect. The presence of an opening snap suggests a pliable, non-calcified valve, but the interval encodes severity, not morphology. Suitability for PMBC is determined by echocardiographic scoring, not by timing.
  • Coexisting mitral regurgitation rather than isolated stenosis — Incorrect. Significant MR would produce a holosystolic apical murmur radiating to the axilla. It does not shorten the S2–opening snap interval, and more than moderate MR is actually a contraindication to PMBC.
  • Preserved left atrial size with a low likelihood of atrial fibrillation — Incorrect. The opposite. A short interval means high left atrial pressure, which accompanies atrial dilation and a high risk of atrial fibrillation, thrombus, and embolic stroke.
  • Left ventricular systolic dysfunction from pressure overload — Incorrect. In isolated mitral stenosis the left ventricle is normal. The obstruction sits upstream of it, so there is no pressure overload on the LV and no reason for systolic dysfunction.
Board pearlShort snap, severe stenosis. Remember which chamber is sick: in mitral stenosis the left atrium and lungs bear the burden while the left ventricle stays normal, which is why hemoptysis, atrial fibrillation, stroke, and hoarseness (Ortner syndrome) dominate the picture.
Covered below under Topic V-4 — Mitral Stenosis, Deep Dive
In-sessionQ4 of 8 · Mitral Stenosis · Management
A 46-year-old woman with severe rheumatic mitral stenosis (valve area 1.3 cm²) develops new atrial fibrillation with a heart rate of 128/min and worsening dyspnea. After rate control is achieved, which anticoagulation strategy is most appropriate?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: C — Warfarin with a target INR of 2.0 to 3.0
Rheumatic mitral stenosis with atrial fibrillation is a warfarin indication. Direct oral anticoagulants have not been established in rheumatic mitral valve disease, and the INVICTUS trial found rivaroxaban inferior to warfarin for this population, with more deaths. Warfarin with an INR target of 2.0 to 3.0 is standard. Anticoagulation is also indicated for prior embolism or documented left atrial thrombus regardless of rhythm.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Apixaban, because it is non-inferior to warfarin for stroke prevention in atrial fibrillation — Incorrect. The DOAC non-inferiority trials excluded moderate-to-severe rheumatic mitral disease. Extrapolating from non-valvular atrial fibrillation is exactly the error the question is testing.
  • Aspirin plus clopidogrel, reserving anticoagulation for a documented left atrial thrombus — Incorrect. Antiplatelet therapy is inadequate for cardioembolic stroke prevention. Waiting for a visible thrombus means waiting for the stroke.
  • No anticoagulation, because her CHA₂DS₂-VASc score is below the treatment threshold — Incorrect. CHA₂DS₂-VASc scoring does not apply here. Atrial fibrillation in the setting of rheumatic mitral stenosis is an anticoagulation indication on its own, independent of the score.
  • Low-dose rivaroxaban with aspirin for combined arterial and venous protection — Incorrect. This is a vascular-protection regimen for stable atherosclerotic disease. It provides inadequate stroke prophylaxis in atrial fibrillation and uses the wrong drug class for rheumatic disease.
Board pearlTwo anticoagulation settings where DOACs are wrong and warfarin is right: rheumatic mitral stenosis and any mechanical prosthetic valve. Both appear repeatedly on the PANCE.
Covered below under Topic V-4 — Mitral Stenosis, Deep Dive
In-sessionQ5 of 8 · Aortic Regurgitation · Recognition
A 58-year-old man with hypertension arrives with sudden severe chest pain radiating to his back, followed by rapidly worsening dyspnea. He is tachycardic at 122/min with a blood pressure of 96/78 mmHg, has crackles throughout both lung fields, and a short soft early diastolic murmur at the left sternal border. Which finding best explains why the classic peripheral signs of aortic regurgitation are absent?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: D — The left ventricle has not had time to dilate, so pulse pressure stays narrow
This is acute severe aortic regurgitation from a type A aortic dissection. In chronic AR the ventricle dilates over years, accepting a large regurgitant volume and ejecting a huge stroke volume, which produces the wide pulse pressure that generates every eponym. In acute AR there has been no time to remodel: the non-compliant ventricle cannot accommodate the regurgitant volume, so left ventricular end-diastolic pressure rises abruptly, forward stroke volume falls, and the pulse pressure is narrow with compensatory tachycardia. The murmur is short and soft because the aortic and ventricular diastolic pressures equalize early.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • The regurgitant volume is too small to generate detectable peripheral findings — Incorrect. The regurgitant volume is large. It is the ventricle’s inability to dilate, not the size of the leak, that eliminates the peripheral signs.
  • Concurrent aortic stenosis is masking the regurgitant physiology — Incorrect. Nothing in the stem suggests stenosis, and mixed disease would not produce this presentation. The acute chest pain radiating to the back points to dissection.
  • Peripheral signs require left ventricular hypertrophy, which takes years to develop — Incorrect. Close, but the mechanism is wrong. The peripheral signs come from the wide pulse pressure created by ventricular dilation and a large stroke volume, not from hypertrophy itself.
  • Beta-blockade has blunted the reflex tachycardia and bounding pulses — Incorrect. He is tachycardic at 122/min, so no meaningful beta-blockade is present. The tachycardia is a compensatory response that is maintaining cardiac output.
Board pearlChronic AR has a wide pulse pressure; acute AR has a narrow one. Expecting a water-hammer pulse in the acute setting is how a dissection gets missed. Sudden chest pain radiating to the back plus a new diastolic murmur plus pulmonary edema means imaging the aorta now.
Covered below under Topic V-5 — Aortic Regurgitation, Deep Dive
In-sessionQ6 of 8 · Aortic Regurgitation · The Trap
A 62-year-old woman with acute severe aortic regurgitation from infective endocarditis is hypotensive with pulmonary edema while awaiting the operating room. Which intervention would be harmful?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: B — Insertion of an intra-aortic balloon pump for temporary hemodynamic support
An intra-aortic balloon pump is contraindicated in acute severe aortic regurgitation. The device works by inflating during diastole to augment diastolic aortic pressure, which is precisely the pressure gradient that drives blood backward through an incompetent aortic valve. It would worsen the regurgitation. Temporizing measures are afterload reduction and inotropic support while arranging emergency surgery. Heavy beta-blockade is also harmful here, since the tachycardia shortens diastole and limits regurgitant time.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Intravenous sodium nitroprusside for afterload reduction — Incorrect. Appropriate. Lowering systemic vascular resistance favors forward flow over regurgitant flow and reduces left ventricular filling pressure.
  • Intravenous dobutamine for inotropic support — Incorrect. Appropriate as a temporizing measure. It augments forward stroke volume and modestly increases heart rate, which shortens diastole and reduces the regurgitant volume.
  • Emergency surgical consultation for aortic valve replacement — Incorrect. This is the definitive treatment. Acute severe AR is a surgical emergency, and no medical regimen substitutes for valve replacement.
  • Blood cultures followed by empiric intravenous antibiotics — Incorrect. Essential in endocarditis and does not delay surgery. Obtain cultures first when feasible, then treat empirically.
Board pearlLearn the two harmful reflexes in acute AR: no balloon pump and no aggressive beta-blockade. Contrast this with acute severe mitral regurgitation, where an IABP is a legitimate bridge to surgery.
Covered below under Topic V-5 — Aortic Regurgitation, Deep Dive
In-sessionQ7 of 8 · Mitral Regurgitation · Management
A 57-year-old asymptomatic man with severe primary mitral regurgitation from a flail posterior leaflet has an LVEF of 58% and a left ventricular end-systolic diameter of 43 mm. He exercises daily without limitation. What is the most appropriate management?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: A — Refer for mitral valve repair
In severe primary mitral regurgitation, an LVEF of 60% or less or a left ventricular end-systolic diameter of 40 mm or more is a Class I indication for mitral valve intervention even in an asymptomatic patient. He meets both. Because the ventricle unloads into the low-impedance left atrium, LVEF reads deceptively high, so an "almost normal" 58% already signals meaningful dysfunction. Repair is strongly preferred over replacement when the anatomy allows, and a flail posterior leaflet is highly repairable.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Start lisinopril and repeat the echocardiogram in six months — Incorrect. Vasodilators have no role in normotensive asymptomatic primary MR and do not delay the need for surgery. This is a mechanical problem requiring a mechanical solution.
  • Continue observation with annual echocardiography until symptoms develop — Incorrect. Waiting for symptoms or for a clearly low EF means operating on an already injured ventricle. He has crossed the Class I thresholds now, and outcomes are best with timely repair.
  • Start metoprolol and furosemide to reduce the regurgitant volume — Incorrect. Neither drug reduces the regurgitant orifice. Diuretics may mask congestion and delay definitive treatment.
  • Refer for transcatheter edge-to-edge repair rather than surgery — Incorrect. TEER is reserved for patients at high or prohibitive surgical risk. He is a healthy 57-year-old who exercises daily and should have durable surgical repair.
Board pearlThe MR numbers are 60 and 40: LVEF ≤60% or LVESD ≥40 mm. Compare the AR numbers, 55 and 50: LVEF ≤55% or LVESD >50 mm. In severe MR, a "normal" ejection fraction is abnormal.
Covered below under Topic V-6 — Mitral Regurgitation, Deep Dive
In-sessionQ8 of 8 · Mitral Regurgitation · Classification
A 68-year-old man with ischemic cardiomyopathy, an LVEF of 28%, and NYHA class III symptoms has severe mitral regurgitation. Echocardiography shows structurally normal mitral leaflets with a dilated annulus and tethered chordae. He takes lisinopril 5 mg daily and no other cardiac medications. What is the most appropriate next step?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: E — Optimize guideline-directed medical therapy for heart failure, then reassess
Structurally normal leaflets with annular dilation and chordal tethering in a dilated, ischemic ventricle defines secondary (functional) mitral regurgitation. The valve is a victim of the ventricle, so the ventricle is treated first. He is on a submaximal ACE inhibitor and is missing a beta-blocker, a mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist, and an SGLT2 inhibitor. Full guideline-directed medical therapy, plus cardiac resynchronization if indicated, frequently reduces regurgitant severity by reversing remodeling. Severity is then reassessed on optimal therapy.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Refer for surgical mitral valve replacement with chordal preservation — Incorrect. Surgery for secondary MR is only Class IIb and has not been shown to improve survival. It is considered for persistent NYHA III–IV symptoms after medical therapy is optimized, which has not happened.
  • Refer for transcatheter edge-to-edge repair now, given his symptom burden — Incorrect. TEER is a reasonable Class IIa option for secondary MR with an LVEF of 20–50%, but only after guideline-directed medical therapy has been optimized under heart failure specialist supervision. The sequence matters.
  • Refer for surgical mitral annuloplasty combined with coronary bypass grafting — Incorrect. Annuloplasty at the time of bypass is considered for moderate secondary MR and carries uncertain benefit. It is not the next step in an undertreated patient with severe MR.
  • Continue current therapy and reassess regurgitation severity in one year — Incorrect. Unacceptable. He has NYHA class III symptoms on clearly inadequate therapy. Waiting a year without optimizing treatment abandons the intervention most likely to help.
Board pearlAsk first: primary or secondary? Primary MR means fix the valve. Secondary MR means fix the ventricle, reassess, and only then consider TEER. Reversing the order is the single most common error on functional MR questions.
Covered below under Topic V-6 — Mitral Regurgitation, Deep Dive
Homework — after the session
HomeworkQ1 of 4 · Aortic Stenosis · Physical Examination
An 83-year-old woman with known aortic stenosis is admitted with decompensated heart failure. Her murmur, previously loud and harsh, is now noticeably softer, and it is heard best at the apex. Her carotid upstroke feels brisk. Which conclusion is best supported?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: D — Her stenosis may still be severe despite the softer murmur
Three findings in this stem are traps, and all point the same way. A murmur softens as cardiac output falls, so loudness tracks flow rather than severity. Radiation to the apex in an elderly patient is the Gallavardin phenomenon, in which the aortic murmur is transmitted to the apex and mimics mitral regurgitation. A brisk carotid upstroke can be falsely reassuring in the elderly because arterial stiffening masks pulsus parvus et tardus. Severity is judged by the timing of the murmur peak, the character of S2, and echocardiography.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Her aortic stenosis has regressed and the murmur reflects mild residual disease — Incorrect. Calcific aortic stenosis does not regress. A softer murmur in a decompensating patient signals falling stroke volume, which is a worse sign rather than a better one.
  • The apical location indicates that mitral regurgitation has become the dominant lesion — Incorrect. This is the Gallavardin phenomenon. The aortic murmur radiates to the apex and imitates MR. Genuine MR would be holosystolic and radiate to the axilla.
  • A brisk carotid upstroke excludes severe stenosis — Incorrect. Pulsus parvus et tardus is roughly 100% specific but only about 12% sensitive, so its absence excludes nothing. Stiff arteries in the elderly can produce a falsely brisk upstroke.
  • The softer murmur indicates that left ventricular hypertrophy has resolved — Incorrect. Hypertrophy does not resolve over the course of an admission, and murmur intensity does not measure wall thickness.
Board pearlIn aortic stenosis, loudness is the least reliable severity marker. Trust the late-peaking quality, a single or soft S2, and a delayed carotid upstroke when it is present, then confirm with echocardiography.
Covered below under Topic V-3 — Aortic Stenosis, Deep Dive
HomeworkQ2 of 4 · Mitral Stenosis · Special Population
A 29-year-old woman at 26 weeks of gestation develops orthopnea and dyspnea at rest. She is tachycardic at 116/min and in sinus rhythm. Auscultation reveals a loud S1, an opening snap, and a diastolic rumble at the apex. Echocardiography shows a mitral valve area of 1.2 cm² with a normal LVEF. What is the most appropriate initial therapy?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: C — A beta-blocker for heart rate control, with a diuretic for congestion
Pregnancy produces the two things mitral stenosis tolerates worst: tachycardia and volume expansion. Both peak in the second and early third trimesters, which is why previously silent rheumatic MS is classically unmasked at this point. The immediate therapy targets the physiology: a beta-blocker lengthens diastolic filling time and lowers the transmitral gradient, while a diuretic relieves pulmonary congestion. Beta-1 selective agents such as metoprolol are preferred in pregnancy.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Intravenous normal saline to improve left ventricular preload and stroke volume — Incorrect. Harmful. The problem is filling time across a fixed obstruction, not intravascular volume depletion. Additional fluid raises left atrial pressure and worsens pulmonary edema.
  • Urgent percutaneous mitral balloon commissurotomy before any medical therapy — Incorrect. PMBC is appropriate for severe symptomatic MS that fails medical therapy, and it can be performed during pregnancy with favorable anatomy. It is not the first step before rate control and diuresis are tried.
  • Intravenous dobutamine to augment cardiac output across the stenotic valve — Incorrect. Actively harmful. Inotropes increase heart rate, shortening diastole and raising the transmitral gradient. The left ventricle is normal here and needs no inotropic support.
  • Therapeutic anticoagulation with warfarin for stroke prophylaxis — Incorrect. She is in sinus rhythm without prior embolism or documented thrombus, so there is no current indication. Warfarin is also teratogenic and generally avoided in pregnancy.
Board pearlMitral stenosis is a filling-time disease. Anything that shortens diastole makes it worse: exercise, fever, anemia, pregnancy, and new atrial fibrillation. The therapeutic lever is almost always slow the heart rate.
Covered below under Topic V-4 — Mitral Stenosis, Deep Dive
HomeworkQ3 of 4 · Aortic Regurgitation · Surgical Timing
A 44-year-old asymptomatic man with chronic severe aortic regurgitation from a bicuspid aortic valve has serial echocardiograms. The most recent study shows an LVEF of 52%, a left ventricular end-systolic diameter of 46 mm, and an ascending aorta of 42 mm. No other cause of systolic dysfunction is identified. What is the most appropriate management?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: A — Refer for aortic valve replacement without further delay
Chronic severe aortic regurgitation with an LVEF of 55% or less, when no other cause of systolic dysfunction is present, is a Class I indication for aortic valve surgery regardless of symptoms. His LVEF of 52% has crossed that threshold. The absence of symptoms is not reassuring in AR, because the long compensated phase allows irreversible ventricular injury to accumulate silently, and postoperative outcomes deteriorate once dysfunction is established.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Start nifedipine and repeat the echocardiogram in six months — Incorrect. Vasodilators treat hypertension in AR but do not substitute for surgery once an indication exists. Another six months of observation risks permanent ventricular injury.
  • Continue surveillance, because he remains asymptomatic — Incorrect. Symptoms are only one of several triggers. The LVEF criterion is independent of symptoms precisely because AR patients stay asymptomatic while the ventricle deteriorates.
  • Refer for transcatheter aortic valve implantation — Incorrect. TAVI for isolated severe aortic regurgitation in a patient who is a surgical candidate is Class III, Harm. Regurgitant lesions usually lack the calcified annulus needed to anchor the device.
  • Refer for combined valve and ascending aortic replacement based on the aortic diameter — Incorrect. He needs valve surgery, but 42 mm alone does not meet the threshold for aortic replacement. Concomitant aortic surgery is generally considered at 45 mm or more with a bicuspid valve plus risk factors, or at 55 mm otherwise.
Board pearlFor chronic severe AR the Class I triggers are symptoms or LVEF ≤55%. The Class IIa trigger is LVESD >50 mm. Do not import the aortic stenosis threshold of LVEF <50%, because AR is operated on earlier.
Covered below under Topic V-5 — Aortic Regurgitation, Deep Dive
HomeworkQ4 of 4 · Mitral Regurgitation · Emergency
Four days after an inferior ST-elevation myocardial infarction treated with percutaneous intervention, a 66-year-old man abruptly develops severe dyspnea and hypotension. He has diffuse crackles and a soft, short early systolic murmur at the apex. Echocardiography shows severe mitral regurgitation with a normal-sized left atrium and left ventricle. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: B — Papillary muscle rupture causing acute mitral regurgitation
Papillary muscle rupture classically occurs 2 to 7 days after myocardial infarction and is most common with inferior infarcts, because the posteromedial papillary muscle has a single blood supply from the posterior descending artery. Two features confirm the acute nature: the murmur is soft and short because left atrial pressure rises so rapidly that the systolic gradient disappears early, and the chambers are normal-sized because there has been no time to remodel. Management is afterload reduction with nitroprusside, an intra-aortic balloon pump as a bridge, and urgent surgery.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Ventricular free wall rupture with subacute tamponade — Incorrect. This presents with obstructive shock, elevated jugular venous pressure, and pulsus paradoxus, and echocardiography shows pericardial blood. It does not cause severe mitral regurgitation.
  • Progression of pre-existing chronic degenerative mitral regurgitation — Incorrect. Chronic severe MR produces a dilated left atrium and left ventricle along with a loud holosystolic murmur radiating to the axilla. Normal chamber sizes make a chronic process very unlikely.
  • Ventricular septal rupture with a new left-to-right shunt — Incorrect. A reasonable consideration on the same timeline, but septal rupture produces a harsh holosystolic murmur at the left lower sternal border, often with a thrill, and echocardiography would show a septal defect with shunt flow rather than mitral regurgitation.
  • Post-infarction pericarditis with a large pericardial effusion — Incorrect. Early post-infarction pericarditis causes positional pleuritic chest pain and a friction rub. It does not produce severe mitral regurgitation or flash pulmonary edema.
Board pearlA soft murmur can mean catastrophic regurgitation. Days 2 to 7 after an infarct with new pulmonary edema and shock should trigger an immediate echocardiogram and a surgical call. Chamber size is the tell: normal chambers mean the lesion is acute.
Covered below under Topic V-6 — Mitral Regurgitation, Deep Dive
Tier 1
Topic V-3
Aortic Stenosis — Deep Dive
Etiology by Age · Severity Criteria · Low-Flow/Low-Gradient · AVR Indications
★★★ PANCE Priority
Why It Matters for Boards

Aortic stenosis is the most tested valvular lesion on the PANCE. The exam almost never asks you to pick a drug — it asks you to recognize severity from the exam, choose the confirmatory study, and decide whether this patient needs a valve. Symptom onset is the hinge: before symptoms the disease is followed, after symptoms it is operated on.

Etiology by Age
CauseTypical AgeBoard Key
Calcific degeneration of a trileaflet valveElderly (>65)Most common cause overall. Shares risk factors with atherosclerosis, but statins do not slow progression.
Bicuspid aortic valve5th–6th decadeMost common cause in patients <65. Look for associated coarctation and ascending aortic dilation — image the aorta.
Rheumatic diseaseVariableCommissural fusion. Almost never isolated — if the stem gives rheumatic AS, look for coexisting mitral valve disease.
Pathophysiology — One Chain

Fixed obstruction → LV pressure overload → concentric hypertrophy → diastolic dysfunction and subendocardial ischemia → eventual systolic failure.

  • The hypertrophied, non-compliant ventricle is critically preload-dependent — this single fact explains every medication warning in this topic.
  • It is also rate- and rhythm-dependent: loss of the atrial kick with new AF can precipitate abrupt decompensation.
  • Angina occurs without epicardial coronary disease — supply–demand mismatch from a thick ventricle with a high pressure load.
Presentation — Symptoms Mark a Cliff
  • Classic triad: angina, exertional syncope, dyspnea/heart failure. All three signify severe, late disease.
  • Approximate untreated survival after symptom onset: angina ≈ 5 years, syncope ≈ 3 years, heart failure ≈ 2 years. Learn them in that order — dyspnea/heart failure carries the worst prognosis.
  • Exertional syncope is a mechanical failure to augment cardiac output against a fixed obstruction — not a vasovagal event.

🩺 PANCE Pearl: Asymptomatic severe AS and symptomatic severe AS are different diseases for exam purposes. The severity numbers do not change management — symptoms do.

Physical Examination
FindingWhat It Means
Harsh crescendo–decrescendo systolic murmur, right 2nd ICS → carotidsThe lesion itself. Increases with squatting/leg raise, decreases with Valsalva.
Late-peaking murmurMarker of severe disease — timing of the peak matters more than loudness.
Single or soft S2Severe disease — the calcified valve no longer closes audibly.
Pulsus parvus et tardus (delayed carotid upstroke)100% specific but only ~12% sensitive. Its absence proves nothing; its presence clinches severity.
S4LVH with reduced ventricular compliance.
Murmur radiating to the apex in an elderly patientGallavardin phenomenon — mimics MR. Do not call it mitral disease.
Falsely brisk carotid upstrokeArterial stiffening in the elderly masks parvus et tardus.
Diagnostics
  • ECG: LVH ± left atrial enlargement. CXR: valve calcification, post-stenotic aortic dilation.
  • TTE is the diagnostic test of choice. Severe AS — any one of: Vmax ≥4.0 m/s, mean gradient ≥40 mmHg, AVA ≤1.0 cm² (or ≤0.6 cm²/m² indexed).
  • Uncontrolled hypertension underestimates severity — repeat the study after blood pressure control.
  • Low-flow / low-gradient AS: when LVEF is reduced, a low gradient does not exclude severe AS. Use dobutamine stress echo to separate true-severe from pseudo-severe, and CT aortic valve calcium score (>1300 AU women, >2000 AU men) as a flow-independent confirmation.
  • BNP >3× upper limit of normal in severe AS suggests decompensation.
  • Exercise testing: contraindicated once symptomatic (risk of syncope and arrest). It is useful only to unmask symptoms in the apparently asymptomatic patient, or to detect an abnormal BP response.
Medical Management — What Not to Do
  • No medical therapy alters the natural history. Statins do not slow progression. Treat hypertension and comorbidities on their own merits.
  • Preload and afterload are precious. Use nitrates, other vasodilators, and diuretics with real caution in severe AS — dropping preload against a fixed obstruction causes catastrophic hypotension.
  • Maintain sinus rhythm where possible; treat new AF promptly.
Indications for AVR — Surgical or Transcatheter
ClassIndication
ISymptomatic severe AS — angina, syncope, or dyspnea — regardless of gradient category.
IAsymptomatic severe AS with LVEF <50%.
ISevere AS in a patient undergoing other cardiac surgery.
IIaVery severe AS (Vmax >5.0 m/s), abnormal BP response on exercise testing, or rapid progression with low operative risk.
IIaSymptomatic low-flow/low-gradient AS confirmed as true-severe.
IIaModerate AS (V 3.0–3.9 m/s or gradient 20–39 mmHg) in a patient already undergoing cardiac surgery for another indication.

🩺 PANCE Pearl: SAVR vs TAVI is shared decision-making weighing age, surgical risk, lifetime valve strategy, and anatomy — not a memorized cutoff. TAVI indications continue to expand across risk categories. European guidelines differ from U.S. guidelines on LVEF thresholds and use age ≥65 as the bioprosthesis cutoff.

⚑ Board Traps — Aortic Stenosis
  • Ordering exercise stress testing for exertional syncope with a systolic murmur — symptomatic severe AS is a contraindication. Get the echo.
  • Calling AS non-severe because the mean gradient is low — gradient is flow-dependent. With reduced LVEF, use dobutamine stress echo or CT calcium score.
  • Starting a statin or beta-blocker "to slow progression" — no medical therapy changes the natural history. The answer is AVR.
  • Nitroglycerin for the "angina" — preload reduction against a fixed obstruction causes syncope or arrest.
  • Measuring severity during a hypertensive episode — severity is underestimated. Control the BP and repeat.
  • Mistaking the Gallavardin phenomenon for MR — an AS murmur radiating to the apex in an elderly patient is still AS.
  • Assuming a loud murmur means severe disease — as cardiac output falls the murmur gets softer. Judge by timing of the peak, S2, and carotid upstroke.
★ Memory Trick
Severe AS — "4, 40, 1": Vmax ≥4 m/s · mean gradient ≥40 mmHg · area ≤1 cm² Prognosis order — Angina 5, Syncope 3, Failure 2 (the countdown gets shorter as the symptom gets worse) "Late peak, soft S2, slow carotid" = the three severity signs at the bedside "Fixed obstruction hates a low tank" — no nitrates, careful with diuretics and vasodilators Symptoms = surgery. Everything else = surveillance.
Tier 1
Topic V-4
Mitral Stenosis — Deep Dive
Rheumatic Etiology · Filling-Time Physiology · Warfarin · PMBC Indications
★★★ PANCE Priority
Why It Matters for Boards

Mitral stenosis is rheumatic until proven otherwise. The PANCE stem almost always plants a clue — immigration from a region with endemic rheumatic disease, untreated childhood strep pharyngitis, or a young pregnant patient who suddenly cannot breathe. The physiology is entirely about diastolic filling time, and every management decision follows from that.

Etiology
  • Rheumatic heart disease — overwhelmingly dominant. Commissural fusion, leaflet thickening, chordal shortening.
  • Mitral annular calcification (elderly, usually mild).
  • Congenital mitral stenosis (rare).
Pathophysiology — The Consequence Chain

Obstructed LA emptying → ↑ LA pressure → LA dilation → pulmonary venous congestion → pulmonary hypertension → right heart failure.

  • LA dilation is the source of most complications: atrial fibrillation, LA thrombus, and systemic embolism including stroke.
  • Tachycardia shortens diastole and worsens the gradient. This is why decompensation is triggered by exercise, pregnancy, fever, anemia, or new-onset AF — the valve did not change, the filling time did.
  • Note what is preserved: the LV is normal. Heart failure symptoms here are from the left atrium and lungs, not from LV systolic dysfunction.
Presentation
  • Exertional dyspnea and orthopnea, fatigue, palpitations or AF, hemoptysis, embolic stroke.
  • Ortner syndrome — hoarseness from a dilated left atrium compressing the recurrent laryngeal nerve.
  • Dysphagia from esophageal compression by the enlarged left atrium.
  • Progression is slow — over decades. A patient can be asymptomatic for 20–40 years after the initial rheumatic insult.
Physical Examination
FindingMechanism / Board Key
Loud S1Thickened leaflets slam shut from a wide-open position.
Opening snap after S2Sudden halt of the doming stenotic valve. Its presence implies a still-pliable valve.
Low-pitched diastolic rumble at the apexBest heard in the left lateral decubitus position with the bell. Presystolic accentuation if in sinus rhythm.
S2–opening snap intervalSHORTER interval = MORE severe. Higher LA pressure opens the valve sooner after S2. This is counterintuitive and heavily tested.
Loud P2, RV heave, elevated JVP, edemaPulmonary hypertension with right heart failure — late findings.
Diagnostics
  • ECG: left atrial enlargement (P mitrale — notched P in lead II), atrial fibrillation, RVH.
  • CXR: straightened left heart border, double density at the right heart border, elevated left mainstem bronchus, Kerley B lines.
  • TTE: valve morphology, mitral valve area, mean gradient, PA pressure. Severe MS: MVA ≤1.5 cm².
  • TEE is mandatory before percutaneous mitral balloon commissurotomy (PMBC) — to exclude LA thrombus and quantify MR.
Medical Management
  • Rate control — beta-blockers or non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers — to lengthen diastolic filling time. This is the therapeutic lever.
  • Diuretics for pulmonary congestion.
  • Anticoagulation with warfarin for atrial fibrillation, prior embolism, or LA thrombus. DOACs are not established in rheumatic mitral stenosis — use warfarin.
  • Secondary rheumatic fever prophylaxis where indicated.
  • No medical therapy alters valve anatomy — relief requires a mechanical intervention.
Indications for Intervention
ClassIndication
IPMBC for symptomatic (NYHA II–IV) severe rheumatic MS (MVA ≤1.5 cm²) with favorable morphology, less than moderate MR, and no LA thrombus — at a Comprehensive Valve Center.
IMitral valve surgery (repair, commissurotomy, or replacement) for severely symptomatic (NYHA III–IV) severe MS who are not PMBC candidates, failed prior PMBC, require other cardiac surgery, or lack access to PMBC.
IIaPMBC in asymptomatic severe MS with favorable morphology and PASP >50 mmHg.
IIbAsymptomatic severe MS with favorable anatomy and new-onset AF; symptomatic patients with MVA >1.5 cm² if PCWP >25 mmHg or mean gradient >15 mmHg with exercise; NYHA III–IV severe MS with suboptimal anatomy who are non-surgical or high surgical risk.

🩺 PANCE Pearl: Because progression is slow, surgery is generally deferred until NYHA III–IV symptoms, particularly when repair is being contemplated. Contrast this with AS and MR, where earlier intervention is favored.

⚑ Board Traps — Mitral Stenosis
  • Choosing a DOAC for AF in rheumatic MS — this is a warfarin indication. Do not be swayed by "AF" alone.
  • Thinking a LONGER S2–opening snap interval means worse disease — it is the opposite. Shorter interval, higher LA pressure, worse stenosis.
  • Giving a fluid bolus or an inotrope to a decompensated MS patient — the problem is filling time, not filling volume or squeeze. Slow the rate.
  • Attributing dyspnea in pregnancy to normal physiology — the tachycardia and volume expansion of pregnancy classically unmask previously silent MS.
  • Skipping the TEE before PMBC — an undetected LA thrombus turns the procedure into a stroke.
  • Looking for LV dysfunction — the LV is normal in isolated MS. Congestion is upstream.
★ Memory Trick
MS = a filling-TIME disease. Anything that shortens diastole makes it worse: exercise, fever, pregnancy, AF. "Short snap = severe" — shorter S2–OS interval means higher LA pressure and tighter valve. Severe MS = valve area ≤1.5 cm² (MS is the "1.5" valve; AS is the "1.0" valve) Rheumatic MS + AF = WARFARIN, not a DOAC Big left atrium, normal left ventricle — hoarseness (Ortner), hemoptysis, AF, stroke all come from that atrium.
Tier 1
Topic V-5
Aortic Regurgitation — Deep Dive
Valve vs Root · Acute vs Chronic · Eponyms · Surgical Thresholds · Aortopathy
★★★ PANCE Priority
Why It Matters for Boards

Aortic regurgitation is tested in two completely different forms. Chronic AR is a slow, eponym-rich disease with a long compensated phase. Acute AR is a surgical emergency in which none of the famous peripheral signs appear — and expecting them is how a dissection gets missed.

Etiology — Valve vs Root
CategoryCauses
ValvularBicuspid aortic valve, calcific degeneration with leaflet retraction, rheumatic disease, endocarditis, cusp prolapse
Aortic root / annulusRoot or annular dilation, Marfan syndrome, aortic dissection, syphilitic aortitis, ankylosing spondylitis
Acute AREndocarditis, type A aortic dissection, trauma — a surgical emergency

🩺 PANCE Pearl: Always ask whether the problem is the valve or the aorta. Root pathology changes the operation (valve-sparing root replacement) and mandates aortic imaging and family screening.

Chronic vs Acute AR — The Central Distinction
FeatureChronic ARAcute AR
Left ventricleEccentric hypertrophy and dilation — cor bovinum; combined volume + pressure overload with a long compensated phaseNormal-sized and non-compliant — cannot accommodate the regurgitant volume
Pulse pressureWIDE — the source of every eponym belowNARROW, with tachycardia
MurmurLong, obvious decrescendo diastolic murmurShort and soft — easily missed despite profound compromise
PresentationAsymptomatic for years, then exertional dyspneaAbrupt ↑ LVEDP → flash pulmonary edema, cardiogenic shock
ManagementSerial imaging; surgery by criteriaEmergency surgery
Physical Examination — Chronic AR
  • Early, high-pitched, blowing decrescendo diastolic murmur at the left sternal border (3rd–4th ICS) — best heard sitting, leaning forward, in held expiration; louder with handgrip (increased afterload).
  • Austin Flint murmur — low-pitched apical mid-to-late diastolic rumble from the regurgitant jet striking the mitral leaflet. Do not mistake it for mitral stenosis: there is no opening snap and S1 is not loud.
  • Displaced, hyperdynamic apical impulse.
EponymFinding
Corrigan pulseWater-hammer pulse — rapid rise and collapse
de Musset signHead bobbing with each systole
Quincke signVisible nailbed capillary pulsation
Traube sign"Pistol-shot" sounds over the femoral arteries
Duroziez signTo-and-fro femoral bruit with light compression
Müller signPulsation of the uvula
Hill signPopliteal systolic pressure exceeds brachial

🩺 PANCE Pearl: All seven eponyms are one finding — a wide pulse pressure. Learn the mechanism and you own the list.

Diagnostics
  • TTE is first-line — severity, LV dimensions, LVEF, and root/ascending aortic dimensions.
  • Cardiac MR quantifies regurgitant volume and fraction and detects fibrosis when echo is equivocal. CT for aortic anatomy and procedural planning.
  • The serial numbers that drive surgery: LVEF, LVESD, LVESD index, LVEDD. These are followed over time — a single value matters less than the trajectory.
Medical Management
  • Vasodilators — ACE inhibitors/ARBs, dihydropyridine CCBs — for hypertension in AR. Medical therapy is not a substitute for surgery once an indication exists.
  • Bradycardia is poorly tolerated — a longer diastole means more regurgitation. Avoid non-vasodilating beta-blockers where possible. Exception: beta-blockade remains appropriate in Marfan syndrome and other aortopathy.
  • Acute severe AR: emergency surgery. Temporize with vasodilators and inotropes. Intra-aortic balloon pump is CONTRAINDICATED (diastolic augmentation worsens the regurgitation), as is heavy beta-blockade (the tachycardia is compensatory).
Indications for Surgery
ClassIndication
ISymptomatic severe AR, regardless of LV function.
IChronic severe AR with LVEF ≤55% when no other cause of systolic dysfunction is identified.
ISevere AR in a patient undergoing cardiac surgery for another indication.
IIaAsymptomatic severe AR, LVEF >55%, with severe LV enlargement — LVESD >50 mm or LVESD index >25 mm/m².
IIaModerate AR in a patient undergoing cardiac or aortic surgery for another indication.
IIbAsymptomatic severe AR, LVEF >55%, low surgical risk, with progressive LVEF decline across ≥3 serial studies into the 55–60% range, or progressive dilation to LVEDD >65 mm.
III · HarmTAVI for isolated severe AR in a patient who is a SAVR candidate.
Aortopathy Thresholds (ESC/EACTS)
  • Ascending aortic surgery for Marfan with root disease ≥50 mm — Class I.
  • Consider at ≥55 mm in all patients; ≥45 mm with Marfan plus additional risk factors; ≥50 mm with a bicuspid valve plus risk factors or coarctation.
  • Valve-sparing root replacement (David procedure) is preferred in younger patients with normal cusps and root dilation, at experienced centers.
⚑ Board Traps — Aortic Regurgitation
  • Expecting a water-hammer pulse in acute AR — acute AR has a narrow pulse pressure and tachycardia. The eponyms belong to chronic disease only.
  • Placing an IABP to stabilize acute severe ARcontraindicated. Diastolic augmentation drives more blood backward.
  • Beta-blocking the tachycardia in acute AR — that tachycardia is keeping the patient alive by shortening diastole.
  • Using LVEF ≤50% as the surgical threshold — the current Class I trigger for chronic severe AR is LVEF ≤55%.
  • Mistaking an Austin Flint murmur for mitral stenosis — no opening snap, no loud S1, and there is a diastolic murmur at the base.
  • Offering TAVI for isolated severe AR in a surgical candidate — Class III, Harm.
  • Treating chronic AR medically once criteria are met — vasodilators control BP; they do not replace an operation.
★ Memory Trick
Every AR eponym = ONE finding: a wide pulse pressure. Corrigan, de Musset, Quincke, Traube, Duroziez, Müller, Hill. CHRONIC AR = wide pulse pressure. ACUTE AR = NARROW pulse pressure + tachycardia + shock. Opposite exams, same valve. "AR hates a slow heart" — bradycardia lengthens diastole and increases regurgitation. Acute AR: NO balloon pump, NO beta-blocker, YES operating room. AR surgery numbers: EF ≤55% (Class I) · LVESD >50 mm (Class IIa)
Tier 1
Topic V-6
Mitral Regurgitation — Deep Dive
Primary vs Secondary · Severity Criteria · TEER · Acute MR Post-MI
★★★ PANCE Priority
Why It Matters for Boards

The single most important step in any MR question is classifying it as primary or secondary. Primary MR is a broken valve that needs a mechanical repair. Secondary MR is a sick ventricle with a structurally normal valve, and it needs the ventricle treated first. Give the "primary MR" answer to a secondary MR stem and you will get it wrong every time.

Primary vs Secondary MR — The Critical Distinction
 Primary (degenerative / organic)Secondary (functional)
The problemIntrinsic disease of the leaflets or apparatusStructurally normal leaflets — LV dysfunction and annular dilation
CausesMVP / myxomatous degeneration (most common in developed countries), flail leaflet, chordal rupture, endocarditis, rheumatic disease, papillary muscle rupture post-MIIschemic or non-ischemic cardiomyopathy
Treatment logicMechanical problem → mechanical solutionTreat the ventricle first — severity may improve with GDMT
PrognosisExcellent after timely repairPoor without intervention; reflects the underlying myopathy
Pathophysiology
  • Chronic: LV volume overload → eccentric hypertrophy, LA dilation, atrial fibrillation, pulmonary hypertension.
  • LVEF reads deceptively "supranormal" because the ventricle ejects into the low-impedance left atrium. An LVEF of 50–60% in severe MR already signals meaningful dysfunction — this is why the surgical threshold is set unusually high.
  • Acute: papillary muscle rupture 2–7 days post-MI, chordal rupture, or endocarditis → abrupt pulmonary edema and shock with a normal-sized LA and LV. No time has passed for compensatory dilation.
Physical Examination
  • Holosystolic blowing apical murmur radiating to the axilla — louder with handgrip and squatting (increased afterload), softer with Valsalva.
  • Soft S1, S3, laterally displaced apex with chronic severe MR.
  • Mitral valve prolapse: mid-systolic click ± late systolic murmur. Valsalva or standing moves the click EARLIER and lengthens the murmur; squatting moves it later. This is the opposite direction from most murmurs.
  • Acute severe MR may produce only a soft, short, early systolic murmur despite profound hemodynamic compromise — the LA pressure rises so fast that the gradient disappears in late systole.
Diagnostics
  • TTE: mechanism, severity, LVEF, LVESD, PA pressure. TEE for repair feasibility and intraoperative guidance.
  • Severe primary MR: effective regurgitant orifice area ≥0.40 cm², regurgitant volume ≥60 mL, regurgitant fraction ≥50%, vena contracta ≥0.7 cm.
Medical Management
  • Primary MR: no medical therapy delays the need for surgery. Treat hypertension if present; do NOT give vasodilators to the normotensive asymptomatic patient.
  • Secondary MR: full guideline-directed medical therapy for HFrEF first — ACEi/ARB/ARNI, beta-blocker, MRA, SGLT2 inhibitor — plus CRT when indicated. Reassess severity after optimization.
  • Acute severe MR: afterload reduction with nitroprusside, IABP as a bridge, urgent surgery.
Intervention — Primary MR
ClassIndication
ISymptomatic severe primary MR (Stage D) with LVEF >30%.
IAsymptomatic severe primary MR with LVEF ≤60% or LVESD ≥40 mm (Stage C2).
IIaAsymptomatic severe MR with preserved function when durable repair likelihood exceeds 95% with <1% expected mortality at a Comprehensive Valve Center.
IIaProgressive LV enlargement or declining LVEF on serial imaging, new-onset AF (<3 months), or resting PASP >50 mmHg.
IIaTranscatheter edge-to-edge repair (TEER / MitraClip) for severely symptomatic primary MR at high or prohibitive surgical risk with suitable anatomy.

🩺 PANCE Pearl: Repair is strongly preferred over replacement whenever anatomically feasible. Timely successful repair yields survival equivalent to an age-matched population — which is why the exam pushes early referral.

Intervention — Secondary MR
ClassIndication
IIaTEER for severe symptomatic secondary MR with LVEF 20–50% after GDMT supervised by a heart failure specialist.
IIbSurgery for persistent NYHA III–IV symptoms despite optimized GDMT — has not been shown to improve survival.
IIbAnnuloplasty for moderate secondary MR at the time of CABG — benefit uncertain.
⚑ Board Traps — Mitral Regurgitation
  • Calling LVEF 58% "normal" in severe MRLVEF ≤60% or LVESD ≥40 mm is a Class I trigger to operate in an asymptomatic patient. Waiting for a low EF means waiting too long.
  • Assuming a soft murmur means mild MR post-MI — day 2–7 after infarct with new pulmonary edema and shock is papillary muscle rupture. Echo and surgery, not more diuretic.
  • Giving vasodilators to an asymptomatic normotensive patient with primary MR — no benefit. It is a mechanical problem.
  • Sending severe secondary MR straight to surgeryGDMT first. TEER is Class IIa at LVEF 20–50% after optimization; surgery is only IIb and has not improved survival.
  • Choosing replacement over repair when the anatomy is favorable — repair is preferred.
  • Missing MVP dynamics — standing and Valsalva move the click earlier; this is opposite to the AS and HCM murmur behavior students memorize.
  • Expecting a dilated LA on echo in acute MR — chambers are normal-sized because there has been no time to remodel.
★ Memory Trick
First question, always: PRIMARY (broken valve → fix the valve) or SECONDARY (sick ventricle → fix the ventricle)? MR surgery numbers: EF ≤60% or LVESD ≥40 mm — "60 and 40" for MR; "55 and 50" for AR. In severe MR, a "normal" EF is abnormal — the LA is an escape hatch that flatters the ventricle. Acute MR = soft short murmur + flash pulmonary edema + NORMAL-sized chambers. Days 2–7 post-MI. Secondary MR: GDMT → reassess → TEER. Surgery does not improve survival.
Domain 6 · Cardiomyopathies
Cardiomyopathies
Before you beginCardiomyopathies3 questions
Answer these three before you read the domain. Getting them wrong is expected and useful — attempting a question first is what makes the material below stick. Each explanation unlocks only after you submit.
Question 1 of 3 · Medium · Reversible Dilated Cardiomyopathy
A 42-year-old man with a 15-year history of daily heavy alcohol use presents with progressive dyspnea and bilateral leg edema. Echocardiogram shows EF of 18%, four-chamber dilation, and moderate mitral regurgitation. What is the single most important intervention to improve his prognosis?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: D — Complete alcohol cessation
This is alcoholic (toxic) dilated cardiomyopathy — one of the few potentially reversible causes of dilated CMP. Complete cessation of alcohol use can lead to significant, sometimes dramatic, recovery of ejection fraction, and is the single most important prognostic factor, more important than any pharmacologic intervention alone.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Urgent referral for heart transplant evaluation — Incorrect — as an initial step. Because alcoholic cardiomyopathy is potentially reversible with cessation, transplant evaluation would be premature before giving the patient the opportunity to recover EF through abstinence and GDMT — this is reserved for refractory cases that don't improve.
  • Diuretic therapy alone, since this addresses his most prominent symptom of edema — Incorrect. Diuretics manage symptomatic volume overload but do not address the reversible underlying cause or change long-term prognosis the way alcohol cessation does.
  • Starting maximal-dose GDMT (ACEi, beta-blocker, MRA, SGLT2i) without addressing alcohol use — Incorrect — as the primary answer. While GDMT is appropriate and should be initiated, it does not address the underlying reversible cause. Without cessation of alcohol use, the cardiomyopathy will likely persist or progress despite optimal medical therapy.
  • Implantable cardioverter-defibrillator placement immediately — Incorrect — as the most important first step. ICD placement for primary prevention is typically deferred for at least 3-6 months while EF is reassessed after cessation and GDMT optimization, since EF may improve significantly and obviate the need for a device.
Board pearlAlways ask whether a dilated cardiomyopathy is one of the reversible ones before settling into chronic management: alcohol, tachycardia-mediated, thyroid disease, peripartum, myocarditis, cocaine, and chemotherapy (anthracyclines, trastuzumab). Removing the cause can restore EF outright. This is also why primary-prevention ICD placement waits 3–6 months of therapy before EF is reassessed.
Covered below under Topic CM-2 — Dilated & Other Cardiomyopathies
Question 2 of 3 · High Yield · Cardiomyopathy · HCM Drug Trap
A 34-year-old with hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy develops exertional dyspnea. Which of the following is CONTRAINDICATED?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: A — Sublingual nitroglycerin
In HOCM, vasodilators are contraindicated — nitroglycerin, ACEi, ARBs, hydralazine, and diuretics all reduce preload or afterload, worsening LVOT obstruction → syncope or sudden death. Beta-blockers (metoprolol, propranolol) and verapamil are first-line treatments — they reduce heart rate and improve diastolic filling. Disopyramide (Class IA antiarrhythmic with negative inotropic effect) is used for refractory obstructive symptoms.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Disopyramide for refractory obstruction — Incorrect. Disopyramide is actually a therapeutic option in HOCM. Its negative inotropic effect reduces the force of septal contraction and therefore relieves LVOT obstruction — it is used as second-line therapy when beta-blockers fail.
  • Propranolol — Incorrect. Beta-blockers are FIRST-LINE in HOCM. They reduce contractility and slow heart rate, which lengthens diastolic filling time, enlarges the LV cavity, and reduces outflow obstruction.
  • Metoprolol succinate — Incorrect. Like propranolol, metoprolol is a beta-blocker and therefore beneficial in HOCM. Both nonselective and cardioselective agents work through the same mechanism of reduced contractility and improved diastolic filling.
  • Verapamil — Incorrect. Verapamil is a recognized alternative to beta-blockers in HOCM because it is negatively inotropic and improves diastolic relaxation. It requires caution in severe obstruction, but it is not the contraindicated answer here.
Board pearlHOCM is preload- and afterload-dependent, so anything that shrinks the ventricle worsens the obstruction: nitrates, ACEi/ARBs, hydralazine, dihydropyridine CCBs, and aggressive diuresis. Treat with beta-blockers or verapamil; disopyramide is added for refractory obstruction. And volume plus a beta-blocker — not nitroglycerin — is the answer when a HOCM patient becomes hypotensive.
Covered below under Topic CM-1 — Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy (HCM)
Question 3 of 3 · High Yield · HCM and Sudden Cardiac Death
A 17-year-old basketball player collapses during practice and is resuscitated from ventricular fibrillation. His uncle died suddenly at age 28 during a football game. Echocardiogram shows LV wall thickness of 22mm with systolic anterior motion of the mitral valve. Which medication is absolutely contraindicated in his ongoing management?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: B — Digoxin — it is a positive inotrope that worsens left ventricular outflow tract obstruction
This presentation (young athlete, sudden cardiac arrest from VF, family history of sudden death, massive LV hypertrophy with systolic anterior motion of the mitral valve) is classic hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM) with sudden cardiac death risk. Digoxin, along with nitrates and pure vasodilators, decreases preload and/or increases contractility — both of which worsen dynamic LVOT obstruction in HCM and can precipitate hemodynamic collapse. He requires ICD placement for secondary prevention.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Aspirin — antiplatelet agents worsen outflow tract obstruction — Incorrect. Aspirin has no mechanistic relationship to LVOT obstruction and is not contraindicated in HCM based on this mechanism.
  • Lisinopril — ACE inhibitors are absolutely contraindicated in HCM — Incorrect. While ACE inhibitors are used cautiously in obstructive HCM (since afterload reduction can theoretically worsen obstruction), they are not in the same category of absolute, classic contraindication as digoxin and nitrates, which directly worsen the core pathophysiology through preload/inotropy effects.
  • Verapamil — calcium channel blockers are absolutely contraindicated in all cardiomyopathies — Incorrect. Non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers like verapamil are actually used as second-line therapy in HCM (when beta-blockers are insufficient or not tolerated) because they also reduce contractility, similar to beta-blockers — they are not contraindicated.
  • Metoprolol — beta-blockers should never be used in cardiomyopathy of any type — Incorrect. Beta-blockers are actually first-line therapy in HCM — they reduce contractility and heart rate, which decreases LVOT obstruction. This is the opposite of digoxin's effect and is appropriate, not contraindicated.
Board pearlYoung athlete + exertional collapse + family history of sudden death = HCM until an echo says otherwise. Wall thickness at or above 30 mm, unexplained syncope, a family history of sudden death, massive LVH, and non-sustained VT are the risk markers driving ICD placement. Here the arrest already happened, so the ICD is secondary prevention — and first-degree relatives need screening.
Covered below under Topic CM-1 — Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy (HCM)
Tier 2
Topic CM-1
Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy (HCM)
Most Common Cause of Sudden Cardiac Death in Young Athletes
★★ PANCE Blueprint★ Gap Added
Why It Matters

Most common cause of sudden cardiac death in young athletes (age <35). The PANCE tests recognition, drug contraindications, and the key physical exam maneuvers that change the murmur intensity.

Core Recognition
  • Genetics: Autosomal dominant; sarcomere protein mutations (myosin heavy chain, troponin)
  • Pathophysiology: Asymmetric septal hypertrophy → LVOT obstruction → dynamic outflow gradient → poor diastolic filling
  • Classic presentation: Young athlete with exertional syncope, chest pain, palpitations. Family history of sudden death. Prominent S4.
  • Murmur: Harsh systolic crescendo-decrescendo at LLSB. Dynamic — changes with maneuvers.
Murmur Response to Maneuvers — The Boards Love This
ManeuverEffect on Preload/AfterloadHOCM MurmurAS/MR Murmur
Valsalva (strain) / Standing↓ Preload → smaller LV → worse obstructionLOUDER (worse obstruction)Softer (less flow)
Squatting / Supine leg raise↑ Preload → larger LV → less obstructionSofter (less obstruction)Louder (more flow)
Amyl nitrite↓ Afterload + preloadLOUDERSofter (MR softer; AS louder)
Phenylephrine / Handgrip↑ Afterload + preloadSofterLouder (MR louder)
Treatment
  • Mainstay: Beta-blockers (first-line) or non-dihydropyridine CCBs (verapamil) — decrease HR → longer diastolic filling, reduce LVOT gradient
  • ICD: For high-risk patients (prior SCA, family history of sudden death, severe hypertrophy, NSVT, hypotensive BP response to exercise)
  • Septal reduction therapy: Surgical myectomy (first-line for eligible patients) or alcohol septal ablation for drug-refractory LVOT obstruction
  • Mavacamten (myosin inhibitor): FDA approved 2022 for symptomatic obstructive HCM — reduces LVOT gradient
⚑ Board Traps — HCM
  • Digoxin, diuretics, and vasodilators (including nitrates, ACEi) are CONTRAINDICATED — reduce preload/afterload → worsen LVOT obstruction → syncope or sudden death
  • HCM murmur INCREASES with Valsalva/standing — opposite of AS, MR, and most other murmurs
  • Athletes with HCM must be restricted from competitive sports
  • HCM is NOT dilated CM — heart is stiff and hypertrophied, not dilated and weak
★ Memory Trick
HCM murmur: "Lower the Load = Louder" — anything that ↓ preload or afterload (standing, Valsalva, dehydration) makes HCM murmur worse/louder "Fill it up = softer" — squatting, lying down, volume loading makes HCM softer
Tier 2
Topic CM-2
Dilated & Other Cardiomyopathies
Dilated CM · ARVC · Takotsubo · Peripartum CMP
★★ PANCE Blueprint★ Gap Added
TypePathologyClassic PresentationSpecific Board Pearl
Dilated CMPDilated, poorly contracting LV. EF reduced.HF symptoms + dilated heart on echo. Idiopathic, viral (Coxsackie B), alcohol, cocaine, doxorubicin.Alcohol CMP: abstinence can partially reverse. Doxorubicin CMP: dose-related, baseline echo before chemo.
ARVCFibrofatty replacement of RV myocardiumYoung male. Ventricular arrhythmias, RV dysfunction, syncope. EKG: epsilon waves, T-wave inversions V1–V3.Epsilon wave = pathognomonic for ARVC. Exercise restriction mandatory. ICD for VT/VF.
Takotsubo (Stress CMP)Transient apical ballooning of LV. Catecholamine surge.Post-emotional or physical stress (usually postmenopausal women). STEMI-like presentation. Apical ballooning on echo. Coronaries clean.MINOCA cause. Usually reversible in 4–8 weeks. Treat supportively. Avoid catecholamines (worsen spasm).
Peripartum CMPNew HFrEF in last month of pregnancy or within 5 months postpartumDyspnea, edema, reduced EF. Diagnosis of exclusion.Use BB (safe in pregnancy: labetalol, metoprolol) and hydralazine/nitrates. ACEi/ARBs teratogenic — CONTRAINDICATED in pregnancy.
Domain 7 · Hypertension
Hypertension
Before you beginHypertension3 in-session · 2 homework
Core Topic 5 — Hypertension. Attempt the three in-session questions before the domain is taught — they run in the room, in this order: recognition, then management, then the trap. The two homework questions are for tonight, after the teaching. Getting them wrong first is expected and useful; each explanation unlocks only after you submit.
In-sessionQ1 of 3 · Stage 1 HTN · Risk-Based Decision
A 45-year-old woman has a blood pressure of 134/86 mmHg. Her 10-year ASCVD risk is 6%. What is the best initial management?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: E — Lifestyle modifications alone
This is stage 1 hypertension (130–139 systolic or 80–89 diastolic) with a 10-year ASCVD risk under 10%, so start with nonpharmacologic therapy: DASH-style diet, sodium reduction, weight loss, aerobic exercise, moderated alcohol. Reassess in 3–6 months and add medication if she has not reached goal.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • No intervention needed — Incorrect. 134/86 is hypertension by current thresholds. Doing nothing misses a real opportunity.
  • Start amlodipine and hydrochlorothiazide — Incorrect. Two agents is a stage 2 strategy, and this is over-treatment at low risk.
  • Start lisinopril — Incorrect. Drug therapy in stage 1 is indicated when the 10-year ASCVD risk is 10% or higher, or when there is established cardiovascular disease, diabetes, or CKD. Hers is 6% with none of those.
  • Start chlorthalidone at a low dose — Incorrect. Chlorthalidone is an excellent first-line thiazide-type agent — the objection is not the drug but the decision to treat. At stage 1 with a 10-year risk of 6% and no compelling comorbidity, drug therapy is not yet indicated.
Board pearlFor stage 1, the 10% ASCVD risk threshold is the whole question. Under 10% with no compelling comorbidity: lifestyle, then reassess. At 10% or above, or with diabetes, CKD, or clinical ASCVD: lifestyle plus a first-line drug.
Covered below under Topic HTN-0a — Primary Hypertension
In-sessionQ2 of 3 · Hypertensive Emergency
A 60-year-old man presents to the ED with a blood pressure of 220/130 mmHg, headache, blurred vision, and a creatinine that has risen from 1.2 to 2.8 mg/dL. What is the best next step?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: A — IV nicardipine, lowering MAP no more than 25% in the first hour
Severe hypertension with acute end-organ injury — here acute kidney injury plus neurologic and visual symptoms — is a hypertensive emergency. Admit for a titratable IV agent and lower the mean arterial pressure by no more than about 25% in the first hour, then toward 160/100 over the next 2–6 hours. Chronic hypertension shifts the cerebral autoregulation curve rightward, so dropping the pressure too fast causes cerebral, coronary, and renal ischemia.

🚨 Agent selection matters here. This patient's creatinine is rising, and nitroprusside should be avoided in renal impairment — it is metabolized to cyanide and cleared as thiocyanate, both of which accumulate when the kidneys fail. Nicardipine or clevidipine is the appropriate choice. Reserve nitroprusside for settings with preserved renal function and short expected duration.

Why the other choices are wrong
  • IV furosemide bolus — Incorrect. Does not reliably control blood pressure, and volume depletion may worsen his acute kidney injury.
  • Discharge with oral medications and 48-hour follow-up — Incorrect. Active end-organ damage requires admission.
  • Oral amlodipine and recheck in 1 hour — Incorrect. Oral agents have unpredictable onset and cannot be titrated or stopped quickly. Oral therapy is for hypertensive urgency, where there is no end-organ damage.
  • IV labetalol, normalizing the pressure within the hour — Incorrect — and the drug is not the problem. Labetalol is a perfectly acceptable agent in hypertensive emergency; the target is what makes this wrong. Normalizing the pressure acutely, in a patient whose autoregulation curve is shifted right, precipitates cerebral, coronary, and renal ischemia.
Board pearlThe single distinction that matters is end-organ damage: present = emergency, IV therapy, admit; absent = urgency, oral therapy, close follow-up. Three exceptions to the gradual-lowering rule need faster, lower targets: aortic dissection (systolic below 120 within 20 minutes with a beta-blocker first), severe preeclampsia or eclampsia, and pheochromocytoma crisis (alpha-blockade before beta-blockade).
Covered below under Topic HTN-1 — Hypertensive Emergency vs Urgency
In-sessionQ3 of 3 · Secondary HTN · Resistant Pattern
A 35-year-old woman has resistant hypertension despite three medications including a diuretic. She has hypokalemia (K⁺ 2.9 mEq/L) and metabolic alkalosis. What is the most likely secondary cause?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: C — Primary hyperaldosteronism
Resistant hypertension with spontaneous or easily provoked hypokalemia and metabolic alkalosis is the classic signature of primary hyperaldosteronism (Conn syndrome). Excess aldosterone drives sodium retention with potassium and hydrogen ion wasting. Screen with a morning plasma aldosterone-to-renin ratio: aldosterone high, renin suppressed.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Coarctation of the aorta — Incorrect. Upper extremity hypertension with diminished femoral pulses, an arm-to-leg gradient, and rib notching — usually identified much younger.
  • Pheochromocytoma — Incorrect. Episodic hypertension with the triad of headache, palpitations, and diaphoresis, often with tremor and pallor. It does not produce this electrolyte pattern; screen with plasma free metanephrines.
  • Renal artery stenosis — Incorrect. Suggested by an abdominal bruit, a creatinine rise after starting an ACEi or ARB, or recurrent flash pulmonary edema. Fibromuscular dysplasia is the form seen in young women. Renin is high here, and marked hypokalemia is less typical.
  • Cushing syndrome from an adrenal adenoma — Incorrect — and it is the closest competitor, because very high cortisol does spill over onto the mineralocorticoid receptor and can produce hypertension with hypokalemic alkalosis. What is missing is the rest of the phenotype: central obesity, purple striae, proximal muscle weakness, easy bruising, and hyperglycemia.
Board pearlScreen for secondary hypertension when the presentation does not fit: onset under 30 or over 55, resistance to three drugs including a diuretic, spontaneous hypokalemia, or abrupt loss of control in a previously stable patient. Primary hyperaldosteronism is the most common identifiable cause of resistant hypertension — and the most commonly missed.
Covered below under Topic HTN-0b — Secondary Hypertension · see also Topic HTN-0c
Homework — after the session
HomeworkQ1 of 2 · Hypertension · First-Line Agents
A 52-year-old man is found to have a blood pressure of 152/94 mmHg on three separate visits. He has no other comorbidities. What is the first-line pharmacologic treatment?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: B — Thiazide, ACE inhibitor, ARB, or calcium channel blocker
There are four first-line classes for primary hypertension: thiazide-type diuretics, ACE inhibitors, ARBs, and calcium channel blockers. He is stage 2 (systolic 140 or above, or diastolic 90 or above), so start medication together with lifestyle change — and note that guidelines favor beginning with two first-line agents from different classes in stage 2, since single-agent therapy rarely reaches goal from this starting point. Target is below 130/80.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Clonidine or another central alpha-2 agonist — Incorrect. A central alpha-2 agonist, second- or third-line, limited by sedation, dry mouth, and dangerous rebound hypertension on abrupt withdrawal.
  • Loop diuretic such as furosemide or torsemide — Incorrect. Not a first-line antihypertensive. Loops are for volume overload states — heart failure, advanced CKD (eGFR under roughly 30, where thiazides lose potency).
  • Alpha-1 blocker such as doxazosin or terazosin — Incorrect. Not first-line for blood pressure; associated with orthostatic hypotension. Useful when a man also has symptomatic BPH, but as an add-on.
  • Beta-blocker such as metoprolol, atenolol, or carvedilol — Incorrect. Beta-blockers are no longer first-line for uncomplicated hypertension — head-to-head trials showed less stroke protection than the other classes. They move to first-line only when a second indication exists: post-MI, HFrEF, rate control, or certain arrhythmias.
Board pearlKnow when a first-line class becomes the class: ACEi or ARB with diabetic nephropathy, albuminuria, CKD, or HFrEF; thiazide or dihydropyridine CCB as reasonable first choices in Black patients without those indications; ACEi and ARB are contraindicated in pregnancy.
Covered below under Topic HTN-0a — Primary Hypertension
HomeworkQ2 of 2 · HTN + Diabetic Nephropathy
A 50-year-old man with hypertension and type 2 diabetes has a blood pressure of 148/92 mmHg. His urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio is 350 mg/g. What is the best first-line antihypertensive?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: A — ACE inhibitor or ARB
Albuminuria at 300 mg/g or higher plus diabetes and hypertension makes an ACE inhibitor or ARB the required first agent. Beyond lowering blood pressure, RAAS blockade reduces intraglomerular pressure and slows the progression of both albuminuria and CKD. Use one or the other — never both together. Check creatinine and potassium within 1–2 weeks of starting, and accept a creatinine rise up to about 30%.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Hydrochlorothiazide — Incorrect. A fine first-line agent in uncomplicated hypertension, but it provides no targeted renal protection and may worsen glycemic control and uric acid.
  • Amlodipine — Incorrect. Effective for blood pressure but without the specific renoprotective effect of RAAS blockade. Reasonable as a second agent, which he will likely need at 148/92.
  • Metoprolol — Incorrect. Not first-line for hypertension without another indication such as HFrEF, post-MI, or rate control, and it can mask the adrenergic warning signs of hypoglycemia.
  • Combined ACE inhibitor and ARB — Incorrect — and actively harmful. Dual RAAS blockade was tested in ONTARGET and ALTITUDE and produced more hyperkalemia, hypotension, and acute kidney injury with no added benefit. Use one agent, titrated to the maximum tolerated dose.
Board pearlAlbuminuria is the trigger word: diabetes plus albuminuria means an ACEi or ARB, whatever else you add. Then remember the modern add-ons that protect the kidney in diabetic CKD: an SGLT2 inhibitor, and finerenone for persistent albuminuria on a maximally tolerated RAAS blocker.
Covered below under Topic HTN-0a — Primary Hypertension · see also Topic C-4
Tier 1
Topic HTN-0a
Primary Hypertension — Classification, Risk Stratification & Treatment
2025 ACC/AHA BP Categories · PREVENT Risk Calculator · First-Line Drug Selection · BP Targets
★★★ PANCE Priority
Why It Matters for Boards
  • Hypertension affects ~116 million US adults — the single most common chronic condition tested on PANCE
  • Only ~44% of US adults with HTN have BP controlled to goal — management questions are heavily tested
  • Primary (essential) HTN accounts for 85–95% of all hypertension and is a diagnosis of exclusion
BP Classification (2017 ACC/AHA, reaffirmed 2025)
CategorySystolicDiastolic
Normal<120<80
Elevated120–129<80
Stage 1 HTN130–139or 80–89
Stage 2 HTN≥140or ≥90

🩺 PANCE Pearl: Memorize these thresholds exactly — boards test the boundary numbers (e.g., 129/79 = Elevated, not Stage 1).

Accurate BP Measurement
  • Office technique: seated ≥5 min, back supported, feet flat, arm at heart level, no caffeine/exercise/smoking within 30 min. Average ≥2 readings, 1 min apart, on ≥2 occasions
  • HBPM (home): ≥2 readings AM (before meds) and PM, averaged over ≥2 days
  • ABPM (24-hr ambulatory): best predictor of long-term CVD outcomes; identifies nocturnal dipping
  • White coat HTN: elevated office BP, normal out-of-office BP
  • Masked HTN: normal office BP, elevated out-of-office BP — carries HIGHER CVD risk than white coat

🚨 Classic Trap: Masked hypertension is more dangerous than white coat hypertension because it goes undiagnosed and undertreated despite normal-appearing office readings.

Risk-Based Treatment Initiation (2025 AHA/ACC)
Patient ProfileStart Meds At
All adultsAverage BP ≥140/90
CVD, prior stroke, diabetes, CKD, or 10-yr risk ≥7.5% (PREVENT)BP ≥130/80
No risk factors + 10-yr risk <7.5%BP ≥130/80 after 3–6 months of failed lifestyle changes

🩺 PANCE Pearl: The 2025 guideline replaced the Pooled Cohort Equations (10% threshold) with the PREVENT calculator (7.5% threshold) — boards may test this shift.

Lifestyle Modifications — Approximate SBP Reduction
InterventionTargetSBP Reduction
Weight loss≥5% body weight~5 mmHg per 5 kg lost
DASH dietFruits, veg, whole grains, low-fat dairySignificant
Sodium reduction<2,300 mg/day, ideally <1,500~5–6 mmHg
Physical activity≥150 min/week moderate aerobic~5–8 mmHg
Alcohol reductionMen ≤2, women ≤1 drink/dayVariable

🩺 PANCE Pearl: Lifestyle modification alone achieves goal BP in only ~27% of patients — most patients eventually need pharmacotherapy too.

First-Line Drug Classes
  • Thiazide/thiazide-like diuretics: chlorthalidone preferred over HCTZ (longer half-life, proven CVD reduction)
  • ACE inhibitors: lisinopril, enalapril, ramipril
  • ARBs: losartan, valsartan, candesartan — better tolerated than ACEi (less cough/angioedema)
  • Dihydropyridine CCBs: amlodipine, nifedipine LA

🚨 Classic Trap: Beta-blockers are NOT first-line for primary HTN unless there's a compelling indication (heart failure, ischemic heart disease, rate control). Don't pick metoprolol as initial monotherapy for uncomplicated HTN.

🚨 Classic Trap: NEVER combine ACEi + ARB (or + direct renin inhibitor) — this combination is potentially harmful (hyperkalemia, AKI) and is a frequently tested "wrong answer" pairing.

Combination Therapy & Special Populations
  • Stage 2 HTN: 2025 guideline → initiate with 2 first-line agents, preferably as a single-pill fixed-dose combination
  • Black patients: thiazides or CCBs preferred initial monotherapy — ACEi is LESS effective for BP lowering and stroke prevention in this population
  • Complementary combos: ACEi/ARB + CCB, ACEi/ARB + thiazide, CCB + thiazide
BP Targets & Landmark Trials
PopulationSBP Target
High CVD risk<130, encouraged <120
Diabetes<130/80
CKD<130/80 (KDIGO: <120 if tolerated)
  • SPRINT trial (2015): intensive SBP <120 vs standard <140 in non-diabetics — 25% reduction in CVD events and all-cause mortality. Excluded diabetics and prior stroke patients.
  • ACCORD trial: intensive BP in diabetics — no significant primary benefit, but did reduce stroke
  • An SBP reduction of 10 mmHg decreases CVD events by ~20–30%

🚨 Classic Trap: SPRINT results do NOT directly apply to diabetics — the trial specifically excluded them. Don't cite SPRINT to justify aggressive targets in a diabetic patient.

Tier 2
Topic HTN-0b
Secondary Hypertension
When to Suspect · Primary Aldosteronism · Pheochromocytoma · Renal Artery Stenosis · Buzzword Pairings
★★ PANCE Blueprint
When to Suspect Secondary HTN
  • Onset <30 years or >55 years without typical risk factors
  • Resistant or refractory HTN
  • Abrupt onset or acute worsening of previously controlled HTN
  • Severe/accelerated HTN with target organ damage
  • Unprovoked hypokalemia
  • Adrenal incidentaloma
Primary Aldosteronism — Most Common Endocrine Cause
  • Far more common than previously thought — accounts for 8–20% of secondary HTN
  • Screen: plasma aldosterone-to-renin ratio (ARR) under standardized conditions — must correct hypokalemia and withdraw MRAs 4–6 weeks before testing
  • Confirm: oral sodium loading test or IV saline infusion test
  • Subtype: adrenal CT + adrenal vein sampling
  • Treat: unilateral adenoma → adrenalectomy. Bilateral hyperplasia → MRA (spironolactone/eplerenone)

🩺 PANCE Pearl: Resistant HTN + unprovoked hypokalemia = think primary aldosteronism first.

Pheochromocytoma
  • Classic triad: episodic headache, sweating, palpitations (with pallor)
  • Associated with neurofibromatosis (café-au-lait spots), MEN2, VHL
  • Screen: plasma free metanephrines (most sensitive) or 24-hr urine fractionated metanephrines
  • Localize: CT or MRI abdomen/pelvis
  • Preop: alpha-blockade FIRST (phenoxybenzamine or doxazosin), THEN beta-blockade

🚨 Classic Trap: NEVER give a beta-blocker before alpha-blockade in pheochromocytoma — unopposed alpha stimulation can precipitate a hypertensive crisis. This exact sequence trap appears repeatedly on boards.

Renovascular Hypertension
TypePopulationKey Finding
Atherosclerotic RASOlder patients, diffuse atherosclerosisFlash pulmonary edema, renal bruit
Fibromuscular dysplasia (FMD)Young women"String of beads" on angiography
  • Screen: renal duplex Doppler, CTA, or MRA
  • Medical therapy preferred for atherosclerotic RAS (CORAL trial — no benefit from stenting)
  • Angioplasty (without stenting) may benefit FMD
High-Yield Buzzword Associations
  • Young woman + early-onset HTN + renal bruit → fibromuscular dysplasia
  • Resistant HTN + hypokalemia → primary aldosteronism
  • Episodic headache + sweating + palpitations + pallor → pheochromocytoma
  • Snoring + obesity + resistant HTN → obstructive sleep apnea (most prevalent secondary cause in resistant HTN)
  • Upper extremity HTN + absent femoral pulses + rib notching → coarctation of aorta
  • Moon face + striae + central obesity + hyperglycemia → Cushing syndrome
  • Flash pulmonary edema + renal bruit → atherosclerotic renal artery stenosis
  • Café-au-lait spots + HTN → pheochromocytoma (NF1 association)

🩺 PANCE Pearl: These buzzword pairings are exam gold — memorize them as a set. Secondary HTN questions are usually pattern-recognition, not calculation.

Tier 2
Topic HTN-0c
Resistant Hypertension & Special Populations
Second-Line Agents · Spironolactone · Pregnancy · CKD · Elderly · Target Organ Damage
★★ PANCE Blueprint
Resistant Hypertension — Definition & Workup
  • Definition: BP above goal despite ≥3 optimally dosed antihypertensives of different classes (including a diuretic), OR controlled BP requiring ≥4 agents
  • Affects ~10–15% of treated hypertensives
  • Workup: confirm adherence, exclude white coat effect, rule out secondary causes, assess interfering substances (NSAIDs, OCPs, stimulants)

🚨 Classic Trap: Always rule out pseudoresistance (nonadherence, white coat effect, improper cuff technique) BEFORE diagnosing true resistant HTN and ordering an extensive secondary workup.

Second-Line Agents
  • MRAs (spironolactone, eplerenone): preferred 4th agent for resistant HTN — best studied (PATHWAY-2 trial)
  • Beta-blockers: metoprolol succinate, carvedilol, nebivolol
  • Alpha-1 antagonists: doxazosin
  • Central alpha-2 agonists: clonidine — last line, CNS effects, rebound HTN on abrupt withdrawal
  • Direct vasodilators: hydralazine (pair with diuretic + BB), minoxidil (pair with loop diuretic + BB)
  • Loop diuretics: preferred when GFR <30 or symptomatic HF (thiazides lose efficacy)

🚨 Classic Trap: Clonidine withdrawal can precipitate a hypertensive crisis — never stop abruptly. This is a frequently tested pharmacology trap.

Hypertensive Emergency vs Severe HTN Without Organ Damage
DefinitionManagement
Hypertensive Emergency>180/120 WITH acute organ damage (HF, encephalopathy, ICH, AKI, dissection, ACS)ICU + IV agents (nicardipine, labetalol, clevidipine)
Severe HTN, no organ damage>180/120 WITHOUT acute organ damageOral meds, outpatient — NO IV agents needed
  • Target: reduce SBP ~25% in first hour, then <160/100 over 2–6 hrs, then gradual normalization over 24–48 hrs
  • Exception — aortic dissection: SBP <120 within the FIRST hour (most aggressive target)
  • Avoid rapid correction to normal range — risk of watershed ischemia from loss of cerebral autoregulation

🚨 Classic Trap: The distinction between emergency and severe-without-organ-damage is organ damage, NOT the absolute BP number. A BP of 220/130 with no symptoms and no organ damage still gets oral meds as an outpatient — do not reflexively admit and start IV drips based on the number alone. Avoid sublingual nifedipine — unpredictable, precipitous drops.

Pregnancy
  • Preferred: labetalol, extended-release nifedipine
  • Contraindicated: ACEi, ARBs, direct renin inhibitors, atenolol, nitroprusside, MRAs
  • Chronic HTN in pregnancy: treat to <140/90. Severe HTN (≥160/110): lower within 30–60 minutes
  • Low-dose aspirin (81 mg/day) recommended for preeclampsia prevention

🚨 Classic Trap: ACEi/ARBs are absolutely contraindicated in pregnancy (fetotoxic) — this is one of the most frequently tested drug-contraindication pairs on PANCE.

CKD, Elderly & Black Patients
  • CKD: target <130/80. ACEi/ARB preferred (renoprotective, slows proteinuria). Switch thiazide → loop diuretic when GFR <30. Monitor K+ and creatinine after starting ACEi/ARB
  • Elderly (≥65): SPRINT showed benefit of intensive treatment even ≥75 years. Start low, go slow — watch for orthostatic hypotension, falls, AKI. Avoid alpha-blockers as monotherapy
  • Black patients: higher prevalence, earlier onset, more severe HTN. Thiazides/CCBs preferred initial agents — ACEi less effective for BP lowering and stroke prevention in this population
Target Organ Damage — Baseline Workup for New HTN
  • Labs: BMP, CBC, lipid panel, TSH, urinalysis, urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio
  • ECG: assess for LVH (Sokolow-Lyon or Cornell criteria — independent CVD risk factor), arrhythmia
  • Organ systems affected: Heart (LVH, HF, CAD) · Brain (stroke, TIA, vascular dementia) · Kidney (CKD, albuminuria) · Eyes (retinopathy — AV nicking, hemorrhages, papilledema) · Vasculature (PAD, aneurysm)

🩺 PANCE Pearl: Microalbuminuria is the earliest marker of hypertensive nephropathy — order urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio at baseline for every new HTN diagnosis.

Tier 1
Topic HTN-1
Hypertensive Emergency vs Urgency
End-Organ Damage · Drug Selection by Target Organ · Rate of BP Reduction
★★★ PANCE Priority
Core Distinction
Hypertensive EmergencyHypertensive Urgency
Defining featureEnd-organ damage PRESENTNO end-organ damage
BP reduction rateMax 20–25% in first hour. Never normalize acutely.Gradual over 24–48 hours. Oral meds.
SettingHospital admission, IV medicationsOutpatient or ED, oral agents, close follow-up
Drug Selection by Emergency Type
EmergencyPresentationPreferred AgentSpecial Consideration
Hypertensive encephalopathy / PRESAMS, headache, seizure, cortical blindnessNicardipine or Labetalol IVGradual 20–25% reduction in first hour
Ischemic strokeFocal deficits, within tPA windowPermissive HTN — do NOT aggressively lower BPDo NOT lower unless >220/120 (or >185/110 if giving tPA). Penumbra depends on MAP.
Hemorrhagic stroke / ICHFocal deficits, severe headacheNicardipine → target SBP 130–150For presenting SBP 150–220, lower to 130–150. Avoid acute reduction below 130 (AHA/ASA 2022).
Aortic dissectionTearing pain, BP differential, wide mediastinumEsmolol or labetalol IV FIRST → add nitroprusside if needed. Target SBP <120, HR <60.Beta-blocker BEFORE vasodilator. Nitroprusside alone → reflex tachycardia → propagates dissection.
ACS with HTNChest pain, EKG changesNitroglycerin IVTreat ACS protocol simultaneously
Acute pulmonary edemaDyspnea, crackles, hypoxiaNitroglycerin IV (preload/afterload reduction) + loop diureticNitroprusside if severe, refractory
EclampsiaHTN + pregnancy + seizuresMagnesium sulfate (seizure) + Hydralazine or Labetalol IV (BP)ACEi and ARBs are TERATOGENIC — absolutely contraindicated in pregnancy
Hypertensive encephalopathy (SAH)"Worst headache of life" + severe HTNCT head FIRST before treating BPRule out SAH before antihypertensives — wrong drug choice in hemorrhagic vs ischemic causes fatal
⚑ Board Traps — HTN Emergency
  • "Worst headache of my life" + severe HTN = CT head FIRST — rule out SAH before treating BP
  • Ischemic stroke: permissive HTN — do NOT lower unless >220/120 (or >185/110 if tPA candidate)
  • Eclampsia: Magnesium is for seizures, NOT BP — use hydralazine or labetalol for pressure
  • Aortic dissection: beta-blocker BEFORE vasodilator — "Block before you Drop"
  • Lowering BP too fast causes AKI, stroke, MI from hypoperfusion of organs dependent on elevated MAP
  • ACEi/ARBs in pregnancy = absolute contraindication (oligohydramnios, renal agenesis, fetal death)
★ Memory Trick
Aortic Dissection: "Block before you Drop" — BB first, then vasodilator Eclampsia: Mag for the brain, Labetalol/Hydralazine for the BP Ischemic stroke: HANDS OFF unless >220/120. The penumbra needs that pressure. SAH: "Worst headache → CT first, treat second"
Domain 8 · Pericardial Disease
Pericardial Disease
Before you beginPericardial Disease3 questions
Answer these three before you read the domain. Getting them wrong is expected and useful — attempting a question first is what makes the material below stick. Each explanation unlocks only after you submit.
Question 1 of 3 · Medium · Pericarditis · Dressler Syndrome
A 56-year-old man presents 3 weeks after an anterior MI with new pleuritic chest pain, low-grade fever, and a pericardial friction rub. ECG shows diffuse ST elevation. Which is the MOST appropriate anti-inflammatory treatment?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: E — Aspirin 650mg TID + colchicine
This is Dressler syndrome (post-cardiac injury pericarditis, 1–8 weeks post-MI). Use aspirin as the NSAID of choice — NOT ibuprofen or indomethacin, which impair myocardial scar formation after infarction. Colchicine is mandatory to reduce recurrence by 50%. Steroids increase recurrence rate and should be avoided unless NSAIDs/colchicine are truly contraindicated.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Colchicine monotherapy for 3 months — Incorrect. Colchicine is mandatory in this setting and reduces recurrence, so it is a necessary component — but it is not sufficient monotherapy for acute symptom control. It is always paired with an anti-inflammatory.
  • Indomethacin 50mg TID — Incorrect. Indomethacin is effective for ordinary pericarditis but should be avoided after myocardial infarction. NSAIDs other than aspirin impair myocardial healing and scar formation in the post-MI ventricle.
  • Ibuprofen 600mg TID — Incorrect. Ibuprofen is standard for idiopathic pericarditis, which makes this the most tempting distractor. In POST-MI pericarditis it is avoided because it interferes with infarct healing and may increase the risk of wall thinning.
  • Prednisone 40mg daily with a slow taper — Incorrect. Corticosteroids relieve symptoms quickly but are associated with higher recurrence rates and, post-MI, with impaired scar formation. They are reserved for refractory cases or when NSAIDs are contraindicated.
Board pearlPost-MI pericarditis has two forms: peri-infarction pericarditis in the first few days, and Dressler syndrome at 1–8 weeks, which is immune-mediated. In either case use aspirin, not ibuprofen or indomethacin — other NSAIDs impair myocardial scar formation. Colchicine is added to nearly every pericarditis regimen because it roughly halves recurrence; steroids increase it.
Covered below under Topic P-1 — Pericarditis & Cardiac Tamponade
Question 2 of 3 · High Yield · Cardiac Tamponade
A 45-year-old with newly diagnosed lung adenocarcinoma develops progressive dyspnea over 3 days. BP 84/60, HR 128, JVD present, lungs clear. Heart sounds are muffled. Pulsus paradoxus is 18 mmHg. Bedside echo shows a large pericardial effusion with RV diastolic collapse. What is the immediate life-saving intervention?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: A — Emergent pericardiocentesis
This presentation is classic cardiac tamponade: Beck's triad (hypotension, JVD, muffled heart sounds), pulsus paradoxus >10 mmHg, and echocardiographic RV diastolic collapse. Tamponade causes exaggerated ventricular interdependence — during inspiration, increased RV filling compresses the underfilled LV within the fixed pericardial space, causing the abnormal drop in systolic BP. Emergent pericardiocentesis to relieve the pericardial pressure is immediately life-saving.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • IV diuretics to reduce fluid overload — Incorrect — and dangerous. Diuretics would further reduce preload in a patient who is already preload-dependent due to tamponade physiology, worsening hypotension and potentially precipitating cardiovascular collapse.
  • Aggressive IV fluid bolus alone, without pericardiocentesis — Incorrect — as definitive management. While IV fluids can provide temporary hemodynamic support by increasing preload while preparing for pericardiocentesis, fluids alone do not address the underlying mechanical problem and are not a substitute for drainage.
  • Urgent cardiac catheterization to assess coronary anatomy — Incorrect. This patient's presentation is not consistent with acute coronary syndrome — it is tamponade physiology from a malignant pericardial effusion, which requires drainage, not coronary catheterization.
  • High-dose IV corticosteroids to reduce pericardial inflammation — Incorrect. While steroids may have a role in some inflammatory pericardial conditions, they do nothing to relieve the immediate mechanical compression causing hemodynamic compromise — only physical drainage of the effusion addresses the emergency.
Board pearlTamponade is a clinical diagnosis — Beck's triad plus pulsus paradoxus over 10 mmHg — and echo confirms it; it is never the reason to wait. Give volume and drain the pericardium. Avoid diuretics and vasodilators, which drop the filling pressure the patient is depending on. Distinguish from constrictive pericarditis, where Kussmaul sign and a pericardial knock appear instead of pulsus paradoxus.
Covered below under Topic P-1 — Pericarditis & Cardiac Tamponade
Question 3 of 3 · Medium · Myopericarditis vs STEMI
A 19-year-old college student presents with 5 days of chest pain that worsens when lying flat and improves leaning forward. He had an upper respiratory infection 2 weeks ago. Troponin is 3.2 ng/mL. ECG shows diffuse ST elevation with PR depression. How does this presentation differentiate from STEMI?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: E — Diffuse ST elevation with PR depression, positional pain, and a viral prodrome
This is myopericarditis. Key distinguishing features from STEMI: ST elevation is DIFFUSE across multiple non-contiguous leads (rather than localized to a single coronary territory), PR depression is present (pathognomonic for pericardial involvement and not seen in STEMI), the pain is positional (worse lying flat, better sitting forward — a pericardial pain pattern), and there is a recent viral prodrome in a young patient without typical cardiac risk factors. The troponin elevation reflects myocardial inflammation, not ischemic infarction.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • The presence of any troponin elevation always confirms STEMI and mandates emergent catheterization — Incorrect. Troponin elevation occurs in both myopericarditis (from myocardial inflammation) and STEMI (from ischemic necrosis) — troponin elevation alone cannot distinguish between them. The ECG pattern and clinical context are what differentiate the two.
  • Age alone rules out cardiac causes, so no further cardiac workup is needed in a 19-year-old — Incorrect. While young age makes STEMI less likely, troponin elevation and ECG changes still require careful cardiac evaluation — age alone should never be used to dismiss a cardiac workup, only to help weigh probability alongside other features.
  • Localized ST elevation in a single coronary distribution is the hallmark of myopericarditis — Incorrect. — this describes STEMI, not myopericarditis. Myopericarditis classically causes diffuse ST elevation across multiple lead groups that don't correspond to a single coronary artery territory, which is the opposite of this answer.
  • Reciprocal ST depression in aVR is expected and supports the diagnosis of myopericarditis — Incorrect. Myopericarditis characteristically lacks the reciprocal ST changes seen in STEMI — the absence of reciprocal depression (rather than its presence) supports myopericarditis over STEMI.
Board pearlPR-segment depression is the single most specific ECG finding for pericarditis and is essentially never seen in STEMI — the one rare exception is atrial infarction, which can shift the PR segment but is accompanied by a localized ST pattern rather than a diffuse one. Add diffuse ST elevation crossing coronary territories, positional pleuritic pain, and a viral prodrome, and the picture separates cleanly. Troponin elevation means myocardial involvement — myopericarditis — which warrants activity restriction and follow-up echo, but it does not make it an infarct.
Covered below under Topic P-2 — Myocarditis · see also Topic P-1 and Differential D-1
Tier 1
Topic P-1
Pericarditis & Cardiac Tamponade
Acute Pericarditis · Dressler · EKG Stages · Beck's Triad · Pulsus Paradoxus · Pericardiocentesis
★★★ PANCE Priority
Pericarditis — Core Recognition
  • Classic triad: Pleuritic chest pain (better sitting forward, worse lying flat) + pericardial friction rub + diffuse saddle-shaped ST elevation with PR depression on EKG
  • Most common cause: Viral (~85%) — post-URI, young patient
  • EKG stages: 1) Diffuse ST elevation + PR depression → 2) ST normalizes, T flattens → 3) T-wave inversions → 4) EKG normalizes
  • Pericarditis vs STEMI: Pericarditis = diffuse (all leads), saddle-shaped, PR depression. STEMI = focal (contiguous), convex "tombstone," reciprocal changes.
Treatment
  • Viral pericarditis: NSAIDs + Colchicine 0.5mg BID × 3 months (reduces recurrence by 50%) + exercise restriction until asymptomatic + CRP normalized
  • Dressler syndrome (post-MI): Use ASPIRIN — NOT ibuprofen or indomethacin (impair myocardial scar formation)
  • Uremic pericarditis: DIALYSIS is the treatment — not NSAIDs
  • Steroids: AVOID in viral (increases recurrence). Use only if NSAIDs truly contraindicated.
Cardiac Tamponade
  • Beck's triad: Hypotension + JVD + muffled heart sounds
  • Pulsus paradoxus: Drop in SBP >10 mmHg with inspiration — characteristic, though not unique to tamponade (also severe asthma/COPD, massive PE, hypovolemia)
  • EKG: Electrical alternans + sinus tachycardia + low voltage
  • Echo: Diastolic RV collapse (earliest sign), IVC plethora, swinging heart
  • Definitive treatment: Pericardiocentesis
  • Bridge: IV fluids (maintain preload while preparing for drainage)
⚑ Board Traps — Pericarditis & Tamponade
  • Dressler syndrome = aspirin, NOT ibuprofen — NSAIDs impair myocardial scar formation post-MI
  • Steroids in viral pericarditis = contraindicated — increases recurrence rate
  • Colchicine is mandatory — reduces recurrence 50%. Do not omit.
  • NEVER give diuretics in tamponade — preload-dependent. Furosemide causes cardiovascular collapse.
  • Tamponade vs Constrictive Pericarditis: Tamponade = pulsus paradoxus, no Kussmaul sign. Constriction = Kussmaul sign (JVD ↑ with inspiration), no/mild pulsus paradoxus.
  • Positive pressure ventilation in tamponade reduces venous return → can precipitate arrest. Drain before intubate if possible.
Tier 2
Topic P-2
Myocarditis
Viral · Giant Cell · Immune Checkpoint Inhibitor · Distinct from Pericarditis
★★ PANCE Blueprint★ Gap Added
Core Recognition
  • Definition: Inflammation of the myocardium (heart muscle itself — distinct from pericarditis which involves the pericardial sac)
  • Most common cause: Viral (Coxsackievirus B, adenovirus, COVID-19, influenza, HIV)
  • Classic presentation: Young patient, recent viral illness, chest pain + dyspnea + fatigue. May present as new HFrEF. Elevated troponin.
  • New entity: Immune checkpoint inhibitor (ICI) myocarditis: Life-threatening; occurs in patients on pembrolizumab, nivolumab, ipilimumab. High mortality (~25%). Early high-dose steroids critical.
  • Giant cell myocarditis: Rare, aggressive, associated with autoimmune conditions. Often requires heart transplant.
Diagnosis & Treatment
  • Gold standard: Endomyocardial biopsy (rarely needed; reserve for rapidly progressive or unclear etiology)
  • Cardiac MRI: Non-invasive gold standard in practice — shows myocardial edema and late gadolinium enhancement
  • Treatment: Supportive (standard HFrEF GDMT if reduced EF develops). Avoid NSAIDs (worsen myocarditis). Rest. No competitive sports until resolved.
  • ICI myocarditis: Stop ICI immediately + high-dose methylprednisolone (1g IV daily × 3–5 days)
⚑ Board Trap
  • Myocarditis ≠ pericarditis: Myocarditis = myocardium involved → troponin elevation + HF + arrhythmias. Pericarditis = pericardial sac → friction rub + saddle ST elevation, usually NO significant troponin elevation.
  • Cancer patient on immunotherapy + new chest pain + troponin elevation + new reduced EF = ICI myocarditis until proven otherwise. Stop the drug, start steroids.
Domain 9 · Shock States
Shock States
Before you beginShock States3 questions
Answer these three before you read the domain. Getting them wrong is expected and useful — attempting a question first is what makes the material below stick. Each explanation unlocks only after you submit.
Question 1 of 3 · Medium · Anaphylactic Shock Management
A 33-year-old woman with known anaphylaxis to bee stings is stung at a picnic. Within minutes she develops BP 62/40, HR 142, diffuse urticaria, and stridor. She has no epinephrine auto-injector available. What is the first drug, dose, and route of administration?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: C — Epinephrine 1:1000, 0.3mg intramuscularly in the lateral thigh
This is anaphylactic (distributive) shock from massive histamine/IgE-mediated vasodilation. Epinephrine is the only drug that reverses all the pathophysiologic pathways of anaphylaxis simultaneously (vasoconstriction, bronchodilation, reduced mediator release) and must be given FIRST — intramuscularly in the lateral thigh (vastus lateralis), which achieves faster absorption than subcutaneous injection.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • IV methylprednisolone as the first-line agent to prevent biphasic reaction — Incorrect. Corticosteroids have delayed onset (hours) and are given primarily to help prevent biphasic anaphylactic reactions — they have no role as first-line therapy for the acute, immediately life-threatening presentation.
  • Epinephrine 1:1000, 0.3mg given subcutaneously — Incorrect — route. While the dose and concentration are correct, subcutaneous injection has slower and less reliable absorption than intramuscular injection in the setting of anaphylactic shock with poor peripheral perfusion — IM is the correct route, specifically into the lateral thigh.
  • IV diphenhydramine 50mg as the first-line agent — Incorrect. Antihistamines like diphenhydramine are adjunctive therapy only — they address urticaria/itching but do not reverse the life-threatening hypotension and bronchospasm of anaphylaxis. Giving antihistamines before epinephrine is a common and dangerous error.
  • Normal saline bolus alone, reserving epinephrine for refractory cases only — Incorrect. While IV fluids are an important adjunct for anaphylactic shock, epinephrine must be given immediately as first-line therapy — it should never be reserved or delayed for refractory cases, since early administration is what prevents progression to refractory shock in the first place.
Board pearlEpinephrine IM in the lateral thigh is first and immediate in anaphylaxis — 0.3 mg of 1:1000 in an adult, repeatable every 5–15 minutes. It is the only agent that addresses every arm of the reaction at once. Antihistamines and steroids treat the rash and may blunt the late phase; neither is a substitute, and waiting on them is the classic fatal error. Watch for biphasic recurrence for 4–6 hours.
Covered below under Topic SH-1 — Shock, Classification & Management · distributive shock
Question 2 of 3 · High Yield · Sepsis · Vasopressor Selection
A 65-year-old with septic shock is started on dopamine peripherally. Which is the MOST appropriate correction?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: B — Switch to norepinephrine — first-line vasopressor for septic shock
SSC 2021: norepinephrine is first-line vasopressor for septic shock — NOT dopamine. SOAP II trial showed dopamine has higher arrhythmia risk and worse outcomes. Peripheral initiation is acceptable — do not delay for central access. Vasopressin is second-line (add when NE ≥0.25 mcg/kg/min).
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Move to central line first before any vasopressor — Incorrect. Central access is preferable for prolonged infusion, but delaying vasopressor initiation to place a line is harmful in shock. Norepinephrine can be started peripherally through a well-sited large-bore cannula with monitoring for extravasation.
  • Continue dopamine — appropriate first-line vasopressor — Incorrect. Dopamine was once first-line, which is why this persists as a distractor. The SOAP II trial demonstrated significantly more arrhythmias with dopamine and a mortality signal favouring norepinephrine.
  • Add hydrocortisone before vasopressors — Incorrect. Corticosteroids are considered for shock that remains refractory DESPITE adequate fluids and vasopressors. Giving steroids before optimising the vasopressor does not address the immediate hemodynamic problem.
  • Switch to vasopressin — preferred over norepinephrine — Incorrect. Vasopressin is a valid SECOND agent, typically added when norepinephrine requirements climb, and it is norepinephrine-sparing. It is not the preferred first-line agent.
Board pearlNorepinephrine is first-line in septic shock; vasopressin is added as the second agent, and dopamine is out because of arrhythmia risk. Do not delay pressors waiting on central access — peripheral initiation is acceptable while access is obtained. Target a MAP of 65 mmHg. Contrast with cardiogenic shock, where the problem is contractility and an inotrope is needed alongside any vasopressor.
Covered below under Topic SH-1 — Shock, Classification & Management · distributive shock
Question 3 of 3 · High Yield · Emergency · Massive PE
A 48-year-old woman presents with massive pulmonary embolism (BP 78/50, HR 128, SpO₂ 84% on 4L NC). She has no recent surgery, active bleeding, or intracranial history. Which is the MOST appropriate treatment?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: D — Systemic fibrinolytics (alteplase 100mg IV over 2 hours)
Massive PE = hemodynamic instability (SBP <90 or vasopressor requirement) with confirmed PE and no absolute contraindications to fibrinolytics. This is the threshold for systemic alteplase 100mg IV over 2 hours — the hemodynamic compromise means anticoagulation alone is insufficient. IVC filter does not treat the acute hemodynamic crisis. Surgical embolectomy is the alternative if fibrinolytics are contraindicated.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Rivaroxaban PO and monitor — Incorrect. Oral anticoagulation is appropriate for hemodynamically STABLE PE, but this patient is in shock at 78/50. Anticoagulation prevents clot propagation without dissolving existing thrombus, so it cannot reverse the acute RV failure.
  • IV unfractionated heparin infusion alone without thrombolysis — Incorrect. Heparin is given, but alone it is insufficient for massive PE with hemodynamic instability. It halts clot growth while relying on endogenous fibrinolysis, which is far too slow when the patient is already hypotensive.
  • Immediate inferior vena cava filter placement without lysis — Incorrect. An IVC filter prevents FUTURE emboli from reaching the lungs but does nothing about the clot already obstructing the pulmonary circulation. Filters are reserved for patients who cannot be anticoagulated.
  • Enoxaparin subcutaneously with admission to a monitored floor bed — Incorrect. Both the therapy and the disposition are wrong. Subcutaneous LMWH is inadequate for massive PE, and a patient at 78/50 on 84% saturation needs ICU-level care, not a medical floor.
Board pearlMassive (high-risk) PE is defined hemodynamically — SBP under 90 or a pressor requirement — and that is the threshold for systemic thrombolysis, not anticoagulation alone. Submassive PE (normotensive with RV strain or troponin elevation) is anticoagulated and watched closely. An IVC filter prevents new emboli and treats nothing acutely; embolectomy is for when lytics are contraindicated or fail.
Covered below under Topic SH-1 — Shock, Classification & Management · obstructive shock; see also Topic VAS-2
Tier 1
Topic SH-1
Shock — Classification, Hemodynamic Profiles & Management
Cardiogenic · Distributive · Obstructive · Hypovolemic · CVP/PCWP/CO/SVR Patterns · Vasopressor Selection
★★★ PANCE Priority★ Gap Added
Definition

Shock = circulatory failure with inadequate tissue oxygen delivery and utilization → cellular hypoxia and organ dysfunction. Hypotension is common but NOT required — shock can occur with a "normal" blood pressure, especially in patients with baseline hypertension.

The Four Categories of Shock
TypeMechanismClassic CausesClinical PictureFirst-Line Treatment
Hypovolemic↓ intravascular volume → ↓ preload → ↓ COHemorrhage, dehydration, burns, third-spacingCool, clammy skin; flat neck veins; tachycardiaVolume resuscitation (crystalloid; blood products for hemorrhage); source control
CardiogenicPrimary pump failure → ↓ CO despite adequate preloadAcute MI (most common), decompensated HF, myocarditis, valvular catastrophe, arrhythmia"Cold and wet" — cold extremities + pulmonary congestion; ↑ JVP; S3 gallopInotropes (dobutamine), vasopressors (norepinephrine), revascularization for MI, mechanical circulatory support (IABP, Impella, ECMO)
DistributivePathologic vasodilation → ↓ SVR → relative hypovolemiaSepsis (#1 in ICU), anaphylaxis, neurogenic, adrenal crisis"Warm and wet" — warm/flushed skin (early), ↑ HR, wide pulse pressureNorepinephrine (first-line for septic shock) + treat underlying cause. Epinephrine for anaphylaxis.
ObstructiveMechanical obstruction to flow → ↓ COTension pneumothorax, cardiac tamponade, massive PEJVD, tracheal deviation (tension), pulsus paradoxus (tamponade), Beck's triadRelieve the obstruction: needle decompression, pericardiocentesis, thrombolysis/embolectomy
Hemodynamic Profile Summary — The Boards Table
ParameterHypovolemicCardiogenicDistributive (Sepsis)Obstructive
CVP / RAP↓ or normal
PCWP↑ (>18)↓ or normalVariable
CO / CI↓ (CI ≤2.2)↑ (usually)
SVR↓↓
SvO₂↑ (early)
Three Bedside Windows for Tissue Hypoperfusion
  • Neurologic: Altered mental status, confusion, agitation
  • Cutaneous: Mottling, cool/clammy extremities, prolonged capillary refill (>2 seconds)
  • Renal: Oliguria (urine output <0.5 mL/kg/hr)
⚑ Board Traps — Shock
  • Cardiogenic shock: PCWP >18 + CI ≤2.2 + high SVR — "cold and wet." This hemodynamic profile distinguishes it from distributive shock (which has low SVR and high CO).
  • Septic shock can have LOW CO with low SVR ("mixed shock") — sepsis causes myocardial depression. High CO early, low CO late or in severe sepsis.
  • Normal BP does NOT rule out shock — oliguria + altered mental status + elevated lactate = shock despite BP 110/70 in a patient with baseline SBP 160.
  • Norepinephrine is first-line vasopressor for septic shock — NOT dopamine (higher arrhythmia risk per SOAP II trial)
  • Cardiogenic shock: avoid aggressive fluids — PCWP is already elevated. Inotropes + vasopressors + mechanical support, NOT volume loading.
  • Tamponade = obstructive shock — IV fluids as a bridge, then drain (pericardiocentesis)
  • RV MI = preload-dependent cardiogenic shock (SVR is high, not low) — give fluids, avoid nitrates, diuretics and morphine
★ Memory Trick
Shock types: "Hypo = empty tank. Cardio = broken pump. Distributive = open valves. Obstructive = blocked pipe." Cardiogenic: "Cold and Wet — low CO + high PCWP. CI ≤2.2 = the threshold." Distributive (sepsis): "High CO, low SVR — vasodilation = warm early, cold late" Hemodynamic profiles: "↓ CVP + ↓ PCWP = empty (hypovolemic). ↑ CVP + ↑ PCWP = backed up (cardiogenic)." "Normal BP ≠ no shock — check lactate, urine output, mental status."
Domain 10 · Vascular Disease
Vascular Disease
Before you beginVascular Disease3 questions
Answer these three before you read the domain. Getting them wrong is expected and useful — attempting a question first is what makes the material below stick. Each explanation unlocks only after you submit.
Question 1 of 3 · Medium · Pulmonary Embolism Risk Stratification
A 38-year-old woman on oral contraceptives presents with 3 days of pleuritic chest pain and dyspnea. HR 112, SpO₂ 92%, BP 118/74. Wells score is 6. ECG shows sinus tachycardia. What should guide the decision to begin anticoagulation before confirmatory CT imaging is obtained?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: B — A Wells score >4 (high probability) supports starting anticoagulation empirically while awaiting CT pulmonary angiography
The Wells score is a validated pretest probability tool, and a score >4 indicates high clinical probability of PE. In high-probability patients without an absolute contraindication to anticoagulation, empiric treatment should begin immediately rather than waiting for imaging confirmation, since the risk of clinical deterioration from delayed treatment outweighs the small risk of unnecessary anticoagulation if imaging is ultimately negative.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Anticoagulation should never be started until CT pulmonary angiography confirms the diagnosis — Incorrect. This approach unnecessarily delays treatment in high-probability patients and increases risk of clinical deterioration or embolic progression — current guidelines support empiric treatment in high pretest probability scenarios pending confirmatory imaging.
  • A D-dimer test should be obtained first regardless of Wells score, since it is more accurate than clinical scoring — Incorrect. D-dimer testing is most useful in LOW probability patients to help rule out PE (high negative predictive value) — in high-probability patients (Wells >4), D-dimer adds little value since a negative result would not reliably exclude PE, and pursuing it would only delay appropriate treatment.
  • Unfractionated heparin with a loading bolus must always be used as a parenteral bridge before starting a DOAC — Incorrect. Direct oral anticoagulants (e.g., rivaroxaban, apixaban) are first-line for most hemodynamically stable PE patients and do NOT require a parenteral bridge — heparin bridging is reserved for specific situations, not as a default requirement.
  • Thrombolytics should be given immediately given her elevated heart rate — Incorrect. Thrombolytics are reserved for massive PE with hemodynamic instability (hypotension) — this patient is hemodynamically stable (BP 118/74), so standard anticoagulation, not thrombolysis, is appropriate.
Board pearlA high pretest probability justifies empiric anticoagulation before imaging — the risk of a few hours of untreated PE exceeds the risk of a dose of heparin later shown unnecessary. D-dimer belongs only to low-probability patients, where a negative result rules PE out; ordering it in a high-probability patient cannot exclude anything and only delays care. Estrogen-containing contraceptives are a standing provoking factor.
Covered below under Topic VAS-2 — DVT & Pulmonary Embolism
Question 2 of 3 · High Yield · Aortic Dissection Management
A 62-year-old hypertensive man has sudden tearing chest pain radiating to his back. BP right arm 178/96, left arm 142/84. CXR shows widened mediastinum. What should be done in the first 5 minutes regarding blood pressure and heart rate management?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: E — Give IV esmolol first to control heart rate (<60), then add IV nicardipine to achieve SBP <120
This presentation (tearing pain, blood pressure differential between arms, widened mediastinum) is classic for aortic dissection. The critical anti-impulse therapy sequence is heart rate FIRST, then blood pressure — beta-blockade (esmolol) must be started before or with vasodilators because lowering blood pressure alone (e.g., with nicardipine first) triggers reflex tachycardia, which increases aortic wall shear stress (dP/dt) and can propagate the dissection. Target is SBP <120 AND HR <60.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Target a more permissive blood pressure of SBP <160 to avoid hypoperfusion of distal organs and the spinal cord — Incorrect. The target in acute aortic dissection is a tighter SBP <120 AND HR <60 — this aggressive target is specifically chosen to minimize aortic wall shear stress and reduce the risk of dissection propagation or rupture, not the more permissive target used in other hypertensive conditions.
  • Administer thrombolytics to address the suspected vascular occlusion — Incorrect — and potentially catastrophic. Thrombolytics are absolutely contraindicated in aortic dissection — they would dramatically worsen bleeding into the dissected aortic wall and could be fatal.
  • Give IV nicardipine alone first to rapidly lower blood pressure to target — Incorrect — and potentially dangerous. Vasodilators given without prior or simultaneous beta-blockade cause reflex tachycardia, which increases the rate of pressure rise in the aorta (dP/dt) and can worsen or propagate the dissection — heart rate control must come first or concurrently.
  • Obtain an exercise stress test to evaluate for concurrent coronary disease before treating — Incorrect — and dangerous. Exercise stress testing is entirely inappropriate and dangerous in suspected acute aortic dissection — this is a surgical/medical emergency requiring immediate confirmatory imaging (CT angiography) and BP/HR control, not provocative testing.
Board pearlAnti-impulse therapy goes rate first, then pressure. A vasodilator given alone triggers reflex tachycardia, raising dP/dt and extending the dissection — so esmolol precedes nicardipine. Targets are HR under 60 and SBP under 120. Type A (ascending) is surgical; type B (descending) is medical unless it is complicated. Arm-to-arm BP differential and a widened mediastinum are the bedside clues.
Covered below under Topic VAS-1 — Aortic Dissection
Question 3 of 3 · High Yield · Peripheral Artery Disease and ABI
A 68-year-old smoker complains of bilateral calf cramping after walking 2 blocks that resolves with rest. His ABI is 0.62 in the right leg and 0.71 in the left. What is the most appropriate first-line medical intervention?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: C — Supervised exercise (walking) program, plus antiplatelet therapy and a statin
This is peripheral artery disease presenting as intermittent claudication, with ABI values of 0.41–0.90 confirming mild-moderate PAD severity (normal ABI is 1.00–1.40; critical limb ischemia is ≤0.40). First-line management for claudication is a supervised exercise program, which has strong evidence for improving walking distance and symptoms, combined with antiplatelet therapy (aspirin or clopidogrel) and statin therapy for cardiovascular risk reduction. This conservative approach should be tried before considering revascularization.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Immediate referral for surgical revascularization given bilateral symptoms — Incorrect — as the first step. Revascularization is reserved for patients who fail conservative therapy (supervised exercise + medical management) or who have critical limb ischemia (rest pain, tissue loss) — it is not the first-line approach for stable intermittent claudication.
  • Anticoagulation with warfarin to prevent thrombotic progression — Incorrect. PAD management centers on antiplatelet therapy (not anticoagulation) along with risk factor modification — warfarin is not standard first-line therapy for atherosclerotic PAD.
  • Compression stockings to improve venous and arterial blood flow — Incorrect. Compression stockings are used for venous insufficiency, not arterial disease — in fact, compression can be harmful in significant PAD by further compromising arterial perfusion to already ischemic tissue.
  • Cilostazol alone, without exercise therapy or antiplatelet agents — Incorrect. While cilostazol can be added for symptomatic relief in claudication, it is not used in isolation — the foundation of first-line therapy remains supervised exercise plus antiplatelet and statin therapy, with cilostazol as an adjunct in selected patients.
Board pearlRead the ABI numerically: 1.00–1.40 normal, 0.91–0.99 borderline, 0.41–0.90 claudication, at or below 0.40 critical limb ischemia. An ABI above 1.40 is non-compressible calcified vessels — common in diabetes and CKD — and is uninterpretable, so use toe-brachial index instead. Claudication is treated with supervised exercise, an antiplatelet, and a statin first; cilostazol is added for refractory symptoms, and revascularization is reserved for lifestyle-limiting disease or rest pain.
Covered below under Topic VAS-3 — Peripheral Artery Disease (PAD) & AAA
Tier 1
Topic VAS-1
Aortic Dissection
Type A vs B · Stanford Classification · Surgical vs Medical
★★★ PANCE Priority
Aortic Dissection — Classic Triad
Classic Triad — Memorize
  • Sudden onset tearing/ripping pain — maximum at onset, radiates to back
  • BP differential between arms (>20 mmHg)
  • Wide mediastinum on CXR (>8 cm on PA view)
Stanford Classification
Type AType B
InvolvesAscending aorta (± descending)Descending aorta only
TreatmentEmergent surgery — 1–2% mortality per hour without RxMedical management: BB → add nitroprusside if needed
GoalOR immediatelyHR <60, SBP <120
ComplicationsAR, tamponade, stroke, MIRenal failure, bowel ischemia, TEVAR if complicated
⚑ Board Traps — Aortic Dissection
  • Dissection can mimic STEMI — inferior STEMI if dissection involves RCA. Give thrombolytics/heparin to aortic dissection = fatal hemorrhage.
  • Dissection can mimic stroke — carotid involvement causes focal deficits. No tPA without ruling out dissection.
  • NEVER give nitroprusside alone — reflex tachycardia increases shear force (dP/dt), propagates dissection
  • "Block before you Drop" — beta-blocker first, then vasodilator
  • Gold standard imaging: CT angiography chest/abdomen/pelvis — fastest. TEE also excellent but slower.
Tier 1
Topic VAS-2
DVT & Pulmonary Embolism
Wells Criteria · CT-PA · PESI Score · Anticoagulation · Massive PE
★★★ PANCE Priority★ Gap Added
Core Recognition
  • DVT classic: Unilateral leg swelling, pain, warmth, erythema. Homans sign unreliable. Wells DVT score for pretest probability.
  • PE classic: Dyspnea, pleuritic chest pain, tachycardia, hypoxia. Massive PE: hypotension + hypoxia + RV strain.
  • EKG findings in PE: Sinus tachycardia (most common). S1Q3T3 pattern (classic but insensitive). New RBBB. T-wave inversions V1–V4 (RV strain).
  • Diagnostic approach: Wells score + D-dimer (low probability + negative D-dimer = rule out PE without imaging). If moderate/high probability → CT pulmonary angiography (gold standard).
Treatment by Severity
SeverityDefinitionTreatment
Low-risk PEPESI Class I–II, hemodynamically stable, no RV strainDOACs (rivaroxaban or apixaban — no parenteral bridge needed). Consider outpatient treatment if PESI low risk.
Submassive PEHemodynamically stable + RV dysfunction or biomarker elevation (troponin, BNP)Systemic anticoagulation. Consider catheter-directed thrombolysis or systemic fibrinolytics based on bleeding risk.
Massive PEHemodynamic instability (SBP <90 or vasopressor requirement)Systemic fibrinolytics (alteplase 100mg IV over 2h) if no absolute contraindications. Surgical embolectomy or catheter intervention if lytics contraindicated.
⚑ Board Traps — DVT/PE
  • Massive PE = obstructive shock — give IV fluids cautiously (RV is already stressed). Vasopressors (norepinephrine) for hypotension.
  • DOACs for first-line PE anticoagulation — rivaroxaban and apixaban do NOT require initial parenteral anticoagulation. Dabigatran and edoxaban require 5–10 days of LMWH first.
  • D-dimer is a rule-OUT test, not a rule-IN test — elevated D-dimer in many conditions (cancer, surgery, pregnancy, infection). Only useful in low pre-test probability.
  • Cancer-associated VTE: LMWH or rivaroxaban/apixaban preferred over warfarin
  • Provoked vs unprovoked PE matters for duration: Provoked (reversible risk factor) = 3 months anticoagulation. Unprovoked = indefinite (with regular reassessment).
Tier 2
Topic VAS-3
Peripheral Artery Disease (PAD) & AAA
ABI · Claudication · Critical Limb Ischemia · AAA Screening
★★ PANCE Blueprint★ Gap Added
PAD
  • Classic: Claudication (exertional calf pain, relieved by rest), cool extremity, diminished pulses
  • ABI (Ankle-Brachial Index): Normal ≥0.9. Borderline 0.7–0.9. Mild PAD 0.5–0.69. Severe <0.5. >1.4 = non-compressible (calcified vessels, seen in DM).
  • Critical limb ischemia: Rest pain, non-healing ulcers, gangrene — vascular surgery emergency
  • Treatment: Supervised exercise (first-line for claudication), antiplatelet (aspirin or clopidogrel), statin + BP control. Cilostazol for claudication (PDE3 inhibitor — CONTRAINDICATED in HF).
AAA — Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm
  • USPSTF Screening: One-time abdominal ultrasound in men aged 65–75 who have ever smoked (≥100 cigarettes lifetime)
  • Normal aorta: <3 cm. AAA defined as ≥3 cm dilation.
  • Elective repair threshold: ≥5.5 cm in men, ≥5.0–5.5 cm in women (or >0.5 cm/6 months growth)
  • Ruptured AAA presentation: Triad of abrupt severe abdominal/back pain + pulsatile abdominal mass + hypotension. Immediate surgical emergency — do not wait for CT.
⚑ Board Trap
  • Cilostazol CONTRAINDICATED in heart failure (any degree) — PDE3 inhibitor, increases cAMP → proarrhythmic, positive inotrope effects in failing heart
  • Ruptured AAA = do not delay surgery for CT if patient is hemodynamically unstable
Blueprint Gap Topics · Added 2025
Lipid Disorders · Congenital Heart Disease · Restrictive & Stress CMP · SSS & PVCs · Orthostatic Hypotension
Topics present on the 2025 NCCPA PANCE Blueprint not covered in prior modules — now fully integrated
Before you beginDyslipidemia & Atherosclerotic Risk3 in-session · 2 homework
Core Topic 6 — Dyslipidemia & Atherosclerotic Risk. Attempt the three in-session questions before the domain is taught — they run in the room, in this order: recognition, then management, then the trap. The two homework questions are for tonight, after the teaching. Getting them wrong first is expected and useful; each explanation unlocks only after you submit.
In-sessionQ1 of 3 · Primary Prevention · Intermediate Risk
A 55-year-old man with no history of cardiovascular disease has an LDL of 145 mg/dL and a 10-year ASCVD risk of 12%. What is the best next step?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: A — Initiate moderate-intensity statin therapy
For adults aged 40–75 with an LDL of 70 mg/dL or higher and an intermediate 10-year ASCVD risk (7.5% to under 20%), start a moderate-intensity statin after a clinician-patient risk discussion, aiming for a 30–49% LDL reduction. If the decision feels genuinely uncertain, a coronary artery calcium score can break the tie.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Initiate high-intensity statin therapy from the outset — Incorrect. High-intensity is for high risk (20% or above), clinical ASCVD, or LDL of 190 mg/dL or higher. It becomes reasonable at intermediate risk when risk enhancers are present, but it is not the baseline answer.
  • Start ezetimibe — Incorrect. Add-on therapy for patients who do not reach goal on a maximally tolerated statin, or who cannot tolerate statins — not initial monotherapy.
  • Lifestyle modifications only, with reassessment in 6 months — Incorrect. Lifestyle change is mandatory for everyone, but it is not sufficient by itself at intermediate risk with this LDL.
  • Initiate moderate-intensity statin plus ezetimibe — Incorrect. Combination therapy is for patients who miss their percent-reduction target on a maximally tolerated statin, not for initiation. Start the statin, then reassess the lipid panel in 4–12 weeks.
Board pearlLearn the risk bands cold: under 5% low, 5–7.4% borderline, 7.5–19.9% intermediate, 20% or above high. Risk enhancers that push toward treatment: family history of premature ASCVD, LDL 160 or above, metabolic syndrome, CKD, chronic inflammatory disease, preeclampsia or early menopause, and South Asian ancestry.
Covered below under Topic C-4 — Lipid Disorders & Dyslipidemia
In-sessionQ2 of 3 · Severe Hypercholesterolemia
A 45-year-old man has an LDL of 210 mg/dL. He has no history of ASCVD. What is the best initial treatment?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: C — Start high-intensity statin therapy
An LDL of 190 mg/dL or higher is severe primary hypercholesterolemia and is a statin indication in its own right — start a high-intensity statin without calculating a 10-year risk score, because lifetime exposure to an LDL this high makes the risk high regardless of what a 10-year equation returns. Aim for a 50% or greater reduction, and add ezetimibe if LDL stays at or above 100.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Lifestyle modifications for 6 months first — Incorrect. Lifestyle change is part of treatment but delaying pharmacotherapy at this LDL is not defensible.
  • Calculate the 10-year ASCVD risk before deciding — Incorrect. Risk calculation is for the intermediate zone, where the decision is genuinely uncertain. At an LDL of 190 or above the decision is already made, and a reassuring 10-year number would be misleading.
  • Start fibrate therapy — Incorrect. Fibrates target triglycerides, not LDL, and are not first-line here. Their role is severe hypertriglyceridemia (500 mg/dL or above) for pancreatitis prevention.
  • Start a PCSK9 inhibitor — Incorrect. PCSK9 inhibitors sit at the top of the escalation ladder, after a maximally tolerated statin and ezetimibe have failed to reach target. They are not initial therapy, even at this LDL.
Board pearlThree groups get a statin with no risk calculator needed: clinical ASCVD, LDL 190 or above, and diabetes at ages 40–75. An LDL of 190 or more should also prompt you to think familial hypercholesterolemia — screen first-degree relatives, and look for tendon xanthomas and premature family events.
Covered below under Topic C-4 — Lipid Disorders & Dyslipidemia
In-sessionQ3 of 3 · Secondary Prevention · Statin Intensity
A 50-year-old woman had an MI 6 months ago. Her current LDL is 85 mg/dL on a moderate-intensity statin. What is the best next step?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: D — Increase to a high-intensity statin
Established clinical ASCVD calls for high-intensity statin therapy (atorvastatin 40–80 mg or rosuvastatin 20–40 mg) targeting an LDL reduction of 50% or more. A moderate-intensity statin is undertreatment in secondary prevention, and an LDL of 85 does not exempt her — escalate the statin first, before adding anything on.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Continue the current regimen since her LDL is already below 100 — Incorrect. The metric in ASCVD is percent reduction on a maximally tolerated statin, not a single comfortable-looking number. An LDL threshold of 70 is the trigger for adding therapy, not permission to stay on a submaximal dose.
  • Switch to ezetimibe monotherapy — Incorrect. Ezetimibe lowers LDL by roughly 15–20% and is clearly inferior to a high-intensity statin for secondary prevention.
  • Add a PCSK9 inhibitor — Incorrect. Reserved for very high-risk ASCVD whose LDL remains at 70 mg/dL or above on a maximally tolerated statin plus ezetimibe. She has not yet had a maximal statin.
  • Add ezetimibe without changing the statin dose — Incorrect — wrong rung, wrong order. Ezetimibe is added once the statin is already maximally tolerated and the LDL still sits at or above 70. She is on a moderate dose, so the statin is escalated first.
Board pearlThe escalation ladder in ASCVD is strictly ordered: maximally tolerated statin → add ezetimibe if LDL stays at or above 70 → then a PCSK9 inhibitor. Do not skip a rung, and note that muscle aches alone are not a reason to abandon statins — check a CK, rechallenge, or try a different statin.
Covered below under Topic C-4 — Lipid Disorders & Dyslipidemia
Homework — after the session
HomeworkQ1 of 2 · Diabetes · Statin Intensity
A 52-year-old woman with diabetes and an LDL of 95 mg/dL has no history of ASCVD. What statin intensity is recommended?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: E — Moderate-intensity statin
Adults aged 40–75 with diabetes and an LDL of 70 mg/dL or higher should receive at least a moderate-intensity statin, regardless of the calculated 10-year risk. Diabetes is a standalone indication. High-intensity becomes reasonable when there are multiple ASCVD risk factors or diabetes-specific enhancers — long duration, albuminuria, retinopathy, neuropathy, or reduced eGFR.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • No statin needed — LDL is below 100 — Incorrect. The trigger in diabetes is the diagnosis plus an LDL of 70 or higher, not crossing 100.
  • Low-intensity statin — Incorrect. Low-intensity dosing (under 30% LDL reduction) is inadequate for diabetes-associated risk and is reserved for patients who cannot tolerate more.
  • High-intensity statin — Incorrect as the baseline answer. Reasonable with additional risk factors, but moderate-intensity is the minimum standard for uncomplicated diabetes in this age range.
  • Moderate-intensity statin plus ezetimibe — Incorrect. Combination therapy is not the starting point in primary prevention. Begin the moderate-intensity statin, then check the percent LDL reduction in 4–12 weeks and escalate if she falls short.
Board pearlDo not run the risk calculator for a 40–75-year-old with diabetes — the statin is already indicated. Then ask the follow-up question the exam likes: do diabetes-specific enhancers push this patient to high-intensity?
Covered below under Topic C-4 — Lipid Disorders & Dyslipidemia
HomeworkQ2 of 2 · Monitoring · Lipid Panel Timing
After initiating statin therapy, when should a follow-up lipid panel be obtained to assess response?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: B — 4–12 weeks
Recheck a lipid panel 4 to 12 weeks after starting a statin or changing the dose. That window is long enough for the full LDL-lowering effect to appear and short enough to catch nonadherence or inadequate response early. Once the patient is stable and at goal, repeat every 3–12 months.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • 1 week — Incorrect. Too early — the maximal LDL reduction has not yet developed, so the value will understate the response.
  • 6 months — Incorrect. Too long for the first assessment. Half a year of undertreatment or unrecognized nonadherence is avoidable.
  • 1 year — Incorrect. Delays identification of nonresponders and nonadherent patients well past the point of usefulness.
  • 3 to 6 months — Incorrect — that is the maintenance interval, not the first check. Once a patient is stable and at target, every 3 to 12 months is appropriate. The initial response assessment happens earlier.
Board pearl4–12 weeks after starting or adjusting, then every 3–12 months when stable. Judge the result as percent LDL reduction: high-intensity should deliver 50% or more, moderate-intensity 30–49%. Routine liver enzyme and CK monitoring is not recommended in asymptomatic patients — check them when symptoms appear.
Covered below under Topic C-4 — Lipid Disorders & Dyslipidemia
Tier 1
Topic C-4
Lipid Disorders & Dyslipidemia
ACC/AHA Risk Calculator · Statin Tiers · LDL Targets · Ezetimibe · PCSK9 Inhibitors · Hypertriglyceridemia
★★★ PANCE Priority★ Gap Added
Why It Matters for Boards

Lipid questions are almost never "what is the LDL." They test which intensity of statin this specific patient needs, and what you add when a statin alone is not enough. Learn the four benefit groups and the intensity table and most lipid vignettes answer themselves.

Screening & Risk Assessment
  • Screening: Fasting or non-fasting lipid panel. USPSTF supports assessment in adults 40–75. Repeat every 4–6 years if normal and low risk.
  • 10-year ASCVD risk (Pooled Cohort Equations, ages 40–79): <5% low · 5–7.4% borderline · 7.5–19.9% intermediate · ≥20% high
  • Risk enhancers that push a borderline/intermediate patient toward treatment: family history of premature ASCVD, LDL ≥160, metabolic syndrome, CKD, chronic inflammatory disease, preeclampsia or early menopause, South Asian ancestry, Lp(a) elevation.
  • Coronary artery calcium (CAC) score — the tiebreaker for intermediate risk when the decision is genuinely uncertain. CAC 0 → may defer statin. CAC 1–99 → favor statin, especially age ≥55. CAC ≥100 or ≥75th percentile → start a statin.
The Four Statin Benefit Groups — Memorize These
GroupWhoStatin Intensity
1 — Clinical ASCVDPrior MI, ACS, stable angina, revascularization, stroke/TIA, PADHIGH intensity (age ≤75)
2 — Severe hypercholesterolemiaLDL ≥190 mg/dL at any age — no risk calculator neededHIGH intensity
3 — Diabetes, age 40–75Any diabetic in this age band regardless of LDLMODERATE minimum; high if multiple risk factors or 10-yr risk ≥20%
4 — Primary prevention, age 40–75LDL 70–189 with 10-year ASCVD risk ≥7.5% after risk discussionMODERATE (high if risk ≥20%)

🩺 PANCE Pearl: Groups 1 and 2 need no calculator at all. If the stem says prior MI or LDL ≥190, the answer is high-intensity statin — stop calculating.

Statin Intensity — The Table Boards Test
IntensityExpected LDL ReductionAgents & Doses
High≥50%Atorvastatin 40–80 mg · Rosuvastatin 20–40 mg
Moderate30–49%Atorvastatin 10–20 · Rosuvastatin 5–10 · Simvastatin 20–40 · Pravastatin 40–80 · Lovastatin 40 · Pitavastatin 1–4
Low<30%Simvastatin 10 · Pravastatin 10–20 · Lovastatin 20 · Fluvastatin 20–40
When a Statin Is Not Enough — Add-On Sequence
AgentMechanismAdditional LDL DropWhen to Use
EzetimibeBlocks intestinal cholesterol absorption (NPC1L1)13–20%First add-on. Oral, cheap, well tolerated (IMPROVE-IT).
PCSK9 inhibitorMonoclonal antibody — evolocumab, alirocumab50–60%Very high-risk ASCVD still above target on statin + ezetimibe (FOURIER, ODYSSEY). Subcutaneous q2wk or monthly.
InclisiransiRNA silencing PCSK9 production~50%Alternative to PCSK9 mAb — dosed twice yearly after loading.
Bempedoic acidACL inhibitor, activated only in liver15–25%Statin-intolerant patients. Raises uric acid; tendon rupture risk.
  • Secondary prevention threshold: in patients with clinical ASCVD on maximally tolerated statin, an LDL that remains ≥70 mg/dL is the trigger to add ezetimibe, then a PCSK9 inhibitor. For very high-risk ASCVD the same logic applies more aggressively.
  • Bile acid sequestrants (cholestyramine, colesevelam) still exist but raise triglycerides and are rarely the board answer.
Hypertriglyceridemia — A Separate Problem
Triglyceride LevelSignificanceManagement
150–499 mg/dLModerate — ASCVD risk markerLifestyle, treat secondary causes (alcohol, uncontrolled DM, hypothyroidism, thiazides, estrogen). Statin for ASCVD risk.
500–999 mg/dLSevereFibrate (fenofibrate preferred) or icosapent ethyl. Address secondary causes.
≥1000 mg/dLPancreatitis riskUrgent triglyceride lowering — fibrate, very low fat diet, insulin infusion if diabetic. Plasmapheresis in severe cases.
  • Icosapent ethyl (purified EPA, 4 g/day) reduced cardiovascular events in patients with ASCVD or diabetes and triglycerides 135–499 on a statin (REDUCE-IT). Note this is not ordinary fish oil.
  • Gemfibrozil + statin = highest rhabdomyolysis risk. If a fibrate must be combined with a statin, use fenofibrate.
Familial Hypercholesterolemia
  • Recognition: LDL ≥190 in an adult (or ≥160 in a child), tendon xanthomas, xanthelasma, corneal arcus before age 45, and a family history of premature coronary disease.
  • Genetics: Most commonly autosomal dominant LDL-receptor mutation. Heterozygous ≈1 in 250; homozygous is rare and causes coronary disease in childhood.
  • Management: High-intensity statin plus ezetimibe, usually plus a PCSK9 inhibitor. Cascade screening of first-degree relatives is required.
Monitoring & Statin Adverse Effects
  • Follow-up lipid panel 4–12 weeks after starting or changing therapy, then every 3–12 months. The goal is confirming the expected percent reduction and adherence.
  • Do NOT check LFTs or CK routinely. Obtain a baseline ALT; check CK only if the patient develops muscle symptoms and LFTs only if hepatotoxicity is suspected.
  • Statin-associated muscle symptoms: myalgia is common and usually tolerable; true myopathy with CK elevation is uncommon; rhabdomyolysis is rare. Management is to stop, allow washout, then rechallenge with a lower dose or a different statin.
  • Interactions: simvastatin and lovastatin are the most CYP3A4-dependent — hazardous with azoles, macrolides, protease inhibitors, and grapefruit. Pravastatin, rosuvastatin and pitavastatin are the safest choices in polypharmacy.
  • Statins modestly increase new-onset diabetes; the cardiovascular benefit still outweighs it and is not a reason to stop.
⚑ Board Traps — Lipids
  • Statins are contraindicated in pregnancy — stop before conception. Bile acid sequestrants are the traditional option if treatment is essential.
  • LDL ≥190 needs no risk calculator — that alone is high-intensity statin territory (benefit group 2).
  • Do not order routine surveillance LFTs or CK on asymptomatic statin patients — a classic distractor.
  • Niacin is no longer recommended for cardiovascular risk reduction (AIM-HIGH, HPS2-THRIVE showed no benefit and added harm).
  • Gemfibrozil plus a statin carries the highest rhabdomyolysis risk — fenofibrate is the safer fibrate.
  • Ezetimibe before PCSK9 — the sequence matters. PCSK9 inhibitors come after statin plus ezetimibe has failed.
  • Triglycerides ≥1000 = pancreatitis risk, and that becomes the priority over LDL.
  • An intermediate-risk patient who is truly undecided is the one who benefits from a coronary calcium score — not the high-risk or ASCVD patient, who should simply be treated.
★ Memory Trick
The four benefit groups: "ASCVD · 190 · Diabetes · 7.5%" High intensity = "Atorva 40–80, Rosuva 20–40" — the only two that drop LDL ≥50% Add-on order: "Statin → Ezetimibe → PCSK9" (cheap to expensive, oral to injectable) Secondary prevention: "70 is the trigger" — ASCVD with LDL still ≥70 means add on Triglycerides: "500 treat the number, 1000 fear the pancreas" Fibrate safety: "Gemfibrozil grabs muscle — Fenofibrate is the Friendly one" Monitoring: "Check lipids, not livers" — no routine LFT/CK
Tier 2
Topic CHD-1
Congenital Heart Disease
ASD · VSD · PDA · TOF · Coarctation · Acyanotic vs Cyanotic · Eisenmenger Syndrome
★★ PANCE Blueprint★ Gap Added
Why It Matters for Boards

Congenital questions are pattern recognition on the murmur plus one physical finding. The exam rarely asks you to manage these lesions — it asks you to name them. Sort every stem first into acyanotic (left-to-right) versus cyanotic (right-to-left), then match the murmur.

The Fundamental Split
  • Acyanotic — left-to-right shunt: ASD, VSD, PDA. Blood recirculates through the lungs, so the child is pink but volume-overloaded. Presents with a murmur, failure to thrive, or heart failure symptoms — not cyanosis.
  • Cyanotic — right-to-left shunt: Tetralogy of Fallot, transposition, tricuspid atresia, truncus arteriosus, total anomalous pulmonary venous return. Deoxygenated blood bypasses the lungs, so the child is blue and does not improve with oxygen.
  • Obstructive without shunt: coarctation of the aorta, congenital aortic or pulmonic stenosis.
Acyanotic Lesions — Murmur First
LesionMurmurSignature FindingBoard Key
Atrial Septal Defect (ASD)Soft systolic flow murmur at the pulmonic areaFixed, wide split S2 — does not vary with respirationFixed split S2 = ASD. Ostium secundum is the most common type. Risk of paradoxical embolism and later atrial arrhythmia.
Ventricular Septal Defect (VSD)Harsh holosystolic murmur at the left lower sternal border, often with a thrillMost common congenital heart defect overallA LOUDER murmur means a SMALLER defect (more turbulence). Small VSDs often close spontaneously; large ones cause heart failure at 4–8 weeks as pulmonary resistance falls.
Patent Ductus Arteriosus (PDA)Continuous "machine-like" murmur, best at the left infraclavicular areaBounding pulses, wide pulse pressureIndomethacin closes it, prostaglandin E1 keeps it open. Associated with prematurity and congenital rubella.
Coarctation of the AortaSystolic murmur, often interscapularUpper extremity hypertension with weak femoral pulses and radiofemoral delayRib notching and the "3 sign" on chest x-ray. Associated with bicuspid aortic valve and Turner syndrome.
Cyanotic Lesions
LesionAnatomyImaging / ExamBoard Key
Tetralogy of FallotPulmonic stenosis · RVH · Overriding aorta · VSDBoot-shaped heart on chest x-rayMost common cyanotic lesion beyond infancy. Tet spells — sudden cyanosis relieved by squatting or the knee-chest position, which raises systemic resistance and reduces the right-to-left shunt.
Transposition of the Great ArteriesAorta arises from the RV, pulmonary artery from the LV — parallel circulations"Egg on a string" cardiac silhouetteMost common cyanotic lesion presenting in the first days of life. Survival depends on mixing — prostaglandin E1 to keep the ductus open, then arterial switch.
Tricuspid AtresiaAbsent tricuspid valve; requires ASD and VSD to surviveLeft axis deviation with small RVCyanosis from birth; needs surgical palliation.
Truncus ArteriosusSingle arterial trunk from both ventriclesSingle loud S2Cyanosis plus early heart failure from pulmonary overcirculation.
Total Anomalous Pulmonary Venous ReturnPulmonary veins drain to the right side"Snowman" silhouetteObstructed form is a neonatal emergency with severe cyanosis.

🩺 PANCE Pearl: Cyanosis that does not improve with supplemental oxygen means a fixed right-to-left shunt. Cyanosis that does improve points to a pulmonary cause instead.

Eisenmenger Syndrome — The Endpoint You Must Recognize
  • Sequence: long-standing uncorrected left-to-right shunt → chronic pulmonary overcirculation → irreversible pulmonary vascular remodeling → pulmonary pressure exceeds systemic → the shunt reverses to right-to-left → cyanosis, clubbing, polycythemia.
  • Once established it is irreversible, and shunt closure becomes contraindicated — closing the defect removes the pressure release valve and precipitates right heart failure.
  • Definitive treatment is lung or combined heart-lung transplantation. This is why timely repair of a large shunt matters.
Ductal-Dependent Lesions & Syndrome Associations
  • Prostaglandin E1 keeps the ductus open and is life-saving in any lesion where systemic or pulmonary flow depends on it — transposition, critical coarctation, pulmonary atresia, hypoplastic left heart. Indomethacin closes it.
  • Down syndrome → endocardial cushion defects: ASD, VSD, and complete atrioventricular canal defect.
  • Turner syndrome → coarctation of the aorta and bicuspid aortic valve.
  • DiGeorge (22q11) → conotruncal defects: truncus arteriosus, tetralogy, interrupted aortic arch.
  • Marfan → aortic root dilation, aortic regurgitation, mitral valve prolapse.
  • Congenital rubella → PDA. Maternal diabetes → transposition and septal hypertrophy. Maternal lithium → Ebstein anomaly.
⚑ Board Traps — Congenital Heart Disease
  • Fixed split S2 = ASD. A split that widens normally with inspiration is physiologic, not an ASD.
  • A louder VSD murmur means a smaller defect — counterintuitive, and tested for exactly that reason. A large VSD may be nearly silent.
  • Continuous machine-like murmur = PDA. Continuous means through systole and diastole, which almost no other lesion produces.
  • Upper extremity hypertension with weak femoral pulses = coarctation — check all four extremities before calling it essential hypertension in a young patient.
  • Squatting relieves a tet spell by increasing systemic vascular resistance. Standing or crying makes it worse.
  • Once Eisenmenger physiology is established, do NOT close the shunt — this is the trap in the older unrepaired patient.
  • Indomethacin closes, prostaglandin opens. Reversing these two is the single most common medication error on this topic.
  • Cyanosis that fails to correct with oxygen is cardiac, not pulmonary.
★ Memory Trick
Tetralogy — "PROVe": Pulmonary stenosis · RVH · Overriding aorta · VSD "Fixed and split, think ASD" — the split that never moves "Machine in the chest = PDA" — continuous, not systolic "IN-domethacin IN-closes the duct; ProstaglandIN Props it open" Coarctation: "High up top, low down below" — arm hypertension, weak femorals Tet spell: "Squat to stop the spell" Eisenmenger: "Once it reverses, don't repair" Turner → coarctation · Down → cushion defects · DiGeorge → conotruncal
Ventricular Septal Defect — Full Detail (Most Common Congenital Defect)
  • Epidemiology: the most common congenital heart defect in childhood; in adults second only to bicuspid aortic valve. Incidence roughly 5–50 per 1,000 live births.
  • Anatomic types: perimembranous (~75%), muscular, inlet/AV-canal type, outlet/conal. Clinically grouped as muscular vs nonmuscular, because natural history diverges sharply between the two.
  • Acquired VSD: post-MI septal rupture (typically 3–5 days after infarct) and chest trauma. A new harsh holosystolic murmur with shock several days after an MI is septal rupture, not a congenital defect.
TypeNatural HistoryAdded Risks
MuscularMost often shrink or close spontaneouslyLow. Rare endocarditis risk only.
Nonmuscular (perimembranous, inlet, outlet)May be partially occluded by aneurysmal tricuspid septal leaflet tissue, but rarely closes fullyDouble-chambered right ventricle, aortic valve prolapse and aortic regurgitation, subaortic membrane, arrhythmia, left heart dilation, endocarditis
VSD — Presentation and Exam
  • Small defect: asymptomatic with a loud murmur. Smaller defect = louder murmur — intensity tracks the pressure gradient, not the shunt volume.
  • Moderate or large defect: pulmonary overcirculation — tachypnea, tachycardia, diaphoresis with feeds, poor feeding, hepatomegaly, failure to thrive. Onset typically at 4–8 weeks as pulmonary vascular resistance falls.
  • Murmur: harsh holosystolic at the left lower sternal border ± palpable thrill; increases with handgrip (raised afterload increases the left-to-right shunt).
  • Large shunts: apical mid-diastolic mitral flow rumble, loud P2, hyperdynamic precordium.
VSD — Diagnostics and Management
  • TTE with color Doppler defines location, size, shunt direction and magnitude, chamber sizes, and estimated PA pressure.
  • ECG/CXR: LA and LV enlargement with large shunts. RVH suggests pulmonary hypertension — a warning sign, not a normal finding.
  • Cardiac catheterization to measure pulmonary vascular resistance before closure in selected patients, particularly with late presentation.
  • Small muscular VSD: reassurance; follow every 3–5 years until the murmur resolves, then discharge. Repeat TTE adds no value absent clinical change. Counsel on the rare endocarditis risk.
  • All nonmuscular VSDs need ongoing cardiology follow-up unless spontaneous closure occurs; small defects without left heart dilation followed every 1–2 years with TTE.
  • Moderate/large VSD in infancy: infants <3 months seen every 2–4 weeks. Medical therapy for pulmonary overcirculation — diuretics, afterload reduction, calorie-dense or NG feeds. Pulmonary artery banding as palliation when complete repair is not feasible in a young infant.
VSD — Indications for Closure
  • Symptoms or left heart dilation that fail to improve with medical therapy.
  • Large defects should be closed in infancy regardless of symptoms — to prevent irreversible pulmonary vascular disease.
  • Children >6 months with persistent or progressive LV dilation or symptoms.
  • Outlet/perimembranous defects with aortic valve prolapse or progressive aortic regurgitation — consider closure even if the shunt is small.
  • Modality: surgical patch closure is standard; transcatheter device closure is an option for selected muscular and perimembranous defects.
  • Eisenmenger physiology is a contraindication to closure.
⚑ Board Traps — VSD and Shunt Physiology
  • Assuming a loud murmur means a big dangerous defect — the relationship is inverse. A small restrictive VSD keeps a large gradient and screams; a large defect equalizes pressures and goes quiet.
  • Reading a softening murmur and resolving heart failure as improvement — with a persistently loud P2, this is rising pulmonary vascular resistance and a closing surgical window, not recovery.
  • Closing the defect in an established Eisenmenger patientcontraindicated. The right-to-left shunt has become the decompression pathway.
  • Ordering serial echoes on a small muscular VSD — no added value without a clinical change.
  • Dismissing a small outlet/perimembranous defect — aortic valve prolapse and progressive AR justify closure regardless of shunt size.
  • Waiting for symptoms in a large defect — close it in infancy to protect the pulmonary vasculature.
★ Memory Trick
"Small hole, big noise" — murmur loudness tracks the GRADIENT, not the shunt size. Muscular VSDs close themselves. Nonmuscular ones need a cardiologist for life. The deceptive improvement: murmur softens + heart failure resolves + P2 STAYS LOUD = rising PVR, closing window. "Once it reverses, don't repair" — Eisenmenger is a contraindication to closure. Post-MI day 3–5 + new harsh LLSB murmur + shock = acquired septal rupture.
Tier 2
Topic CM-3
Restrictive Cardiomyopathy & Infiltrative Disease
Cardiac Amyloidosis · Hemochromatosis · Sarcoid CMP · Loeffler · Restriction vs Constriction
★★ PANCE Blueprint★ Gap Added
Why It Matters for Boards

Restrictive cardiomyopathy is the heart failure patient whose ventricle is neither dilated nor obviously hypertrophied but cannot fill. The exam tests two discriminations: identifying the infiltrating disease from one signature clue, and separating restriction from constrictive pericarditis — because constriction is surgically curable and restriction is not.

Takotsubo (stress cardiomyopathy) is covered in Topic CM-2 — Dilated & Other Cardiomyopathies alongside the other non-ischemic cardiomyopathies; it is not repeated here.

Restrictive Physiology — What Defines It
  • Stiff, non-compliant ventricle with normal or reduced cavity size and a preserved ejection fraction. The problem is filling, not squeezing.
  • Echo shows marked biatrial enlargement with normal-sized ventricles — the atria dilate because they are pushing against a wall.
  • Elevated filling pressures on both sides produce the mixed picture: right-sided congestion dominates — elevated JVP, hepatomegaly, ascites, peripheral edema — often out of proportion to pulmonary findings.
  • These patients are preload-dependent. Aggressive diuresis or vasodilation drops cardiac output sharply.
  • Prominent S4, and diastolic dysfunction with a restrictive filling pattern on Doppler.
The Infiltrative Causes — One Clue Each
CauseSignature ClueDiagnosisManagement
Cardiac AmyloidosisLOW-voltage EKG despite THICK walls on echo — the voltage/wall-thickness mismatch. Also apical sparing on strain imaging.Serum/urine light chains and immunofixation for AL type; technetium pyrophosphate (PYP) scan for transthyretin type; biopsy if neededAL type: treat the plasma cell disorder. ATTR: tafamidis. Avoid digoxin — it binds amyloid fibrils and causes toxicity at normal levels.
Hereditary Hemochromatosis"Bronze diabetes" — skin pigmentation, diabetes, cirrhosis, arthropathy, with restrictive or later dilated cardiomyopathyElevated transferrin saturation and ferritin; HFE gene testing (C282Y)Phlebotomy — cardiac dysfunction is reversible if treated early. Chelation if anemic.
Cardiac SarcoidosisYoung or middle-aged adult with unexplained AV block or ventricular arrhythmia — conduction disease out of proportion to ageCardiac MRI with patchy late gadolinium enhancement; FDG-PET; extracardiac sarcoid supports itCorticosteroids plus immunosuppression. ICD for high-grade block or ventricular arrhythmia. Pacing for AV block.
Loeffler EndocarditisHypereosinophilia with endomyocardial fibrosis and apical thrombusPeripheral eosinophil count; echo showing apical obliterationCorticosteroids; anticoagulation for thrombus; treat the underlying eosinophilic disorder.
Radiation & post-transplantPrior mediastinal radiation — often with concurrent valve disease and pericardial involvementHistory plus imagingSupportive; consider concomitant constrictive pericarditis.

🩺 PANCE Pearl: Low voltage with thick walls is the single most reliable amyloid clue. In LVH from hypertension the voltage is high — amyloid does the opposite of what the wall thickness predicts.

Restrictive Cardiomyopathy vs Constrictive Pericarditis
FeatureRestrictive CardiomyopathyConstrictive Pericarditis
Problem lies inThe myocardium itselfThe pericardium surrounding it
Kussmaul signUsually absentPresent — JVP rises with inspiration
Pericardial calcificationAbsentOften present on CXR or CT
Wall thicknessIncreased (infiltrated myocardium)Normal myocardium, thickened pericardium
Atrial sizeMarked biatrial enlargementLess prominent
Septal bounce / respirophasic shiftAbsentPresent on echo
BNPMarkedly elevatedLower than expected for the degree of congestion
TreatmentTreat the underlying infiltrative disease; poor prognosisPericardiectomy — potentially CURATIVE
⚑ Board Traps — Restrictive & Infiltrative Disease
  • Low-voltage EKG with thick ventricular walls = amyloidosis, not hypertensive LVH. This mismatch is the whole question.
  • Avoid digoxin in cardiac amyloidosis — it binds amyloid fibrils and produces toxicity at apparently therapeutic levels.
  • Unexplained high-grade AV block in a young adult should raise cardiac sarcoidosis — do not simply implant a pacemaker without investigating why.
  • Restriction is preload-dependent. Aggressive diuresis, nitrates or other vasodilators can precipitate hypotension and low output.
  • Constriction is curable, restriction is not — distinguishing them changes the entire management pathway, so look for Kussmaul sign, pericardial calcification and a septal bounce.
  • Hemochromatosis cardiomyopathy can reverse with phlebotomy if caught early — one of the few reversible cardiomyopathies, alongside alcohol and Takotsubo.
  • Preserved ejection fraction does not mean a normal heart — restrictive disease presents with an EF that looks reassuring.
★ Memory Trick
Amyloid: "Thick walls, thin voltage" — the mismatch is the diagnosis Amyloid drug rule: "Amyloid Absorbs digoxin" — avoid it Hemochromatosis: "Bronze skin, sweet blood, stiff heart" — and phlebotomy reverses it Sarcoid: "Young heart, old conduction" — block or VT before its time Restriction vs constriction: "Kussmaul and Calcium mean the Casing" (pericardium) "Constriction you can Cut out. Restriction you cannot." Restrictive physiology: "Small stiff room, huge waiting hall" — normal ventricles, giant atria
Tier 2
Topic SYN-1
Orthostatic Hypotension & Vasovagal Syncope
Orthostatic Vitals · Neurogenic vs Volume Depletion · POTS · Tilt-Table · Counter-Pressure & Midodrine
★★ PANCE Blueprint★ Gap Added
Why It Matters for Boards

The exam asks you to separate benign reflex syncope from dangerous cardiac syncope, and to identify the mechanism behind orthostatic symptoms using the heart rate response alone. For the broader syncope differential see Differential D-2 — Syncope; this card covers the orthostatic and reflex mechanisms in depth.

Definitions & How to Measure
  • Orthostatic hypotension: a fall in systolic BP of ≥20 mmHg or in diastolic BP of ≥10 mmHg within 3 minutes of standing (or head-up tilt).
  • Technique matters: measure supine after 5 minutes of rest, then at 1 and 3 minutes of standing. Record the heart rate with every reading — the HR response is the diagnostic information.
  • Delayed orthostatic hypotension occurs beyond 3 minutes and is an early marker of autonomic failure.
  • Supine hypertension with orthostatic hypotension in the same patient is characteristic of autonomic failure and makes treatment genuinely difficult.
The Heart Rate Tells You the Mechanism
MechanismHR Response to StandingCluesManagement
Volume depletionAppropriate compensatory TACHYCARDIABleeding, vomiting, diarrhea, diuretics, poor intake. Dry mucous membranes.Volume repletion and treat the cause.
Neurogenic (autonomic failure)BLUNTED or ABSENT rise — the key discriminatorParkinson disease, multiple system atrophy, pure autonomic failure, diabetic or amyloid autonomic neuropathy. Often anhidrosis, constipation, erectile dysfunction, urinary retention.Non-pharmacologic measures first, then midodrine, fludrocortisone or droxidopa.
Medication-inducedVariableAlpha-1 blockers (tamsulosin, doxazosin), diuretics, nitrates, TCAs, antipsychotics, dopamine agonists, alcohol. Highest risk soon after initiation or dose increase.Review and deprescribe first — this is the most common reversible cause in older adults.
POTSHR rise ≥30 bpm (≥40 in adolescents) or to >120 bpm within 10 minutes — WITHOUT orthostatic hypotensionYoung patients, often female; palpitations, lightheadedness, fatigue, exercise intolerance. Frequently post-viral.Increase salt and fluid, compression garments, graded recumbent-to-upright exercise; beta-blocker or ivabradine if needed.

🩺 PANCE Pearl: The presence or absence of compensatory tachycardia is the single most useful piece of data. A large BP drop with no heart rate response means the autonomic reflex itself has failed.

Vasovagal (Neurally Mediated) Syncope
  • Mechanism: a triggered reflex producing vasodilation and/or bradycardia — the opposite of the appropriate response to standing.
  • Triggers: prolonged standing, heat, crowded rooms, pain, venipuncture or the sight of blood, emotional distress, coughing, micturition, defecation, swallowing.
  • Prodrome is the diagnostic feature: nausea, warmth, diaphoresis, pallor, tunnel or greying vision, and lightheadedness building over seconds to minutes.
  • Recovery is rapid and complete once supine. Brief myoclonic jerks can occur and are frequently mistaken for a seizure, but there is no true post-ictal confusion, no tongue biting and no prolonged disorientation.
  • Carotid sinus hypersensitivity is a related reflex syncope in older adults, triggered by head turning, shaving or a tight collar.
Red Flags That Make Syncope Cardiac, Not Reflex
  • Syncope during exertion — think aortic stenosis, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, anomalous coronary, or exercise-induced arrhythmia. Exertional syncope is never assumed vasovagal.
  • No prodrome — abrupt collapse without warning suggests an arrhythmia.
  • Syncope while supine, or preceded by palpitations or chest pain.
  • Family history of sudden cardiac death, or known structural heart disease or prior MI.
  • An abnormal ECG — any conduction abnormality, pre-excitation, prolonged QT, Brugada pattern, or evidence of prior infarction.
  • Any of these warrants a cardiac evaluation — echocardiography, ambulatory or prolonged rhythm monitoring, and ischemic assessment as indicated.
Management — Non-Pharmacologic First
  • Education and trigger avoidance, plus recognizing the prodrome early enough to lie down.
  • Counter-pressure maneuvers at the first symptom: leg crossing with tensing, handgrip, arm tensing. Simple, effective, and a favourite exam answer.
  • Liberalize salt and fluid (roughly 2–3 L daily and increased sodium unless heart failure, CKD or hypertension prohibits it). A rapid bolus of water can abort symptoms.
  • Waist-high compression stockings and abdominal binders; rise slowly and in stages; elevate the head of the bed for supine hypertension.
  • Deprescribe the offending antihypertensive, alpha-blocker or diuretic before adding a new drug.
  • Pharmacologic options: midodrine (alpha-1 agonist — avoid within 4–5 hours of bedtime because of supine hypertension), fludrocortisone (volume expansion — monitor potassium and edema), droxidopa for neurogenic orthostatic hypotension, and pyridostigmine as an alternative.
  • Tilt-table testing is not first line. Reserve it for cases that remain unclear after history, physical examination, orthostatic vitals and an ECG. Pacing has only a narrow role in recurrent syncope with documented profound cardioinhibitory bradycardia.
⚑ Board Traps — Orthostatic & Reflex Syncope
  • Absence of compensatory tachycardia = neurogenic autonomic failure, not simple dehydration. Fluids alone will not fix it.
  • POTS is tachycardia WITHOUT hypotension. If the blood pressure drops it is orthostatic hypotension, not POTS.
  • Review the medication list before ordering any test — alpha-1 blockers such as tamsulosin are a classic culprit in an older man who falls after a dose increase.
  • Tilt-table testing is not the first step and is a common distractor. History, orthostatic vitals and an ECG come first.
  • Exertional syncope is never vasovagal — it demands evaluation for aortic stenosis, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy and arrhythmia.
  • Myoclonic jerks during syncope do not make it a seizure. The discriminators are prodrome, rapid full recovery, and the absence of post-ictal confusion or tongue biting.
  • Midodrine at bedtime causes supine hypertension — dose it during waking hours only.
  • Do not diagnose orthostatic hypotension without recording the heart rate alongside each blood pressure — without it the mechanism is unknowable.
★ Memory Trick
"20 over 10 in 3" — SBP ≥20 or DBP ≥10 within 3 minutes The mechanism is in the pulse: "Fast = dry. Flat = failed nerves." POTS: "Pulse Only, Tension Stays" — HR climbs, BP holds Vasovagal: "Warm, woozy, wet, then wake up fast" — prodrome then quick recovery Cardiac red flags: "Exertion, no warning, family history" — none of these are vasovagal Treatment order: "Salt, socks, squeeze — then midodrine" Midodrine: "Mid-day, not midnight" — supine hypertension at bedtime Tilt table is the last resort, not the first test
Module D · Must-Know Differentials
High-Yield Differentials & Distinguishing Features
The following differentials represent the highest-frequency diagnostic challenges on the PANCE/PANRE. For each, the exam tests your ability to identify the single distinguishing feature that separates one diagnosis from another — not just whether you know the diagnoses exist.
Tier 1
Differential D-1
Acute Chest Pain — 8-Diagnosis Framework
ACS · Dissection · PE · Pericarditis · Tamponade · Pneumothorax · Boerhaave · GERD
★★★ PANCE PriorityMost-Tested Differential
The Pivotal Distinguishing Features
DiagnosisPain QualityKey Distinguishing FeatureMust-Not-Miss Sign
STEMI / ACSPressure, squeezing, heaviness — jaw/left arm radiationST elevation in contiguous leads, dynamic troponin rise/fall, exertional onset or rest (NSTEMI)Diabetics and women may have NO chest pain — jaw pain, dyspnea, nausea alone
Aortic DissectionTearing/ripping — maximum intensity at onset, radiates to interscapular backBP differential between arms (>20 mmHg), widened mediastinum on CXRCan mimic STEMI (RCA involvement) — NEVER give heparin/lytics before ruling out dissection
Pulmonary EmbolismPleuritic (sharp, worse with breathing), sudden onsetRisk factors (Virchow's triad), hypoxia, sinus tachycardia on EKG, Wells score >4Massive PE = hemodynamic instability — systemic fibrinolytics are life-saving, not optional
Acute PericarditisPleuritic + positional — BETTER sitting forward, WORSE lying flatFriction rub, diffuse saddle ST elevation + PR depression — ALL leads affected (not focal)PR depression is the most specific EKG sign — don't miss it
Cardiac TamponadeDyspnea-dominant > chest pain; positional dyspneaBeck's triad (JVD + hypotension + muffled sounds), electrical alternans, pulsus paradoxus >10 mmHgFurosemide is absolutely contraindicated — removes critical preload. IV fluids + pericardiocentesis.
Tension PneumothoraxSudden pleuritic chest pain + dyspnea, post-trauma or proceduralAbsent breath sounds, tracheal deviation AWAY from affected side, hypotension, JVDNeedle decompression FIRST — do NOT wait for CXR
Boerhaave SyndromeSevere chest/epigastric pain after forceful vomitingSubcutaneous emphysema, Hamman's crunch (mediastinal crepitus), CXR: pleural effusion, mediastinal airSurgical emergency — if missed, mediastinitis has >50% mortality
GERD / Esophageal SpasmBurning, epigastric, postprandial; spasm can mimic ACS perfectlyRelieves with antacids or nitrates (spasm); normal troponin, normal EKG, no diaphoresisEKG and troponin are negative — NEVER diagnose GERD without ruling out ACS first in correct clinical context
Diagnostic Pivot Points — The 60-Second Assessment
  • Tearing quality + BP differential + widened mediastinum → dissection until proven otherwise. Stop all antithrombotic therapy.
  • Pleuritic quality + positional relief + diffuse EKG changes → pericarditis. Not a focal STEMI.
  • JVD + hypotension + clear lungs + muffled sounds → obstructive shock. Tamponade vs tension PTX vs massive PE.
  • Forceful vomiting + chest pain → rule out Boerhaave before attributing to Mallory-Weiss or GERD.
  • Normal EKG + normal troponin + pleuritic pain + risk factors → get CT-PA for PE before discharge.
⚑ Board Traps — Chest Pain Differential
  • Aortic dissection + inferior ST elevation = RCA involvement from dissection flap — NOT a primary STEMI. Heparin or cath lab activation here is fatal.
  • Esophageal spasm relieves with nitrates — do NOT use this as proof it's cardiac. NTG also relieves esophageal spasm.
  • The "typical" ACS presentation is atypical in diabetics, women, and elderly. Jaw pain + diaphoresis without chest pressure = NSTEMI until troponin confirms otherwise.
  • Pericarditis EKG is diffuse — if you see focal ST elevation with reciprocal changes, that's STEMI not pericarditis.
  • PE can present with pleuritic chest pain AND hemoptysis — do not anchor on pneumonia without ruling out PE in high-risk patients.
Tier 1
Differential D-2
Syncope — Cardiac vs Neurally Mediated vs Orthostatic
Vasovagal · Arrhythmic · Structural · Orthostatic · Seizure Mimicker
★★★ PANCE PrioritySeizure vs Syncope Trap
Classification & Distinguishing Features
TypeTrigger/SettingKey FeatureWorkup
Vasovagal (Neurocardiogenic)Prolonged standing, emotional stress, heat, pain, blood drawProdrome: nausea, diaphoresis, lightheadedness before LOC. Rapid full recovery.Tilt-table test if recurrent. No workup needed for classic first episode.
Arrhythmic (Cardiac)Without warning — no prodrome. Exertion or rest.Sudden LOC without prodrome. Palpitations may precede. EKG: QT prolongation, Brugada, heart block, WPW.EKG immediately. Holter/event monitor. Echo. Electrophysiology study if unexplained.
Structural CardiacExertional syncope — hallmark of outflow obstructionHCM: young athlete, exertional, LLSB murmur louder with Valsalva. AS: elderly, exertional, classic triad (SAD).Exertional syncope = emergent echo. Do NOT stress test before echo in HCM.
Orthostatic HypotensionStanding up from seated/lying positionSBP drop ≥20 or DBP drop ≥10 mmHg within 3 min of standing. Dehydration, medications (alpha-blockers, diuretics), autonomic neuropathy (DM, Parkinson's).Orthostatic vitals, medication review, hydration status.
SituationalMicturition, defecation, cough, swallowingVagal-mediated variant. Reproduces consistently with specific trigger.Clinical diagnosis if classic. No further workup if truly situational.
Seizure (Mimicker)No positional trigger; any timeTongue biting (lateral), prolonged postictal confusion, tonic-clonic activity, incontinence, head turn.EEG, neurology consult. EKG to rule out arrhythmic cause.
The Board Rule on Exertional Syncope
⚑ Cannot Miss
  • Exertional syncope = structural cardiac cause until proven otherwise. HCM (young), AS (elderly), anomalous coronary artery, arrhythmia (CPVT, LQTS, Brugada). Always echo first.
  • ABCD2 score does NOT apply to syncope — that score is for TIA. Syncope and TIA are distinct. True syncope has no focal neurologic deficit.
  • Vasovagal: prodrome is key. No prodrome in a high-risk patient (structural disease, arrhythmia substrate) = cardiac workup regardless of clinical appearance.
  • Lateral tongue biting = seizure (not syncope). Anterior tongue biting can occur in either.
★ Memory Trick
Syncope differential: "3 Cs — Cardiac (structural), Conduction (arrhythmia), Circulatory (vasovagal/orthostatic)" Exertional = Structural (HCM young, AS old). No prodrome = Arrhythmia. Seizure clues: "BITE (Bite tongue, Incontinence, Tonic-clonic, Epileptic postictal)"
Tier 1
Differential D-3
Acute Dyspnea — Cardiac vs Pulmonary vs Other
HF · PE · COPD · Pneumonia · Tamponade · Anemia · Metabolic
★★★ PANCE Priority
The BNP Pivot

BNP <100 pg/mL effectively rules out acute HF as the primary cause of dyspnea (NPV ~96%). BNP >400 pg/mL strongly suggests HF. BNP 100–400 is a gray zone — clinical context determines interpretation. Importantly, BNP is elevated in PE, renal failure, and sepsis — it is not specific to HF.

Distinguishing Cardiac from Pulmonary Dyspnea
FeatureCardiac HFCOPD/AsthmaPEPneumonia
Orthopnea/PNDPresent — highly specific for HFAbsent (may have nocturnal symptoms)AbsentAbsent
JVDPresent (volume overload)May be present if cor pulmonalePresent (RV strain)Absent
S3 gallopPresent in HFrEF (volume overload)AbsentAbsentAbsent
WheezeMay have "cardiac asthma"Classic featureUsually absentMay have focal
FeverAbsent (unless ADHF from infection)May be present (infectious exacerbation)Low-grade if infarctionPresent
BNPElevated (>400)Normal (unless cor pulmonale)Moderately elevatedNormal
CXRCardiomegaly, Kerley B lines, vascular congestion, bilateral effusionsHyperinflation, flat diaphragmMay be normal; Hampton's hump, Westermark signFocal consolidation
⚑ Board Traps — Dyspnea
  • Orthopnea and PND are highly specific for HF — ask about these in every patient with dyspnea. "How many pillows do you sleep on?" is not small talk.
  • Cardiac asthma: HF can cause wheezing from bronchospasm due to pulmonary edema. Treat the HF, not just the wheeze. BNP distinguishes.
  • PE can have a normal CXR — normal CXR + dyspnea + hypoxia + tachycardia = PE until ruled out.
  • Pulsus paradoxus >10 mmHg in a dyspneic patient = tamponade or severe asthma. Get echo immediately.
Tier 1
Differential D-4
Systolic Murmur Differential — Dynamic Maneuvers
HCM vs AS vs MR vs MVP · Valsalva · Squatting · Handgrip · Inspiration
★★★ Most Tested Maneuver TableHCM vs AS Trap
The One Table You Must Know Cold
ManeuverEffect on Preload/AfterloadHCMASMRMVP (click timing)
Valsalva (strain phase)↓ preloadLOUDERSofterSofterClick moves EARLIER, murmur lengthens
Standing↓ preloadLOUDERSofterSofterClick moves EARLIER, murmur lengthens
Squatting↑ preload + ↑ afterloadSOFTERLouderLouderClick moves LATER, murmur shortens
Passive leg raise↑ preloadSOFTERLouderLouderClick moves LATER
Handgrip isometric↑ afterloadSofterSofterLOUDER (↑ regurgitant fraction)Variable
Inspiration↑ right-sided venous returnMinimal changeMinimal changeMinimal changeMinimal change
The Core Principle Behind the Table
  • HCM is an outflow obstruction — a smaller LV cavity worsens the obstruction → louder murmur. Anything that decreases preload shrinks the LV → murmur gets louder.
  • AS is a fixed obstruction — the murmur loudness reflects flow across the valve. More flow (more preload) = louder murmur.
  • MVP: The click occurs when the valve prolapses. A smaller LV (less preload) causes prolapse earlier in systole → click moves earlier and murmur lengthens toward holosystolic.
  • Inspiration increases right-sided murmurs only (TR, PS) — Carvallo sign. Does NOT significantly affect left-sided murmurs.
⚑ The Single Most-Tested Murmur Distinction
  • HCM vs AS distinction: Both are crescendo-decrescendo systolic murmurs. HCM is at LLSB and does NOT radiate to carotids. AS is at RUSB and radiates to carotids. HCM louder with Valsalva; AS softer. Young athlete + LLSB + Valsalva louder = HCM. Elderly + RUSB + carotid radiation + Valsalva softer = AS.
  • All diastolic murmurs are pathologic — never dismiss. Order echo.
  • MVP click/murmur moves EARLIER with Valsalva — the single most confusing MVP concept. Think "smaller ventricle = earlier prolapse = earlier click."
Tier 1
Differential D-5
Wide Complex Tachycardia — VT vs SVT with Aberrancy
VT Until Proven Otherwise · Causes & Distinguishing Clues · Drug Contraindications · WPW · Hyperkalemia
★★★ PANCE PriorityLethal Misclassification Trap
The Non-Negotiable Board Rule
⚑ Start Here — Before Any Other Analysis
  • Wide complex tachycardia = VT until proven otherwise. Full stop. Hemodynamic stability does NOT exclude VT. Patients can sustain VT for hours while appearing stable.
  • Prior MI + wide complex = VT. Structural heart disease makes aberrant conduction unlikely and VT overwhelmingly likely.
  • Never give verapamil or diltiazem to wide complex tachycardia — if it's VT, cardiovascular collapse will occur.
🫀 Morphologic VT criteria — AV dissociation, fusion and capture beats, precordial concordance, RS >100 ms, QRS >160 ms and the Vereckei aVR rule are taught in the PA Bootcamp EKG Syllabus, which owns this material so it stays in one place. Open the EKG Syllabus ↗
Causes of Wide Complex Tachycardia — Full Differential
CauseMechanismDistinguishing Clue
Ventricular TachycardiaVentricular origin — depolarization does not use His-Purkinje systemAV dissociation, fusion/capture beats, structural heart disease, post-MI
SVT with aberrant conduction (BBB)SVT conducted with pre-existing or rate-dependent BBBPrior EKG shows same BBB morphology. Concordance absent. Brugada criteria not met.
WPW with pre-excited AFibAF conducted rapidly down accessory pathwayIrregularly irregular + wide complex = WPW+AFib. Do NOT give AV nodal blockers → VF.
Antidromic AVRT (WPW)Antegrade conduction down accessory pathway — retrograde up AV nodeRegular wide complex. Delta wave morphology. WPW known or suspected.
HyperkalemiaDepolarization slowing from high extracellular K⁺Context: renal failure, peaked T waves preceding widening, sinusoidal pattern
Sodium channel blocker toxicityTCA overdose, flecainide, propafenone toxicityHistory of ingestion, prolonged QRS >160ms, sodium bicarbonate reverses
★ Memory Trick
Wide complex = VT default. Override only with strong evidence of SVT aberrancy. "VT fingerprints: AV Dissociation, Fusion beats, Capture beats, Concordance" Age >35 + MI history + wide complex = VT. Period. WPW+AFib: irregular + wide + delta = DO NOT block the AV node
Tier 1
Differential D-6
Undifferentiated Shock — Bedside Differentiation
Cardiogenic vs Distributive vs Obstructive vs Hypovolemic · JVD as the First Divider
★★★ PANCE PriorityFluid Choice Trap
The Two-Step Bedside Framework
  • Step 1 — Check the neck veins (JVD):
    • JVD absent → Hypovolemic or Distributive (empty or vasodilated)
    • JVD present → Cardiogenic or Obstructive (backed up or blocked)
  • Step 2 — Check the lungs:
    • JVD + pulmonary edema (crackles, Kerley B) → Cardiogenic shock (backed up LV)
    • JVD + clear lungs → Obstructive shock (tamponade, tension PTX, massive PE — obstruction before the LV)
The Critical Fluid vs Vasopressor Decision
Shock TypeSkinJVDLungsFluids?Vasopressor?
HypovolemicCool, clammyAbsentClearYes — aggressiveOnly if refractory to fluids
Distributive (Septic)Warm, flushed (early)Absent or lowClear (early)Yes — 30 mL/kg initialNorepinephrine first-line
CardiogenicCool, clammyPRESENTWet (edema)NO — worsens congestionNorepinephrine + inotrope (dobutamine)
Obstructive (Tamponade)CoolPRESENTClearIV fluids as bridgeLimited benefit — drain the obstruction
Obstructive (Tension PTX)CoolPRESENTAbsent sounds ipsilateralMinimizeNeedle decompression immediately
⚑ Board Traps — Shock Differentiation
  • JVD + clear lungs + hypotension = obstructive shock — not cardiogenic. Tamponade, tension PTX, and massive PE all present this way.
  • Giving fluids to cardiogenic shock = worsening pulmonary edema — PCWP already elevated. Inotrope + diuresis is the correct approach.
  • RV MI mimics distributive shock — clear lungs, JVD, hypotension. Treat with fluids (preload-dependent). Do NOT give nitrates or diuretics.
  • Dopamine is NOT first-line in septic shock (SOAP II trial: higher arrhythmia risk). Norepinephrine is standard of care.
  • Normal BP does not rule out shock — tissue hypoperfusion can occur with BP 110/70 in a previously hypertensive patient. Check lactate, urine output, mental status.
Tier 2
Differential D-7
Lower Extremity Edema — Systemic vs Local
HF · Hepatic · Nephrotic · DVT · Lymphedema · Hypothyroid · Drug-Induced
★★ High Yield
Bilateral vs Unilateral — The First Branch Point
  • Bilateral edema → systemic cause: HF, cirrhosis, nephrotic syndrome, hypothyroidism, drugs, bilateral venous insufficiency
  • Unilateral edema → local cause: DVT, lymphatic obstruction, cellulitis, Baker's cyst rupture, compartment syndrome
Distinguishing Systemic Bilateral Edema Causes
CauseKey FeatureConfirming Test
Heart FailureJVD, S3, orthopnea, crackles, elevated BNPEcho (EF), BNP, CXR
Hepatic CirrhosisAscites + peripheral edema, spider angiomata, jaundice, low albuminLFTs, albumin, ultrasound, liver biopsy
Nephrotic SyndromePeriorbital edema (hallmark), proteinuria >3.5g/day, hypoalbuminemia, hyperlipidemia24-hr urine protein, lipid panel, renal biopsy
HypothyroidismNon-pitting myxedema (pretibial), cold intolerance, weight gain, bradycardiaTSH (elevated)
Drug-InducedAmlodipine (CCB) most common — bilateral lower extremity pitting, no JVD, no orthopneaMedication review; resolves with dose reduction
DVT (Unilateral)Unilateral painful swollen warm leg, Homan's sign (unreliable)Venous duplex ultrasound; Wells score + D-dimer
LymphedemaNon-pitting, chronic, progressive, skin changes (skin thickening, fibrosis). Stemmer sign positive.Clinical diagnosis; lymphoscintigraphy if unclear
⚑ Board Traps — Edema
  • Periorbital edema in the morning = nephrotic syndrome (low oncotic pressure). Not HF, which causes dependent edema.
  • Amlodipine edema has no JVD, no orthopnea, no elevated BNP — it's a side effect, not decompensated HF. Do not diurese aggressively.
  • Lymphedema is non-pitting — pitting edema is from fluid; non-pitting is from protein and fibrosis in the interstitium.
  • Homan's sign is unreliable — neither sensitive nor specific for DVT. Do not use it as the primary diagnostic criterion.
Module E · Comprehensive Board Pearls
Board Pearls — Organized by Domain
These pearls represent the precise clinical decision points most frequently tested on the PANCE and PANRE. They are not random facts — they are the exact places where real patients die and where boards separate passing from failing candidates.
Tier 1
Board Pearls — Coronary Artery Disease
ACS, STEMI Equivalents & Post-MI Management
★★★ Highest Yield
  • New LBBB + chest pain = STEMI equivalent. Apply Sgarbossa criteria. Activate the cath lab. Do not dismiss it as "just LBBB."
  • Posterior MI: ST depression + tall R wave in V1–V2 = reciprocal mirror image of posterior STEMI. Apply posterior leads V7–V9. Treat as STEMI.
  • RV MI = Inferior STEMI + hypotension + clear lungs. Get V4R. Give IV fluids. NO nitrates, NO diuretics, NO morphine — all reduce preload and cause cardiovascular collapse.
  • Wellens syndrome: Biphasic/deeply inverted T waves in V2–V3 in a pain-FREE patient = critical proximal LAD stenosis. Stress test is absolutely contraindicated. Send to cath immediately.
  • De Winter T-waves: Upsloping ST depression + tall peaked T waves V1–V6 (no ST elevation) = LAD occlusion equivalent. Treat as anterior STEMI.
  • Door-to-balloon <90 minutes for primary PCI. Thrombolytics if PCI unavailable within 120 minutes of first medical contact.
  • Supplemental O₂ in ACS: only if SpO₂ <90%. Hyperoxia worsens infarct size (DETO2X-AMI trial). Do NOT give oxygen to every ACS patient.
  • Post-MI medication cascade: Aspirin + P2Y12 inhibitor + statin + beta-blocker + ACEi (if EF <40%) + aldosterone antagonist (if EF <40% + HF or DM, if eGFR adequate).
  • Post-MI complications timeline: Free wall rupture = Day 1–3 → VSD = Day 3–5 → Papillary muscle rupture = Day 2–7. Soft murmur despite severe MR in papillary rupture = false reassurance. Echo urgently.
  • DAPT duration: 12 months post-ACS. 6 months post-elective PCI (stable CAD). Can shorten with high bleeding risk on guidance.
  • Aortic dissection can mimic STEMI. Tearing pain + BP differential + widened mediastinum = dissection first. Heparin in this scenario = fatal pericardial hemorrhage.
Tier 1
Board Pearls — Heart Failure
HFrEF GDMT · Drug Selection · Contraindications
★★★ Highest Yield
  • Only 3 beta-blockers proven in HFrEF: Carvedilol, Metoprolol succinate, Bisoprolol. Not atenolol, not metoprolol tartrate, not propranolol. Evidence is drug-specific.
  • 4 pillars of HFrEF GDMT with mortality benefit: ARNI (sacubitril/valsartan) or ACEi/ARB + beta-blocker (one of the 3) + MRA (spironolactone/eplerenone) + SGLT2 inhibitor (dapagliflozin/empagliflozin).
  • SGLT2 inhibitors reduce HF hospitalization and CV death in HFrEF — regardless of diabetes status. This is a new class effect, not just a diabetes medication.
  • ACEi → ARNI transition: 36-hour washout required to prevent angioedema. No washout needed when switching from ARB to ARNI.
  • S3 = volume overload = HFrEF. S4 = stiff ventricle = HFpEF, LVH, diastolic dysfunction. S4 is always pathologic.
  • BNP cutoffs: <100 effectively rules out acute HF. >400 strongly supports HF. BNP is elevated in PE, renal failure, and sepsis — not specific to HF.
  • Non-dihydropyridine CCBs (diltiazem, verapamil) are contraindicated in HFrEF — negative inotropy worsens pump failure and increases mortality. CHECK EF before ordering rate control for AFib.
  • Hydralazine + nitrate combination: Alternative if ACEi/ARB intolerant. Also has specific mortality benefit in self-identified Black patients with HFrEF (A-HeFT trial).
  • BiPAP before intubation in acute decompensated HF — reduces need for mechanical ventilation and improves outcomes.
  • Ivabradine: For HFrEF patients on maximally tolerated beta-blocker with resting HR >70 — reduces HF hospitalization. Not a first-line agent.
Tier 1
Board Pearls — Arrhythmias
AFib · Heart Blocks · VT/VF · WPW · TdP
★★★ Highest YieldLethal Drug Errors
  • WPW + AFib = NEVER give AV nodal blockers (adenosine, digoxin, diltiazem, verapamil, beta-blockers). Forces accessory pathway conduction → uncontrolled rate → VF → cardiac arrest. Procainamide or synchronized cardioversion only.
  • EF check before rate control drug for AFib is the single most tested clinical decision in cardiology. Diltiazem/verapamil in HFrEF = negatively inotropic = decompensation. Use metoprolol in compensated HFrEF; in acutely decompensated HFrEF use digoxin or IV amiodarone.
  • Post-cardioversion OAC 4 weeks is mandatory for ALL patients regardless of CHA₂DS₂-VASc score or AFib duration. Atrial stunning takes up to 1 month to resolve.
  • Antiarrhythmic in structural heart disease / HFrEF: Amiodarone or dofetilide ONLY. Flecainide/propafenone/sotalol/dronedarone are contraindicated (CAST trial mortality increase).
  • Dronedarone contraindicated in permanent AFib (PALLAS: increased mortality/stroke) and decompensated HF (ANDROMEDA: increased mortality).
  • Torsades de Pointes = IV magnesium sulfate 2g. NOT amiodarone (prolongs QT further). NOT procainamide. NOT lidocaine. Magnesium regardless of serum Mg level.
  • Mobitz II and 3rd degree heart block always require permanent pacing — regardless of symptoms. Mobitz II has sudden unpredictable progression to complete heart block.
  • Mobitz I (Wenckebach): Progressive PR prolongation before dropped QRS. Usually inferior/nodal. May be observed unless symptomatic. Atropine can help transiently.
  • Atropine works above the His bundle (nodal blocks). It is unreliable/ineffective for infranodal (Mobitz II, complete heart block) — proceed to pacing.
  • Amiodarone is a CYP450 inhibitor: Increases warfarin levels (reduce warfarin 30–50%), digoxin levels, statin levels. Monitor closely on initiation.
  • Adenosine half-life ~6 seconds — must be given as rapid IV push with immediate saline flush. Central line preferred. Monitor with crash cart at bedside.
  • Regular tachycardia at ~150 bpm = atrial flutter with 2:1 block until proven otherwise. Look for sawtooth waves in II, III, aVF.
Tier 1
Board Pearls — Valvular Disease & Cardiomyopathy
AS · MR · Endocarditis · HCM · Peripartum CMP
★★★ Highest Yield
  • All diastolic murmurs are pathologic. Never dismiss a diastolic murmur as innocent. Always order echocardiography.
  • Aortic stenosis triad: angina → syncope → heart failure. Mean survival without AVR: 5 years (angina), 3 years (syncope), 1–2 years (HF). Symptomatic severe AS = refer for AVR/TAVR.
  • Vasodilators are contraindicated in severe AS — ACEi, nitrates, aggressive diuresis. Fixed obstruction cannot compensate for dropped SVR → catastrophic hypotension.
  • DOACs are absolutely contraindicated with mechanical heart valves. RE-ALIGN trial: increased thromboembolism AND bleeding. Warfarin only. Target INR 2.5–3.5 for mitral position.
  • HCM is the most common cause of sudden cardiac death in young athletes. Restriction from competitive sports is mandatory. ICD for high-risk features (prior VT/VF, massive LVH, family history of SCD, LVOT gradient >30mmHg).
  • HCM drug contraindications: Vasodilators (nitrates, ACEi, hydralazine) and diuretics worsen LVOT obstruction → syncope or sudden death. Use beta-blockers or verapamil.
  • Duke criteria for endocarditis: 2 major, 1 major + 3 minor, or 5 minor = diagnosis. Do NOT rely on signs alone — positive blood cultures + echo vegetation is sufficient (2 major criteria).
  • S. gallolyticus (bovis) endocarditis = colonoscopy mandatory. 60% association with colorectal neoplasia. This is a non-negotiable board fact.
  • IVDA endocarditis: S. aureus (most common), tricuspid valve. Dental procedures: Streptococcus viridans, mitral/aortic valve.
  • ARVC: Epsilon wave (pathognomonic) + T-wave inversions V1–V3 + young male with ventricular arrhythmias + fibrofatty RV replacement. Exercise restriction and ICD.
  • Peripartum CMP: New HFrEF last month of pregnancy to 5 months postpartum. ACEi/ARBs teratogenic — use hydralazine + nitrates in pregnancy. Beta-blockers safe (labetalol, metoprolol).
Tier 1
Board Pearls — HTN, Pericardial & Vascular
Hypertensive Emergency · Dissection · Tamponade · PAD · PE
★★★ Highest Yield
  • Hypertensive emergency: reduce MAP by no more than 25% in the first hour. Faster reduction causes ischemic injury to organs dependent on elevated MAP (brain, heart, kidney).
  • Aortic dissection: "Block before you Drop." Beta-blocker FIRST (esmolol, labetalol) to reduce HR <60, THEN add nitroprusside if needed. Nitroprusside alone causes reflex tachycardia → increased dP/dt → dissection propagates.
  • Type A dissection (ascending) = surgical emergency — 1–2% mortality per hour. Simultaneous cardiac surgery call and imaging. Do not wait.
  • Ischemic stroke: permissive hypertension — do NOT lower BP unless >220/120 (or >185/110 if tPA candidate). The ischemic penumbra depends on that pressure gradient.
  • Eclampsia: magnesium sulfate is for seizure prophylaxis/treatment — NOT for BP control. Use labetalol or hydralazine IV for BP. ACEi/ARBs absolutely contraindicated in pregnancy.
  • AAA screening: One-time abdominal ultrasound in men aged 65–75 who have ever smoked (USPSTF Grade B). Repair threshold: ≥5.5 cm or growth >0.5 cm in 6 months.
  • Cardiac tamponade: NEVER give diuretics or nitrates. Furosemide removes the critical preload needed by the compressed ventricle → cardiovascular collapse. IV fluids bridge; pericardiocentesis is definitive.
  • Dressler syndrome (post-MI pericarditis): Use ASPIRIN as the NSAID of choice — NOT ibuprofen or indomethacin, which impair myocardial scar formation.
  • Colchicine is mandatory for pericarditis (viral or recurrent) — reduces recurrence by 50% (COPE and ICAP trials). Do not omit.
  • Tamponade vs constrictive pericarditis distinction: Tamponade = pulsus paradoxus (JVD falls or stays same with inspiration). Constriction = Kussmaul sign (JVD RISES with inspiration).
  • Massive PE (SBP <90 + hemodynamic instability): Systemic fibrinolytics if no contraindications. Anticoagulation alone is insufficient. Surgical embolectomy if lytics contraindicated.
  • ABI interpretation: Normal ≥0.9. Borderline 0.7–0.89. PAD <0.7. Critical limb ischemia <0.4. ABI >1.4 = non-compressible vessels (calcified, DM/renal failure) — false normal.
  • Cilostazol (PDE3 inhibitor) for claudication is CONTRAINDICATED in any degree of heart failure — proarrhythmic and positive inotrope effects in the failing heart.
Tier 1
Board Pearls — Cardiovascular Pharmacology
Contraindications · Drug Interactions · Pregnancy · Monitoring
★★★ Highest YieldDrug Contraindication Traps
  • Nitrates + PDE-5 inhibitors (sildenafil, tadalafil) = severe hypotension. Absolute contraindication. Time window: 24 hours for sildenafil, 48 hours for tadalafil.
  • ACEi/ARBs in pregnancy = absolute contraindication — oligohydramnios, renal agenesis, fetal death (Category D/X). Switch to labetalol, methyldopa, or hydralazine.
  • Beta-blockers contraindicated in: Acute decompensated HF (can initiate when stable), cocaine-induced chest pain (unopposed alpha → coronary spasm), vasospastic (Prinzmetal) angina (same mechanism).
  • Digoxin toxicity can cause any arrhythmia. Classic = PAT with block. Exacerbated by hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, and hypothyroidism. Treat with digoxin-specific antibody fragments (Digibind).
  • Statins contraindicated in pregnancy — Category X. Myopathy risk increases significantly with concurrent cyclosporine, fibrates (gemfibrozil), and certain antibiotics (clarithromycin).
  • Spironolactone causes gynecomastia (anti-androgen effect) — use eplerenone as a more selective MRA alternative when this is problematic.
  • Amiodarone half-life 40–55 days — toxicity monitoring required: TSH + LFTs every 6 months, annual CXR (pulmonary fibrosis), ophthalmology exam (corneal deposits, optic neuropathy). Most common side effect: hypothyroidism.
  • Thiazide diuretics cause: Hypokalemia, hyponatremia, hyperuricemia (precipitate gout), hyperglycemia, hypercalcemia, hyperlipidemia (minor). First-line for uncomplicated HTN in most patients and in Black patients without DM.
  • Loop diuretics (furosemide) ototoxicity is dose-dependent and markedly increased with concurrent aminoglycosides — avoid combination if possible.
  • Metformin contraindicated if eGFR <30 (hold if <45 for iodinated contrast procedures) — risk of lactic acidosis. Most important drug adjustment in CKD patients.
  • Warfarin interactions: Amiodarone (↑ INR), fluconazole (↑ INR), rifampin (↓ INR), carbamazepine (↓ INR). The boards love the amiodarone-warfarin interaction specifically.
Fast Review
10 Rapid-Fire Clinical Pearls
Clinical Emergency List
10 "Don't Miss" Cardiology Emergencies
1. STEMI — Right Ventricular MI
Inferior STEMI + hypotension + JVD + clear lungs. Nitrates, diuretics, morphine = fatal. Get V4R. Give IV fluids. Cath lab immediately. Miss this = patient dies from iatrogenic preload reduction.
2. WPW + Atrial Fibrillation → VF
Pre-excited AF + AV nodal blocker = VF → cardiac arrest. Never give adenosine, digoxin, diltiazem, or verapamil. Procainamide or cardioversion. Most commonly tested lethal drug error on boards.
3. Aortic Dissection Masquerading as STEMI
Tearing pain + BP differential + widened mediastinum + inferior ST elevation (RCA involvement). Heparin or lytics = fatal hemorrhage. CT angiography first. NEVER activate cath lab without ruling out dissection.
4. Cardiac Tamponade — Diuretic Trap
Beck's triad + pulsus paradoxus + electrical alternans. Furosemide removes the preload the compressed heart needs = cardiovascular collapse. IV fluids as bridge, then pericardiocentesis.
5. Papillary Muscle Rupture (Post-MI)
Day 3–5 post-inferior MI + sudden flash pulmonary edema + cardiogenic shock. Soft or absent systolic murmur despite severe MR — do not be falsely reassured by quiet exam. Echo urgently. Emergency surgery.
6. Massive PE — Fibrinolytic Decision
Hemodynamic instability (SBP <90) + confirmed massive PE + no absolute contraindications. Anticoagulation alone is insufficient. Systemic alteplase 100mg IV over 2h. Surgical embolectomy if lytics contraindicated.
7. Wellens Syndrome — The Silent Bomb
Pain-free patient + biphasic/inverted T waves V2–V3 + about-to-have a massive anterior MI. Stress test is absolutely contraindicated — inducing ischemia precipitates arrest. Directly to cath lab. This patient looks fine but is not.
8. Type A Aortic Dissection
Ascending aorta involvement = 1–2% mortality per hour without surgery. IV labetalol/esmolol first (HR <60), THEN nitroprusside if needed. Call cardiothoracic surgery simultaneously. Do not wait for "more imaging."
9. Complete Heart Block — Ventricular Escape
Wide QRS escape rhythm at 20–40 bpm + AV dissociation. Ventricular escape rhythm is unreliable — risk of asystole without warning. Emergency pacing. Atropine is a temporizing measure only (often ineffective below His bundle). Permanent pacemaker regardless of symptoms.
10. ICI Myocarditis — Cancer Therapy Emergency
Patient on pembrolizumab/nivolumab/ipilimumab + new chest pain + elevated troponin + new reduced EF. Mortality ~25% if not recognized. Stop immunotherapy immediately. High-dose methylprednisolone 1g IV daily × 3–5 days. Do not delay treatment for biopsy confirmation.
⬡ Closing Statement
"This syllabus covers every testable cardiology concept on the PANCE from hemodynamics to HCM. Know the traps — they are not random. They are the exact decision points where real patients die. Master the pattern, trust the framework, and the exam follows."
— Rajiv Choudhary, MD, MPH
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