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PANCE · PANRE · Board Prep Intensive

PA Endocrinology
Bootcamp Syllabus

A full-day endocrine board-review program built around one sequence — Recognize → Test → Confirm → Treat → Don't Miss — with Endocrinology in 10 Algorithms as the backbone, Diabetes as the largest domain, 39 reference tables including the definitive thyroid matrix, Read the Labs drills, a 9-panel Lab Pattern Challenge, variation questions that change one variable, 24 labeled board-trap blocks, a closing Endocrine Code Blue, a 25-question Gauntlet, and The 20 Things to Know on one page. Every question is a five-option PANCE-style vignette with a reveal, reasoning, strongest distractor, and pearl.

9Clinical Domains
27Board Topics
130Board-Style Questions
10Decision Algorithms
6Illustrated Infographics
24Board-Trap Blocks
8Code Blue Emergencies
Tier Key:
Tier 1 — Must Master (greatest depth and questions)
Tier 2 — Know Well
Tier 3 — Rapid Review
Learning labels:Memorizeknow exactlyRecognizeknow the patternReferencelook up, don’t memorize

By the end of this bootcamp, you must be able to:

Mastery Contract · 15 Objectives
01Diagnose diabetes and prediabetes from A1c, fasting, OGTT, and random glucose thresholds, and know who to screen.
02Choose the second diabetes drug by comorbidity (SGLT2i for HF/CKD, GLP-1 RA for ASCVD/obesity, insulin when catabolic or A1c >10%).
03Manage DKA and HHS in the correct order: fluids → potassium check → insulin → dextrose → gap closure with basal overlap.
04Treat hypoglycemia by route and cause, and separate insulinoma from factitious hypoglycemia with C-peptide.
05Read the TSH/free T4 pair to localize thyroid disease as primary, central, or subclinical.
06Use radioiodine uptake and antibodies to separate Graves, toxic nodules, and thyroiditis — and treat each differently.
07Recognize thyroid storm and myxedema coma and give the first drugs in the right order.
08Work up a thyroid nodule from TSH to ultrasound to FNA by size and TI-RADS features.
09Diagnose and treat adrenal insufficiency and adrenal crisis — hydrocortisone before the cortisol result.
10Run the Cushing algorithm: exclude exogenous steroids, screen twice, then ACTH, then image.
11Screen for primary aldosteronism and pheochromocytoma from the right clues and order alpha before beta blockade.
12Use the calcium/PTH pair to separate primary hyperparathyroidism from malignancy and treat severe hypercalcemia in sequence.
13Recognize hypocalcemia, osteoporosis treatment thresholds, and the bisphosphonate rules.
14Interpret hyperprolactinemia, acromegaly, hypopituitarism, and pituitary apoplexy, and know when the pituitary rule for adenomas applies.
15Distinguish diabetes insipidus from SIADH with the water table and correct sodium at a safe rate.
Before You Begin
How to Use This Syllabus
Teaching Philosophy
Before You Begin · The Endocrine Operating System
Two Rules That Solve Half the Exam
Tier 1
Topic F-1
The Endocrine Operating System
Primary vs Secondary · Suppression vs Stimulation · Screening vs Confirmation
★★★ Framework for every question
Rule 1 — Localize the lesion from the hormone pair

Every axis has a trophic hormone (TSH, ACTH, LH/FSH, GH) and a target hormone (T4, cortisol, testosterone/estradiol, IGF-1). Read them as a pair and the gland that failed names itself.

PatternTarget hormoneTrophic hormoneLesionExample
Primary failure↓↑End organHashimoto (TSH↑ FT4↓) · Addison (ACTH↑ cortisol↓)
Secondary failure↓↓ or inappropriately normalPituitary / hypothalamusCentral hypothyroidism · Secondary AI after steroid withdrawal
Primary excess↑↓ (suppressed)Autonomous end organGraves (TSH↓ FT4↑) · Adrenal adenoma (ACTH↓ cortisol↑)
Secondary excess↑↑ or inappropriately normalPituitary (or ectopic)Cushing disease · TSH-oma (rare)

🩺 Board rule: a trophic hormone that is "normal" while the target hormone is clearly abnormal is inappropriately normal — that is a central lesion until proven otherwise.

Rule 2 — Suppress to prove excess · Stimulate to prove deficiency
You suspect…Dynamic testNormal responseAbnormal = disease
Cortisol excess1 mg overnight dexamethasoneAM cortisol suppresses (<1.8 µg/dL)Fails to suppress
GH excess (acromegaly)75 g oral glucoseGH suppresses to <1 ng/mLGH fails to suppress
Aldosterone excessSaline infusion / oral salt loadAldosterone suppressesFails to suppress
Cortisol deficiencyCosyntropin (ACTH) 250 µgCortisol rises to ≥18–20 µg/dLBlunted rise
ADH deficiency vs resistanceWater deprivation → desmopressinUrine concentratesCentral: concentrates only after DDAVP · Nephrogenic: never

🩺 Screening ≠ confirmation. Screening tests are cheap and sensitive (TSH, IGF-1, metanephrines, ARR); confirmation is the dynamic test. Boards ask for the first test far more often than the confirmatory one.

★ Memory Trick
Trophic ↑ + target ↓ = the gland is broken (primary). Trophic ↓ + target ↓ = the boss is broken (secondary). Suppress the loud ones, stimulate the quiet ones.
Read the labsFramework check1 lab read
Commit to an answer before you reveal. This is how every READ THE LABS block in the syllabus works: labs first, diagnosis second, reasoning last.
Read the labsQ1 of 1 · Medium · Localize the lesion
TSH 18.4 mIU/L (↑)
Free T4 0.5 ng/dL (↓)
A 41-year-old woman has fatigue and weight gain. Commit to a diagnosis before reading on. Which best explains this pattern?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: A — Primary hypothyroidism (thyroid gland failure)
TSH is high because the pituitary is working and is shouting at a thyroid that cannot answer (FT4 low). High trophic + low target = primary end-organ failure. In an iodine-sufficient country that is Hashimoto thyroiditis until proven otherwise.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Central hypothyroidism from a pituitary lesion — Central disease gives a low or inappropriately normal TSH with low FT4. A frankly elevated TSH means the pituitary is intact.
  • Subclinical hyperthyroidism from a toxic nodule — Any hyperthyroid state suppresses TSH. TSH↑ excludes it.
  • Euthyroid sick syndrome during acute illness — Nonthyroidal illness classically shows low T3 with normal or low TSH — not a TSH of 18.
  • Laboratory interference from biotin supplementation — Biotin interference typically makes TSH read falsely low and FT4 falsely high (mimicking Graves), the opposite pattern.
Board pearlThe first lab read of the day: TSH↑ + FT4↓ = primary hypothyroidism. Add anti-TPO if you want the cause; add nothing if you just want to treat.
Covered under Topic F-1 and Topic T-1 — Hypothyroidism
The Backbone · Learn These Ten, Hang Everything Else On Them
Endocrinology in 10 Algorithms
Every endocrine question enters through one of these ten doors. Short enough to say aloud; the detail lives in the domain each one links to.
01
TSH abnormal
Thyroid Function Test Reading
  1. TSH first; add free T4 (and T3 if TSH is low)
  2. TSH ↑ + FT4 ↓ = primary hypothyroidism (Hashimoto) → levothyroxine 1.6 µg/kg; recheck TSH in 6–8 weeks
  3. TSH ↑ + FT4 normal = subclinical; treat if TSH >10, pregnant, or symptomatic with antibodies
  4. TSH ↓/normal + FT4 ↓ = central: check cortisol and give steroids BEFORE levothyroxine
  5. TSH ↓ + FT4/T3 ↑ = thyrotoxicosis → RAIU (or TRAb): high = Graves/toxic nodule; low = thyroiditis, exogenous, iodine
  6. Sick patient with odd values = nonthyroidal illness; biotin = falsely low TSH, high FT4 — repeat off supplement
TSH FIRST · READ THE PAIR · CORTISOL BEFORE T4Go deeper → Domain 3
02
Thyroid nodule
Thyroid Nodule & Cancer
  1. TSH first: low → RAIU scan; hot nodule = almost never cancer, treat hyperthyroidism
  2. Normal/high TSH → ultrasound with TI-RADS features (hypoechoic, microcalcifications, irregular margins, taller-than-wide, extrathyroidal extension)
  3. FNA by size and suspicion: ≥1 cm suspicious, ≥1.5 cm intermediate, ≥2–2.5 cm low suspicion; purely cystic = no FNA
  4. Bethesda result drives surgery vs surveillance; molecular testing for indeterminate
  5. Red flags: rapid growth, hoarseness, fixed mass, cervical nodes, radiation history, family history of MTC/MEN2
  6. Cancer types: papillary (most common, best prognosis, nodes) · follicular (hematogenous) · medullary (calcitonin, RET, MEN2) · anaplastic (rapid, fatal)
TSH → ULTRASOUND → FNA BY SIZEGo deeper → Domain 3
03
Glucose ↑↑ + sick
DKA & HHS
  1. Confirm: DKA = glucose >250, pH <7.3, HCO3 <18, ketones, gap; HHS = >600, osm >320, pH >7.3, obtunded
  2. Isotonic fluids first (1–1.5 L in hour 1); find the trigger (infection, insulin omission, MI, SGLT2i)
  3. Check potassium before insulin: <3.3 = hold insulin and replace; 3.3–5.2 = add K to fluids; >5.2 = no K yet
  4. Insulin 0.1 U/kg/h; when glucose ~200–250 add dextrose, do not stop insulin
  5. Replace K, consider phosphate <1.0; bicarbonate only if pH <6.9
  6. Resolved when gap closes (DKA) or osm/mentation normalize (HHS); overlap SC basal 1–2 h before stopping the drip
FLUIDS → POTASSIUM → INSULIN → DEXTROSEGo deeper → Domain 2
04
Glucose ↓
Hypoglycemia
  1. Whipple triad: symptoms + glucose <70 (<55 in non-diabetics) + relief with glucose
  2. Conscious and swallowing: 15 g carbohydrate, recheck in 15 min (rule of 15); IV dextrose if a line; IM/nasal glucagon if not
  3. Sulfonylurea overdose: admit, dextrose plus octreotide; recurrence risk for 24–72 h
  4. Non-diabetic: draw glucose, insulin, C-peptide, proinsulin, sulfonylurea screen, β-hydroxybutyrate DURING hypoglycemia (72-h fast if needed)
  5. High insulin + high C-peptide = insulinoma or sulfonylurea; high insulin + LOW C-peptide = exogenous insulin
  6. Insulinoma: localize (CT/MRI/EUS), resect; think MEN1. Also: adrenal insufficiency, alcohol, sepsis, liver failure
RULE OF 15 · C-PEPTIDE DECIDESGo deeper → Domain 2
05
Calcium ↑
Hypercalcemia
  1. Confirm: correct for albumin (+0.8 per g/dL below 4) or measure ionized calcium
  2. PTH: high or inappropriately normal = primary hyperparathyroidism (or lithium, FHH — check urine calcium)
  3. PTH low → PTHrP (squamous cancers), 1,25-D (lymphoma, granulomas), 25-D (vitamin D excess), SPEP (myeloma), TSH, vitamin A
  4. Severe (>14 or symptomatic): saline first, then calcitonin (fast, 48 h), then zoledronate (denosumab if CKD); steroids for granuloma/lymphoma; dialysis if refractory
  5. Never thiazides; loop diuretics only after volume repletion
  6. Primary hyperpara surgery: symptoms, Ca >1 above normal, age <50, eGFR <60, T-score ≤−2.5, stones; cinacalcet if not a surgical candidate
ALBUMIN → PTH → SALINE → CALCITONIN → BISPHOSPHONATEGo deeper → Domain 5
06
Cushingoid patient
Suspected Cushing Syndrome
  1. Step 0: exclude exogenous glucocorticoids (including inhaled, topical, injected) — the most common cause
  2. Screen with two of: 1-mg overnight dexamethasone (cortisol >1.8), late-night salivary cortisol ×2, 24-h urine free cortisol ×2
  3. Confirm hypercortisolism before any imaging
  4. ACTH: suppressed = adrenal source → adrenal CT; normal/high = ACTH-dependent
  5. ACTH-dependent: high-dose dexamethasone suppresses / CRH stimulates = pituitary (Cushing disease) → MRI; no suppression = ectopic (small-cell) → chest CT; inferior petrosal sinus sampling when MRI is unclear
  6. Treat: transsphenoidal surgery (disease), adrenalectomy (adenoma), resect ectopic source; ketoconazole/osilodrostat as bridges
EXOGENOUS? → SCREEN ×2 → ACTH → IMAGEGo deeper → Domain 4
07
Fatigue + hypotension + hyponatremia
Suspected Adrenal Insufficiency
  1. Unstable? Draw cortisol/ACTH, then hydrocortisone 100 mg IV and saline NOW — do not wait for results
  2. Stable: 8 AM cortisol <3 confirms, >15–18 excludes; in between → cosyntropin stimulation (cortisol <18 at 30–60 min = insufficiency)
  3. ACTH high = primary (Addison: hyperpigmentation, hyperkalemia, salt craving; autoimmune, TB, hemorrhage, HIV) → hydrocortisone + fludrocortisone
  4. ACTH low/normal = secondary (steroid withdrawal is the most common cause; pituitary disease) → hydrocortisone only; check the other axes
  5. Sick-day rules: double or triple the dose; stress-dose steroids for surgery/illness; medical alert bracelet
  6. Trap: hypoglycemia, eosinophilia, and hypercalcemia are supporting clues; hyperkalemia only in primary disease
STEROIDS BEFORE THE RESULT · ACTH LOCALIZESGo deeper → Domain 4
08
Hypertension + endocrine clue
Adrenal Hypertension
  1. Hypokalemia, resistant HTN, adrenal incidentaloma, HTN <40 → primary aldosteronism: aldosterone/renin ratio (stop MRAs 4–6 wk; correct K)
  2. Confirm with saline suppression / oral salt load; adrenal CT then adrenal vein sampling if surgery is considered
  3. Adenoma = adrenalectomy; bilateral hyperplasia = spironolactone or eplerenone
  4. Paroxysmal headache, sweating, palpitations → plasma free metanephrines (or 24-h urine) BEFORE imaging
  5. Pheochromocytoma: localize (CT/MRI, MIBG), alpha-block (phenoxybenzamine/doxazosin) 10–14 days, salt-load, THEN beta-block, then surgery; never beta first
  6. Incidentaloma: two questions — is it functioning (DST, metanephrines, ARR if hypertensive) and could it be cancer (>4 cm, >10 HU, delayed washout)?
LOW K → ARR · PAROXYSMS → METANEPHRINES · ALPHA BEFORE BETAGo deeper → Domain 4
09
Polyuria or sodium abnormal
Diabetes Insipidus vs SIADH
  1. Polyuria >3 L/day + high/normal Na + dilute urine (osm <300) = diabetes insipidus; exclude glucose, diuretics, hypercalcemia, hypokalemia
  2. Water deprivation: urine osm stays low → DI; desmopressin raises urine osm >50% = central (give desmopressin), no response = nephrogenic (lithium, hypercalcemia → thiazide, amiloride)
  3. Hyponatremia + urine osm >100 + urine Na >30 + euvolemic + normal TSH/cortisol = SIADH (CNS, lung, SSRIs, carbamazepine, small-cell)
  4. Severe symptoms: 3% saline 100–150 mL bolus; otherwise fluid restriction, salt + loop, urea, tolvaptan
  5. Correction limits: hyponatremia ≤8 mEq/L per 24 h (rescue with D5W + desmopressin); hypernatremia ≤10–12 per day
  6. Post-pituitary surgery: triphasic response (DI → SIADH → DI)
URINE OSM DECIDES · 8 IN 24Go deeper → Domain 6
10
Pituitary mass or hormone excess
Pituitary Adenoma Workup
  1. Incidentaloma: screen prolactin, IGF-1, and cortisol excess; assess hypopituitarism if ≥1 cm; visual fields if it touches the chiasm
  2. Prolactin high: exclude pregnancy, hypothyroidism, renal failure, antipsychotics/metoclopramide, and stalk effect (modest rise) before calling it a prolactinoma
  3. Prolactinoma is the one adenoma treated medically first: cabergoline (dopamine agonist), even for macroadenomas
  4. Acromegaly: IGF-1 screen → OGTT fails to suppress GH → MRI → transsphenoidal surgery; octreotide/pegvisomant
  5. All other functioning or mass-effect adenomas: transsphenoidal surgery; replace deficient axes (cortisol before thyroxine)
  6. Apoplexy: sudden headache, visual loss, ophthalmoplegia → hydrocortisone immediately, urgent MRI, neurosurgery
PROLACTIN = PILLS · EVERYTHING ELSE = SURGERY · CORTISOL FIRSTGo deeper → Domain 6
Domain 1 · Diabetes Mellitus — Largest Section on the Endocrine Blueprint
Diabetes Mellitus: Diagnosis, Drug Decisions, Complications
Before you beginDiabetes Mellitus6 in-session
Core Topic 1 — Diabetes. Attempt the four in-session questions before the domain is taught: thresholds, then type, then screening, then the A1c trap. The two homework questions cover pregnancy.
In-sessionQ1 of 6 · Medium · Diagnosis · Thresholds
A 52-year-old man with BMI 33 kg/m² is seen for a routine visit. He is asymptomatic. Fasting plasma glucose is 131 mg/dL. Which of the following establishes a diagnosis of diabetes mellitus?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: D — Repeat fasting plasma glucose of 128 mg/dL on a different day
In an asymptomatic patient, diabetes requires two abnormal results — either the same test repeated or two different tests from the same sample. FPG ≥126 mg/dL twice meets criteria. (A1c ≥6.5%, 2-h OGTT ≥200, or random ≥200 with classic symptoms are the other routes.)
Why the other choices are wrong
  • A single random glucose of 180 mg/dL at today's visit — Random glucose counts only at ≥200 mg/dL and with symptoms of hyperglycemia; 180 is neither.
  • Hemoglobin A1c of 6.1% drawn today — 6.1% is prediabetes (5.7–6.4%). It would not confirm.
  • Two-hour value of 185 mg/dL on a 75-g oral glucose tolerance test — 2-h OGTT threshold is ≥200 mg/dL; 140–199 is impaired glucose tolerance.
  • Urine dipstick showing 1+ glucose without ketones — Urine glucose is neither a screening nor a diagnostic test for diabetes.
Board pearlMemorize the four doors: A1c ≥6.5 · FPG ≥126 · 2-h OGTT ≥200 · random ≥200 + symptoms. Asymptomatic = confirm with a second abnormal result.
Covered under Topic DM-1 — Diagnosis & Classification
In-sessionQ2 of 6 · Medium · Type 1 vs LADA vs Type 2
A 27-year-old woman with BMI 22 kg/m² has 3 weeks of polyuria, polydipsia, and 5-kg weight loss. Glucose 348 mg/dL, A1c 11.2%, no ketones, bicarbonate 24 mEq/L. No family history of diabetes. Which finding would most strongly support type 1 diabetes and change her initial regimen?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: B — Positive GAD65 antibodies with a low C-peptide
Lean, young, catabolic (weight loss), and marked hyperglycemia = autoimmune β-cell failure. Islet autoantibodies (GAD65, IA-2, ZnT8, insulin) plus low/undetectable C-peptide confirm type 1 and mean insulin from day one, not metformin.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Elevated fasting insulin and triglycerides — Hyperinsulinemia and hypertriglyceridemia are insulin-resistance markers pointing toward type 2.
  • Strong acanthosis nigricans on the neck — Acanthosis nigricans is an insulin-resistance sign, favoring type 2.
  • A1c above 10% at presentation — An A1c >10% triggers insulin in type 2 as well, so it does not discriminate type. The antibody is what changes the long-term plan.
  • Hypertension and microalbuminuria at diagnosis — Vascular complications at diagnosis imply years of undiagnosed hyperglycemia — typical of type 2.
Board pearlKetosis is not required to call it type 1. Autoantibodies + low C-peptide make the diagnosis. LADA = the same antibodies in an adult >30 who initially looks like type 2 and fails oral agents within a few years.
Covered under Topic DM-1 — Diagnosis & Classification
In-sessionQ3 of 6 · Medium · Screening · Who and when
Which asymptomatic patient meets current ADA criteria for diabetes screening?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: E — A 38-year-old woman with BMI 26 kg/m² whose mother has type 2 diabetes
Screen all adults ≥35 years, and any adult with BMI ≥25 kg/m² (≥23 in Asian Americans) plus at least one risk factor — first-degree relative, high-risk ethnicity, history of GDM, hypertension, dyslipidemia, PCOS, physical inactivity, or acanthosis. Repeat every 3 years if normal.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • A 24-year-old man with BMI 23 kg/m² who exercises daily and eats no added sugar — Age <35, normal BMI, no risk factors — not screened.
  • A 30-year-old woman with BMI 24 kg/m² and no personal or family risk factors — Normal BMI and no risk factor at age 30 — no screening indicated.
  • A 33-year-old man with BMI 22 kg/m², normal blood pressure, and normal lipids — Same: below both the age and BMI/risk-factor thresholds.
  • A 29-year-old woman with BMI 24 kg/m² and seasonal allergies treated with cetirizine — Seasonal allergies are not a diabetes risk factor.
Board pearlThe number the boards want is 35 (lowered from 45 in 2022). Below 35, screening needs overweight plus a risk factor. Prior GDM → screen every 1–3 years for life.
Covered under Topic DM-1 — Diagnosis & Classification
In-sessionQ4 of 6 · Medium · Prediabetes · The A1c trap
A 44-year-old woman with sickle cell trait and a BMI of 31 kg/m² has an A1c of 5.4% at a screening visit. Fasting glucose the same morning was 138 mg/dL. What is the most appropriate interpretation?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: C — The A1c is unreliable here; trust the fasting glucose and confirm it with a repeat FPG or OGTT
Hemoglobin variants, hemolysis, recent transfusion, iron deficiency, pregnancy, and CKD all distort A1c. When A1c and glucose disagree in a patient with such a condition, trust the glucose and confirm with a repeat FPG or an OGTT.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Her glucose metabolism is normal because the A1c is below 5.7%, and the FPG was a laboratory error — This is the trap. A normal A1c in a patient with a hemoglobinopathy cannot exclude diabetes.
  • She has prediabetes, because when two tests disagree the diagnosis is set at the intermediate category — Disagreement between tests is not itself a category; you resolve it with the reliable test.
  • The fasting sample was probably not truly fasting; discard it and repeat the A1c in 3 months — There is no reason to assume the fasting state was wrong; the A1c is the suspect.
  • An OGTT is contraindicated with sickle cell trait, so the A1c should simply be repeated in 3 years — OGTT is a perfectly reasonable confirmatory test here, and 3 years is far too long given an FPG of 138.
Board pearlConditions that make A1c lie: hemoglobinopathies, hemolytic anemia, recent transfusion, iron deficiency, pregnancy, advanced CKD, HIV on certain ART. In any of these, diagnose and monitor with glucose values.
Covered under Topic DM-1 — Diagnosis & Classification
In-sessionQ5 of 6 · Medium · Gestational diabetes · Screening
A 29-year-old G1P0 at 26 weeks' gestation with no history of diabetes has a 1-hour plasma glucose of 152 mg/dL after a 50-g glucose challenge. What is the next best step?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: A — Perform a 3-hour 100-g oral glucose tolerance test
The two-step approach: a 50-g non-fasting challenge at 24–28 weeks is a screen; a 1-h value ≥130–140 mg/dL (threshold varies by protocol) is positive and is followed by the diagnostic fasting 100-g 3-h OGTT (two or more abnormal values = GDM). The one-step alternative is a fasting 75-g 2-h OGTT with a single abnormal value diagnostic.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Diagnose gestational diabetes and begin insulin today — A positive screen is not a diagnosis; treatment starts only after the diagnostic test and after a trial of nutrition therapy.
  • Start metformin and recheck fasting glucose in 2 weeks — Metformin is not first-line for GDM (insulin is) and there is not yet a diagnosis.
  • Order a hemoglobin A1c to confirm gestational diabetes — A1c is not used to diagnose GDM — physiologic changes in red-cell turnover make it unreliable in pregnancy.
  • Repeat the 50-g glucose challenge test in 4 weeks — Repeating the screen delays diagnosis into the third trimester.
Board pearlGDM sequence: screen 24–28 wk → confirm with OGTT → nutrition/exercise → insulin if targets are not met. Postpartum: 75-g OGTT at 4–12 weeks, then lifelong screening every 1–3 years.
Covered under Topic DM-3 — Complications, Prevention & Special Populations
In-sessionQ6 of 6 · Medium · Pregnancy · Preconception targets
A 31-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes on metformin and an SGLT2 inhibitor tells you she wants to conceive in the next 6 months. Her A1c is 7.8%. Which recommendation is most appropriate?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: B — Stop the SGLT2 inhibitor now, target an A1c under 6.5% before conception, and plan insulin during pregnancy
Preconception care: target A1c <6.5% (ideally as close to normal as is safe), start folate, stop non-insulin agents without pregnancy safety data (SGLT2 inhibitors, GLP-1 RAs, DPP-4 inhibitors) and stop statins/ACE inhibitors/ARBs before conception. Insulin is the preferred agent during pregnancy; metformin may be continued in selected patients.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Continue both agents until a pregnancy is confirmed, then reassess the regimen at the first prenatal visit — Waiting for a positive test exposes the embryo to unstudied agents during organogenesis.
  • Switch metformin to a sulfonylurea now because sulfonylureas have the best-established safety record in pregnancy — Sulfonylureas cross the placenta and are not preferred; glyburide is second-line at best.
  • Add a GLP-1 receptor agonist now to reach the A1c target faster, then stop it once the pregnancy is confirmed — GLP-1 RAs should be stopped before conception — no pregnancy safety data.
  • Reassure her that an A1c of 7.8% is acceptable for conception and continue the current regimen unchanged — Poor periconceptional control raises the risk of congenital malformations and miscarriage.
Board pearlPregnancy pharmacology: insulin is first-line; metformin is acceptable; stop SGLT2i, GLP-1 RA, DPP-4i, statins, ACEi/ARB before conception; target A1c <6–6.5%.
Covered under Topic DM-3 — Complications, Prevention & Special Populations
Tier 1
Topic DM-1
Diabetes — Diagnosis, Classification & Screening
A1c · FPG · OGTT · Type 1 vs LADA vs Type 2 vs MODY · Who to Screen
★★★ PANCE Core
Why It Matters for Boards

Diabetes is the single most tested endocrine topic on the PANCE. Questions cluster on four decisions: is it diabetes, which type, which drug for this comorbidity, and which complication is being screened.

Diagnostic Thresholds — Know the Numbers ColdMemorize
TestNormalPrediabetesDiabetesNotes
Hemoglobin A1c<5.7%5.7–6.4%≥6.5%Unreliable with hemoglobinopathy, hemolysis, iron deficiency, pregnancy, transfusion, advanced CKD
Fasting plasma glucose (≥8 h)<100100–125 (IFG)≥126 mg/dLMost reproducible; repeat to confirm if asymptomatic
2-h plasma glucose, 75-g OGTT<140140–199 (IGT)≥200 mg/dLMost sensitive; used in pregnancy and when A1c is unreliable
Random plasma glucose——≥200 mg/dL + symptomsPolyuria, polydipsia, weight loss, or hyperglycemic crisis — no confirmation needed

🩺 Confirmation rule: asymptomatic patients need two abnormal results (same test repeated, or two different tests from the same sample). Symptomatic + random ≥200 or hyperglycemic crisis = diagnosed on the spot.

Classification — Type 1 vs Type 2 vs LADA vs MODYRecognize
Type 1LADAType 2MODY
MechanismAutoimmune β-cell destructionSlow autoimmune destruction in adultsInsulin resistance + relative deficiencyMonogenic β-cell defect (autosomal dominant)
Typical patientLean child/young adult, abrupt onset, weight lossAdult >30, lean, "type 2" that fails oral agents in a few yearsOverweight adult, insidious, acanthosis, family historyLean, <25 y, 3 generations affected, no antibodies
Ketosis-proneYesEventuallyRare (except SGLT2i, illness)No
AutoantibodiesGAD65, IA-2, ZnT8, insulinGAD65 positiveNegativeNegative
C-peptideLow / absentLow-normal, fallingNormal / highPreserved
Initial therapyInsulin (basal-bolus or pump)Early insulinMetformin ± comorbidity-driven agentSulfonylurea (HNF1A/HNF4A) or none (GCK)
Screening — Who Gets Tested
  • All adults ≥35 years, regardless of weight; repeat every 3 years if normal
  • Any adult with BMI ≥25 kg/m² (≥23 Asian American) plus ≥1 risk factor: first-degree relative, high-risk ethnicity, prior GDM, hypertension, HDL <35 or TG >250, PCOS, physical inactivity, acanthosis nigricans, HIV
  • Prediabetes → annual testing; refer to a Diabetes Prevention Program; consider metformin for BMI ≥35, age <60, or prior GDM
  • Prior GDM → lifelong screening every 1–3 years
  • Type 1 relatives → autoantibody screening is now offered; a person with ≥2 antibodies has stage 1 disease
⚠️ BOARD TRAP — Board Traps
  • A1c 6.4% + FPG 128 mg/dL on the same sample → this is diabetes (two different tests both abnormal is acceptable); do not call it prediabetes because one test fell short.
  • A lean 26-year-old with new diabetes → check antibodies and C-peptide before you reach for metformin. Ketones are not required for type 1.
  • A1c in sickle cell trait, iron deficiency, hemolysis, pregnancy, or CKD → unreliable; use glucose criteria.
  • "Pancreatogenic" (type 3c) diabetes after chronic pancreatitis or pancreatectomy behaves like type 1 (insulin-requiring, brittle) with exocrine insufficiency — steatorrhea in the stem is the clue.
★ Memory Trick
The four doors: 6.5 / 126 / 200 / 200-plus-symptoms. Prediabetes: 5.7 / 100 / 140. Screen at 35 — or at 25 (BMI) with any risk factor.
Tier 1
Topic DM-2
Diabetes Pharmacology — Choose the Drug by the Comorbidity
Metformin · SGLT2i · GLP-1 RA · Tirzepatide · DPP-4i · Sulfonylurea · TZD · Insulin · Dawn vs Somogyi
★★★ PANCE Core
Why It Matters for Boards

The exam no longer asks "which drug lowers A1c the most." It asks which drug this patient with heart failure / CKD / obesity / ASCVD should receive — comorbidity first, glucose second. The 2026 ADA Standards make cardiorenal protection a co-primary goal independent of A1c.

The Drug Decision TableMemorize
ClassExampleWeightHypoglycemiaMajor benefitMajor adverse effectAvoid / Warning
BiguanideMetforminNeutral / ↓NoFirst-line, cheap, durable, CV-neutralGI upset, B12 deficiencyContraindicated eGFR <30; don't initiate 30–45; hold with iodinated contrast; lactic acidosis (rare)
SGLT2 inhibitorEmpagliflozin, dapagliflozin, canagliflozin↓NoHF (any EF) and CKD progression; ASCVD (empa/cana)Genital mycotic infection, UTI, volume depletion, euglycemic DKA, Fournier gangreneHold 3–4 days pre-op and during acute illness; not for type 1; limited glucose effect at eGFR <30 (still renal-protective to ~20)
GLP-1 receptor agonistSemaglutide, liraglutide, dulaglutide↓↓NoASCVD events; weight; CKD (semaglutide)Nausea/vomiting, delayed gastric emptying, pancreatitis, gallbladder diseasePersonal/family MTC or MEN2; gastroparesis; hold before anesthesia (aspiration)
Dual GIP/GLP-1 RATirzepatide↓↓↓NoGreatest weight and A1c reduction; HFpEF symptoms/events (ADA 2026)Same GI profileSame MTC/MEN2 warning
DPP-4 inhibitorSitagliptin, linagliptinNeutralNoWell tolerated, oral, usable in CKD (linagliptin needs no dose change)Nasopharyngitis, pancreatitis, arthralgiaSaxagliptin/alogliptin ↑ HF hospitalization; never combine with a GLP-1 RA (same pathway)
SulfonylureaGlipizide, glimepiride, glyburide↑Yes — highest of oralsCheap, fast A1c dropHypoglycemia, weight gainGlyburide in elderly (Beers) or CKD; avoid in sulfa allergy (relative)
ThiazolidinedionePioglitazone↑NoDurable, helps MASLD, cheapFluid retention, HF exacerbation, fractures, bladder cancer signal, macular edemaContraindicated NYHA III–IV HF
InsulinBasal (glargine, detemir, degludec); prandial (lispro, aspart)↑YesUnlimited efficacy; required in type 1, catabolism, A1c >10%Hypoglycemia, weight gain, hypokalemia, lipohypertrophyBasal analogs preferred over NPH (less nocturnal hypoglycemia)

🩺 2026 note: oral semaglutide (Wegovy pill, Dec 2025) and orforglipron (Foundayo, Apr 2026) are FDA-approved for obesity; orforglipron is not yet approved for diabetes. The class rules above are unchanged.

Choose by Comorbidity — The Questions the Exam Actually Asks
Patient has…Add this class (independent of A1c)Why
Heart failure (HFrEF or HFpEF)SGLT2 inhibitorReduces HF hospitalization and CV death across the EF spectrum; tirzepatide also improves HFpEF outcomes
CKD (eGFR 20–60 or albuminuria)SGLT2 inhibitor (GLP-1 RA if not tolerated)Slows eGFR decline and albuminuria; continue until dialysis
Established ASCVD or high riskGLP-1 RA or SGLT2 inhibitor with proven benefitMACE reduction (semaglutide, liraglutide, dulaglutide; empagliflozin, canagliflozin)
Obesity / weight is the priorityTirzepatide or semaglutideGreatest weight loss; avoid sulfonylureas, TZDs, insulin if possible
MASLD / MASHGLP-1 RA, tirzepatide, or pioglitazoneHistologic improvement
Cost is the barrierMetformin → sulfonylurea or pioglitazoneCheapest effective options; counsel on hypoglycemia / fluid
Hypoglycemia must be avoided (elderly, driver, CKD)Metformin, DPP-4i, GLP-1 RA, SGLT2iAll non-hypoglycemic as monotherapy; avoid sulfonylurea and insulin
A1c >10%, glucose >300, or symptomatic / catabolicInsulin now (basal ± prandial)Glucotoxicity; oral agents cannot catch up; reassess after control
First injectable needed, no catabolismGLP-1 RA or tirzepatide before insulinLess hypoglycemia, weight loss, comparable A1c effect
Targets
  • A1c <7% for most non-pregnant adults; <6.5% if achievable without hypoglycemia; <8% for limited life expectancy, frailty, hypoglycemia unawareness
  • Preprandial 80–130 mg/dL; peak postprandial <180 mg/dL; CGM time-in-range >70% with <4% below 70
  • A1c every 3 months until at goal, then every 6 months
  • Blood pressure: <130/80 (ADA 2026 encourages a systolic <120 target when safely achievable); statin for all with diabetes age 40–75; ACEi/ARB for albuminuria or hypertension
Insulin — Types, Timing, and the Two Morning Hyperglycemia PatternsRecognize
InsulinOnsetPeakDurationRole
Rapid (lispro, aspart, glulisine)10–15 min1–2 h3–5 hPrandial / correction; give 0–15 min before meals; used in pumps
Short (regular)30–60 min2–4 h5–8 hIV infusion in DKA; prandial if cost matters (30 min before meals)
Intermediate (NPH)1–2 h4–12 h12–18 hTwice-daily basal; more nocturnal hypoglycemia; used in pregnancy and for cost
Long (glargine, detemir)1–2 hMinimal~24 hOnce-daily basal; preferred over NPH
Ultra-long (degludec)1–2 hNone>42 hLeast hypoglycemia; flexible timing
  • Starting basal in type 2: 10 units or 0.1–0.2 U/kg at bedtime; titrate 2 units every 3 days to fasting 80–130. If fasting is at goal but A1c is not → add prandial insulin (or GLP-1 RA) before the largest meal, not more basal.
  • Type 1: total daily dose ~0.4–1.0 U/kg; 50% basal, 50% prandial divided by meals; carbohydrate ratio and correction factor; CGM preferred; automated insulin delivery increasingly standard.
Morning hyperglycemiaMechanism3 AM glucoseFix
Dawn phenomenonEarly-morning GH/cortisol surge → insulin resistanceNormal or highMove basal to bedtime or increase the dose; consider pump
Somogyi effectNocturnal hypoglycemia → counter-regulatory reboundLowDecrease evening basal / add bedtime snack
Waning insulinNPH given at dinner runs out before morningRising steadilyMove NPH to bedtime or switch to a long-acting analog

🩺 The board move: the vignette says "fasting hyperglycemia despite increasing insulin" — check a 3 AM glucose. If it is low, the answer is to reduce insulin, never to raise it.

⚠️ BOARD TRAP — Board Traps
  • Diabetes + heart failure → SGLT2 inhibitor. Not pioglitazone (fluid retention), not saxagliptin (HF hospitalization).
  • Diabetes + CKD with eGFR 25 → SGLT2 inhibitor for renal protection is still correct even though its glucose-lowering effect is minimal; metformin is contraindicated at eGFR <30.
  • Diabetes + obesity + prior medullary thyroid cancer in a parent → GLP-1 RA/tirzepatide are contraindicated; pick an SGLT2 inhibitor.
  • A1c 11% with weight loss and polyuria → start insulin now. Adding a second oral agent is the tempting wrong answer.
  • Patient on an SGLT2 inhibitor with nausea, malaise, and glucose 190 → check ketones and an anion gap. Euglycemic DKA is real; the normal-ish glucose is the trap.
  • Metformin and iodinated contrast → per labeling, hold at the time of contrast when eGFR is 30–60 (or with AKI/unstable function) and restart 48 h later once renal function is confirmed stable; current radiology guidance is more permissive above eGFR 30, but the board answer is still “hold.”
  • GLP-1 RA before surgery → delayed gastric emptying raises aspiration risk; hold weekly agents ~1 week before elective anesthesia per current perioperative guidance.
★ Memory Trick
HF or CKD → "SGLT-2" (2 organs, 1 drug). ASCVD or weight → GLP-1 ("1 heart, lots of weight"). Sick, catabolic, >10% → insulin — no debate. Somogyi = low at 3 AM → less insulin.
Drug decisionChoose Therapy by Comorbidity4 in-session
Four decisions in a row. The stem gives you a comorbidity; the drug class follows. Commit before reveal.
In-sessionQ1 of 4 · Medium · Drug decision · Heart failure
A 66-year-old man with type 2 diabetes (A1c 7.9% on metformin 1,000 mg twice daily) has HFrEF with an ejection fraction of 30%, NYHA class II symptoms, and eGFR 55 mL/min/1.73 m². Which agent should be added?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: E — Empagliflozin
Heart failure is an SGLT2 inhibitor indication regardless of A1c or EF. Empagliflozin and dapagliflozin reduce HF hospitalization and cardiovascular death and are part of guideline-directed HF therapy.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Pioglitazone — Pioglitazone causes sodium retention and precipitates heart failure — contraindicated in NYHA III–IV and unwise here.
  • Saxagliptin — Saxagliptin (and alogliptin) increased HF hospitalization in outcome trials.
  • Glipizide — Glipizide adds hypoglycemia and weight gain with no cardiovascular benefit.
  • NPH insulin at bedtime — Insulin is not needed at an A1c of 7.9% and would add weight and hypoglycemia; it offers no HF benefit.
Board pearlSGLT2 inhibitors are now one of the four pillars of HFrEF therapy and are indicated in HFpEF — with or without diabetes. When a stem pairs diabetes with heart failure, the answer is the "-flozin."
Covered under Topic DM-2 — Drug Decision Table
In-sessionQ2 of 4 · Medium · Drug decision · CKD
A 59-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes has eGFR 38 mL/min/1.73 m² and a urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio of 480 mg/g. She takes lisinopril. A1c is 7.4%. Which medication most directly slows the progression of her kidney disease?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: C — Dapagliflozin
SGLT2 inhibitors reduce eGFR decline, albuminuria, and progression to dialysis in diabetic kidney disease independent of glucose lowering (CREDENCE, DAPA-CKD, EMPA-KIDNEY). Start if eGFR ≥20 and continue until dialysis. Add finerenone if albuminuria persists.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Metformin — Metformin is a reasonable glucose agent at eGFR 38 (reduced dose) but has no renal-protective effect.
  • Glimepiride — Sulfonylureas offer no renal benefit and glimepiride accumulates in CKD, raising hypoglycemia risk.
  • Sitagliptin — DPP-4 inhibitors are safe in CKD but do not slow progression.
  • Insulin glargine — Insulin controls glucose but does not alter kidney outcomes.
Board pearlFor diabetic kidney disease the protective stack is ACEi/ARB + SGLT2 inhibitor (+ finerenone for persistent albuminuria; GLP-1 RA also has renal benefit). Screen with annual UACR and eGFR.
Covered under Topic DM-2 — Drug Decision Table
In-sessionQ3 of 4 · Medium · Drug decision · Obesity and ASCVD
A 54-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes, BMI 38 kg/m², and a prior non-ST-elevation MI has an A1c of 8.4% on maximal metformin. eGFR is 82. She wants to lose weight. There is no personal or family history of thyroid cancer. Which agent is most appropriate?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: D — Subcutaneous semaglutide
Established ASCVD + obesity = GLP-1 receptor agonist with proven cardiovascular benefit (semaglutide, liraglutide, dulaglutide). It lowers MACE, produces substantial weight loss, and carries no hypoglycemia risk. Tirzepatide would also be reasonable for weight, though its dedicated CV-outcome data are newer.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Pioglitazone 45 mg daily — Pioglitazone causes weight gain and fluid retention — the wrong direction for this patient.
  • Glyburide 5 mg daily — Glyburide causes weight gain and hypoglycemia and has no cardiovascular benefit.
  • Basal insulin glargine — Insulin is not indicated at 8.4% without catabolism and promotes weight gain.
  • Linagliptin 5 mg daily — Linagliptin is weight-neutral and CV-neutral — safe, but it provides neither the weight loss nor the ASCVD benefit she needs.
Board pearlGLP-1 RA = ASCVD + weight. The only hard stops are medullary thyroid carcinoma / MEN2 history, active gastroparesis, and prior pancreatitis (relative).
Covered under Topic DM-2 — Drug Decision Table
In-sessionQ4 of 4 · Medium · Drug decision · When oral agents are the wrong answer
A 47-year-old man is newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes. He reports 3 months of polyuria, nocturia, blurred vision, and a 7-kg unintentional weight loss. A1c is 12.1%, random glucose 412 mg/dL, no ketones, bicarbonate 25. What is the most appropriate initial therapy?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: A — Basal insulin with metformin, adding prandial insulin if needed
Symptomatic, catabolic hyperglycemia (weight loss, A1c >10%, glucose >300) means glucotoxicity has overwhelmed β-cell function. Insulin is required now; metformin can be started alongside, and after control is regained the regimen is often simplified to non-insulin agents.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Metformin plus a GLP-1 receptor agonist — This is the strongest distractor — a GLP-1 RA is the preferred first injectable in a stable patient, but not for a catabolic patient with an A1c of 12%.
  • Metformin plus an SGLT2 inhibitor — SGLT2 inhibitors cannot reverse glucotoxicity and raise DKA risk in a volume-depleted, insulin-deficient state.
  • Metformin monotherapy with lifestyle counseling and recheck in 3 months — Monotherapy and a 3-month wait leaves a symptomatic patient hyperglycemic.
  • Sulfonylurea plus pioglitazone — Neither agent can achieve control quickly enough, and both cause weight gain.
Board pearlThree triggers for insulin at diagnosis: A1c >10%, glucose ≥300, or catabolic symptoms. After glucotoxicity resolves, many patients transition off insulin.
Covered under Topic DM-2 — Drug Decision Table
Tier 1
Topic DM-3
Diabetes — Complications, Screening & Special Populations
Retinopathy · Nephropathy · Neuropathy · Foot · Cardiovascular · Gestational Diabetes
★★★ PANCE Core
Why It Matters for Boards

Health-maintenance items are cheap points: the exam asks when to screen, what test, and the first-line treatment for each complication.

Screening Schedule — Type 1 vs Type 2
ComplicationScreening testStartFrequencyFirst-line management
RetinopathyDilated fundoscopy or retinal photographyT1: 5 yr after dx (≥age 11) · T2: at diagnosisAnnually (q1–2 yr if normal)Glycemic/BP control; anti-VEGF (aflibercept, ranibizumab) for macular edema or proliferative disease; laser photocoagulation
NephropathyUrine albumin-to-creatinine ratio + eGFRT1: 5 yr after dx · T2: at diagnosisAnnually (twice yearly if abnormal)ACEi/ARB for albuminuria (UACR ≥30) or HTN; SGLT2i (eGFR ≥20); finerenone; BP <130/80
Neuropathy10-g monofilament + vibration (128 Hz) + pinprick/temperatureT1: 5 yr · T2: at diagnosisAnnuallyGlycemic control; pain: duloxetine, pregabalin/gabapentin, TCAs (avoid in elderly/cardiac), topical capsaicin
FootComprehensive foot exam; pulses; ulcer riskAt diagnosisAnnually; every visit if high riskOffloading, wound care, vascular assessment; probe-to-bone + X-ray/MRI for osteomyelitis
CardiovascularBP every visit; lipids at dx then annuallyAt diagnosisAnnuallyStatin for age 40–75 (high-intensity if ASCVD or risk factors); aspirin only for secondary prevention
AutonomicHistory: orthostasis, gastroparesis, ED, hypoglycemia unawarenessAs symptoms arise—Gastroparesis: small low-fat meals, metoclopramide (short course); orthostasis: midodrine, fludrocortisone
Chronic Complication PearlsRecognize
  • Retinopathy: nonproliferative (microaneurysms, dot-blot hemorrhages, hard exudates, cotton-wool spots) → proliferative (neovascularization = the board word) → vitreous hemorrhage, tractional detachment. Diabetes is the leading cause of new blindness in working-age adults. Pregnancy accelerates retinopathy — exam each trimester.
  • Nephropathy: earliest sign is albuminuria (30–299 mg/g = moderately increased; ≥300 = severely). Kimmelstiel-Wilson nodules on biopsy. ACEi/ARB even when normotensive if UACR ≥300; never combine ACEi + ARB.
  • Peripheral neuropathy: symmetric distal "stocking" sensory loss, ↓ ankle reflexes; loss of protective sensation → Charcot foot (warm, swollen, deformed, painless — do not mistake for cellulitis).
  • Mononeuropathy: CN III palsy with pupil-sparing ptosis and diplopia — ischemic, resolves in weeks. A pupil-involving CN III palsy is an aneurysm until proven otherwise.
  • Amyotrophy: asymmetric proximal thigh pain and weakness with weight loss in older type 2 patients; self-limited.
  • Infections: malignant otitis externa (Pseudomonas), mucormycosis (rhinocerebral, especially with DKA), emphysematous pyelonephritis, necrotizing fasciitis, Fournier gangrene.
Gestational Diabetes & Diabetes in PregnancyReference
  • Screen at 24–28 weeks (earlier if high risk): one-step 75-g fasting OGTT (any one of fasting ≥92, 1-h ≥180, 2-h ≥153 mg/dL) or two-step 50-g challenge (positive ≥130–140) → 100-g 3-h OGTT (≥2 abnormal values)
  • Treatment: nutrition + exercise first; insulin is first-line pharmacotherapy (does not cross the placenta); metformin and glyburide are alternatives with placental transfer
  • Targets: fasting <95, 1-h postprandial <140, 2-h <120 mg/dL
  • Fetal risks: macrosomia, shoulder dystocia, neonatal hypoglycemia, hyperbilirubinemia, polycythemia; pre-existing diabetes with poor early control → congenital heart and neural tube defects, caudal regression
  • Postpartum: 75-g OGTT at 4–12 weeks, then screening every 1–3 years (~50% develop type 2 within 10 years)
  • Pre-existing diabetes: preconception A1c <6.5%, folate, stop SGLT2i/GLP-1 RA/statins/ACEi-ARB; retinal exam each trimester; low-dose aspirin from 12 weeks for preeclampsia prevention
Clinical Vignette
A 61-year-old man with 12 years of type 2 diabetes presents with a warm, swollen, erythematous right midfoot. He denies pain. Temperature 37.1 °C, WBC 7,800. Radiograph shows fragmentation of the tarsal bones and joint subluxation. The foot pulses are bounding.
Answer: Charcot neuroarthropathy. Painless (neuropathic), warm, bounding pulses, and bony fragmentation without systemic signs. Treat with immobilization and total-contact casting — not antibiotics. Osteomyelitis is the distractor: it needs an ulcer or a probe-to-bone positive wound, and elevated inflammatory markers.
⚠️ BOARD TRAP — Board Traps
  • Type 1 diagnosed at age 8 → retinal and renal screening begin at age 11 or 5 years after diagnosis, whichever is later — not at diagnosis.
  • Type 2 at diagnosis → screen everything on day one; the disease has usually been present for years.
  • Albuminuria in a normotensive patient → still start an ACEi/ARB.
  • Third-nerve palsy in a diabetic with a normal pupil → ischemic microvascular palsy; a dilated pupil means aneurysm → emergent CTA.
  • Aspirin for primary prevention in diabetes is no longer routine — only for established ASCVD or selected high-risk patients.
Domain 2 · Hyperglycemic Crises & Hypoglycemia
DKA · HHS · Hypoglycemia
Before you beginDKA & HHS5 in-session
Core Topic 2 — Hyperglycemic Crises. Four in-session questions: first intervention, the potassium trap, HHS, and coming off the drip. Homework covers euglycemic DKA.
In-sessionQ1 of 5 · Medium · DKA vs HHS · Recognition
A 19-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes has 2 days of vomiting and abdominal pain after running out of insulin. HR 118, BP 96/60, RR 28 with deep respirations, fruity breath. Glucose 420 mg/dL, Na 131, K 5.4, Cl 96, HCO₃ 9 mEq/L, pH 7.14, serum ketones strongly positive. What is the most appropriate first intervention?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: E — Isotonic saline or balanced crystalloid, 1 L over the first hour
DKA management begins with volume: 1–1.5 L of isotonic crystalloid in the first hour (15–20 mL/kg), which restores perfusion, lowers glucose by dilution and improved renal clearance, and improves the acidosis before a unit of insulin is given. Insulin follows once the potassium is known to be ≥3.3 mEq/L.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Regular insulin 0.1 U/kg IV bolus, then an infusion at 0.1 U/kg/h — Insulin is the second step, never the first — fluids first, and potassium must be checked (here it is 5.4, so insulin can follow the first liter).
  • Sodium bicarbonate 100 mEq IV over 1 hour to correct the acidosis — Bicarbonate is reserved for pH <6.9; at 7.14 it adds hypokalemia and paradoxical CNS acidosis without benefit.
  • Potassium chloride 40 mEq IV over 1 hour before any other therapy — Potassium is high right now (5.4); replacement starts once K falls below 5.0–5.2, and it is not given before fluids.
  • Dextrose 5% with 0.45% saline at 250 mL/h to prevent hypoglycemia — Dextrose is added later, once glucose falls to ~200–250 mg/dL, to allow continued insulin until the gap closes.
Board pearlThe DKA order is Fluids → Potassium check → Insulin → Potassium replacement → Dextrose when glucose ~200–250 → close the gap. The first-hour answer is a liter of saline.
Covered under Topic DK-1 — DKA & HHS Management Algorithm
In-sessionQ2 of 5 · Medium · Potassium before insulin
A 34-year-old man with DKA has received 2 L of normal saline. Repeat labs: glucose 388 mg/dL, pH 7.18, HCO₃ 11, anion gap 24, K 3.0 mEq/L. Urine output is adequate. What is the next best step?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: B — Hold insulin and infuse potassium chloride 20–30 mEq/h until K ≥3.3 mEq/L
Total-body potassium in DKA is depleted by 3–5 mEq/kg even when the serum value looks normal, because acidosis and insulin deficiency shift K out of cells. Insulin drives potassium into cells and can precipitate lethal arrhythmia. If K <3.3, hold insulin and replete first. If K is 3.3–5.2, give insulin and add 20–30 mEq K per liter. If K >5.2, give insulin and recheck in 2 h.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Start the insulin infusion at 0.1 U/kg/h and add 20 mEq KCl to each liter of fluid — Starting insulin at K 3.0 risks a precipitous fall to <2.5 and arrhythmia — this is the classic trap.
  • Give an insulin bolus of 0.1 U/kg, then start the infusion — A bolus is optional at best and dangerous here for the same reason.
  • Switch fluids to D5 ½NS and start insulin — Dextrose is not yet needed (glucose 388) and insulin remains unsafe until K is repleted.
  • Give sodium bicarbonate to correct the acidosis before starting insulin — Bicarbonate is not indicated at pH 7.18 and would worsen hypokalemia.
Board pearlThe single most tested DKA number: K <3.3 mEq/L → no insulin until repleted. Every DKA patient is potassium-depleted regardless of the first serum value.
Covered under Topic DK-1 — DKA & HHS Management Algorithm
In-sessionQ3 of 5 · Medium · HHS · Recognition and management
An 81-year-old nursing-home resident with type 2 diabetes is brought in obtunded after 5 days of poor oral intake. BP 88/50, HR 124, mucous membranes dry. Glucose 1,120 mg/dL, Na 148, K 4.1, HCO₃ 21, pH 7.34, serum osmolality 372 mOsm/kg, trace ketones. What is the most likely diagnosis and the most important initial therapy?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: C — Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state; aggressive isotonic fluid resuscitation
Glucose >600, osmolality >320, pH >7.3, bicarbonate >18, minimal ketones, and altered mental status = HHS. The fluid deficit averages 8–10 L; isotonic saline restores perfusion first, then insulin at a lower rate once perfusion and potassium are addressed. Mortality (10–20%) exceeds DKA because of age, comorbidity, and delayed recognition.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Diabetic ketoacidosis; insulin infusion 0.1 U/kg/h — pH 7.34 and HCO₃ 21 with trace ketones exclude DKA; insulin before fluids in HHS worsens hypotension by shifting fluid intracellularly.
  • Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state; 3% hypertonic saline for hypernatremia — Hypertonic saline would raise an already dangerous osmolality; the sodium is high from free-water loss, and isotonic fluid is relatively hypotonic to this plasma.
  • Diabetic ketoacidosis; sodium bicarbonate for the acidosis — There is no significant acidosis to treat.
  • Hypernatremic dehydration; free water by nasogastric tube — A hypotensive patient needs intravascular volume, not enteral free water.
Board pearlHHS vs DKA in one line: older, type 2, glucose >600, osmolality >320, pH normal, ketones minimal, obtunded. Same algorithm as DKA but fluids matter even more and insulin is added more cautiously; add dextrose when glucose reaches ~250–300.
Covered under Topic DK-1 — DKA & HHS Management Algorithm
In-sessionQ4 of 5 · Medium · DKA · Transition off the drip
A 22-year-old man with DKA has been treated for 14 hours. Glucose 176 mg/dL on D5 ½NS with an insulin infusion at 2 U/h, pH 7.35, HCO₃ 19, anion gap 11, K 4.2, and he is hungry and asking for breakfast. What is the most appropriate next step?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: D — Give subcutaneous basal insulin now and stop the infusion 1–2 hours later
DKA is resolved when the anion gap closes (≤12), bicarbonate ≥15–18, and pH >7.3 — not when the glucose normalizes. IV insulin has a half-life of minutes, so subcutaneous basal insulin must be given 1–2 hours before the drip is stopped to prevent rebound ketoacidosis.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Stop the insulin infusion immediately because the glucose is normal — Stopping the drip with no subcutaneous insulin on board recreates insulin deficiency and reopens the gap within hours.
  • Continue the infusion for another 24 hours to be safe — Continuing IV insulin once the gap has closed only adds hypoglycemia risk and ICU time.
  • Stop the infusion and give sliding-scale rapid-acting insulin with meals — Sliding scale alone provides no basal coverage — the same rebound problem.
  • Reduce the infusion to 0.5 U/h and stop the dextrose — Reducing insulin and stopping dextrose is backwards: dextrose exists precisely so insulin can continue until the gap closes.
Board pearlGlucose falls before ketoacidosis resolves. Treat the gap, not the glucose: add dextrose at ~200–250 and keep insulin running until the gap closes; overlap SC basal insulin by 1–2 h.
Covered under Topic DK-1 — DKA & HHS Management Algorithm
In-sessionQ5 of 5 · Medium · Euglycemic DKA
A 58-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes on metformin and empagliflozin presents 2 days after an elective hysterectomy with nausea, malaise, and tachypnea. Glucose 205 mg/dL, HCO₃ 10, anion gap 22, β-hydroxybutyrate 6.1 mmol/L, lactate 1.2. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: A — Euglycemic diabetic ketoacidosis precipitated by an SGLT2 inhibitor
SGLT2 inhibitors lower glucose by glucosuria while surgery, fasting, and reduced insulin promote ketogenesis, producing DKA with near-normal glucose. Treat as DKA (fluids, insulin with dextrose, potassium) and stop the SGLT2 inhibitor; hold these agents 3–4 days before elective surgery.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Metformin-associated lactic acidosis unmasked by postoperative dehydration — Lactate is normal (1.2), which excludes lactic acidosis.
  • Starvation ketosis from postoperative fasting and poor oral intake — Starvation ketosis rarely lowers bicarbonate below ~18 or produces a gap this wide.
  • Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state with an atypically low glucose — HHS requires glucose >600 and hyperosmolality with minimal ketones — the opposite picture.
  • Early sepsis with metabolic acidosis from a surgical-site infection — No fever, source, or lactate elevation; ketones explain the gap.
Board pearlAny patient on an SGLT2 inhibitor with nausea, malaise, and an anion gap → check ketones even if glucose is <250. Hold SGLT2i 3–4 days before surgery, during acute illness, and in ketogenic diets.
Covered under Topic DK-1 — DKA & HHS Management Algorithm
Tier 1
Topic DK-1
DKA & HHS — Recognition and the Management Algorithm
Comparison Table · Fluids → Potassium → Insulin → Dextrose → Close the Gap · Cerebral Edema · Euglycemic DKA
★★★ PANCE Core
Why It Matters for Boards

DKA/HHS questions test sequence: what first, what before insulin, when to add dextrose, when you are done. The potassium rule alone accounts for a reliable item every exam cycle.

DKA vs HHS — The Comparison Table
DKAHHS
Typical patientType 1 (or ketosis-prone type 2, SGLT2i); younger; hours–daysType 2; older; days–weeks; impaired thirst/access to water
PrecipitantsInsulin omission, infection, new-onset T1, MI, drugs (SGLT2i, steroids, antipsychotics)Infection (UTI, pneumonia), stroke, MI, dehydration, steroids, diuretics
Glucose>250 mg/dL (often 300–600; may be <250 in euglycemic DKA)>600 mg/dL (often >1,000)
KetonesPositive (β-hydroxybutyrate ≥3 mmol/L)Negative or trace
pH<7.30 (severe <7.0)>7.30
Bicarbonate<18 mEq/L (severe <10)>18 mEq/L
Anion gap>12 (elevated)Normal or mildly elevated
Serum osmolalityVariable (often <320)>320 mOsm/kg
Neurologic symptomsMild; obtundation only when severeProminent — obtundation, seizures, focal deficits
Exam cluesKussmaul respirations, fruity breath, abdominal pain, vomitingProfound dehydration, hypotension, altered mental status
Fluid deficit~6 L (100 mL/kg)~9 L (100–200 mL/kg)
Mortality<1% (higher with cerebral edema in children)10–20%
Treatment differencesInsulin 0.1 U/kg/h (bolus optional); dextrose at glucose ~200–250Fluids dominate; insulin 0.05–0.1 U/kg/h once perfusion restored; dextrose at ~250–300; target osmolality fall ≤3 mOsm/kg/h
The Management Algorithm — Same Skeleton for BothMemorize
1. Recognize. Glucose + ketones/β-hydroxybutyrate + VBG/BMP (anion gap) + osmolality. Find the precipitant (ECG for MI, cultures, urinalysis, pregnancy test).
↓
2. IV fluids. 1–1.5 L isotonic crystalloid in the first hour (15–20 mL/kg), then 250–500 mL/h. Switch to ½NS if corrected Na is normal/high. Fluids alone drop glucose 35–70 mg/dL/h.
↓
3. CHECK POTASSIUM before insulin. K <3.3 → hold insulin, give KCl 20–30 mEq/h. K 3.3–5.2 → insulin + 20–30 mEq K per liter. K >5.2 → insulin, recheck in 2 h.
↓
4. Insulin. Regular insulin 0.1 U/kg/h IV (bolus 0.1 U/kg optional). Goal: glucose falls 50–75 mg/dL/h. If it does not fall ≥10% in the first hour, double the rate.
↓
5. Potassium management. Target K 4–5 mEq/L; check every 2–4 h. Replace phosphate only if <1 mg/dL or with cardiac/respiratory compromise. Magnesium if low (refractory hypokalemia).
↓
6. Add dextrose (D5 or D10 with ½NS) when glucose reaches ~200–250 (DKA) or ~250–300 (HHS) — so insulin can continue.
↓
7. Close the gap. DKA resolved: gap ≤12, HCO₃ ≥15–18, pH >7.3, glucose <200. HHS resolved: osmolality <320, mental status normal. Give SC basal insulin, overlap 1–2 h, then stop the drip. Feed the patient.
Special SituationsReference
  • Bicarbonate: only if pH <6.9 (100 mEq in 400 mL sterile water with 20 mEq KCl over 2 h). It worsens hypokalemia, shifts the oxygen curve, and can cause paradoxical CNS acidosis.
  • Cerebral edema (children): headache, bradycardia, altered mental status 4–12 h into treatment. Risk rises with rapid osmolality correction and early bolus insulin. Treat with mannitol or 3% saline; slow the fluids.
  • Corrected sodium: measured Na + 1.6 mEq/L for every 100 mg/dL glucose above 100 (some use 2.4). Guides tonicity of fluids; a normal measured Na with glucose of 900 is actually hypernatremia.
  • Hyperchloremic non-gap acidosis late in treatment is expected from saline and ketone excretion — it does not mean ongoing DKA. Follow the gap, not the bicarbonate alone.
  • Euglycemic DKA: SGLT2 inhibitors, pregnancy, starvation, alcohol. Glucose <250 with ketoacidosis. Same treatment, plus dextrose from the start.
  • Abdominal pain + leukocytosis + amylase elevation are common in DKA itself; pancreatitis is a distractor unless lipase is markedly high and pain persists after acidosis resolves.
  • Mucormycosis: DKA + black nasal eschar or facial pain → emergent ENT debridement + amphotericin B.
⚠️ BOARD TRAP — Board Traps
  • Insulin before fluids → hypotension worsens as water follows glucose into cells.
  • Insulin with K <3.3 → arrhythmia. Hold and replete.
  • Stopping insulin because glucose is 180 → the gap reopens. Add dextrose; continue insulin until the gap closes.
  • Stopping the drip without SC basal overlap → rebound DKA in 2–4 hours.
  • Bicarbonate for pH 7.1 → not indicated; threshold is 6.9.
  • Normal potassium on the first BMP → still total-body depleted; plan replacement.
  • Glucose 200 with an anion gap in a patient on empagliflozin → euglycemic DKA, not gastroenteritis.
★ Memory Trick
F-K-I-K-D-G: Fluids → K check → Insulin → K replete → Dextrose → Gap closed. "No K, no insulin" — 3.3 is the line. Dextrose at 200 (DKA) / 250 (HHS). Done when the GAP closes, not the glucose.
Tier 1
Topic DK-2
Hypoglycemia — Treatment Sequence and the Non-Diabetic Workup
Levels 1–3 · Rule of 15 · Glucagon · Sulfonylurea Overdose · Insulinoma vs Factitious (C-peptide)
★★★ PANCE Core
Why It Matters for Boards

Hypoglycemia is tested three ways: the treatment sequence in a diabetic, the insulinoma vs factitious workup in a non-diabetic, and the drug most likely to have caused it.

Definitions and Recognition
LevelGlucoseMeaning
Level 154–69 mg/dLAlert value — treat and adjust regimen
Level 2<54 mg/dLClinically important; neuroglycopenia likely
Level 3Any value with altered mental/physical state requiring assistanceSevere — glucagon or IV dextrose
  • Adrenergic symptoms (glucose ~55–70): tremor, palpitations, diaphoresis, anxiety, hunger — blunted by β-blockers (sweating persists) and by hypoglycemia unawareness after recurrent episodes
  • Neuroglycopenic symptoms (<50): confusion, behavioral change, focal deficits, seizure, coma
  • Whipple triad (required to pursue hypoglycemia in a non-diabetic): symptoms + documented low glucose + relief with glucose
Treatment — The Rule of 15 and When to Use GlucagonMemorize
Conscious and able to swallow: 15–20 g fast-acting carbohydrate (4 oz juice, glucose tablets). Recheck in 15 min; repeat if still <70. Then eat a meal/snack.
↓
Unable or unwilling to take oral carbohydrate (out of hospital): glucagon 1 mg IM/SC or 3 mg intranasal; repeat once at 15 min if no response. Roll on the side (vomiting). Glucagon needs hepatic glycogen — less effective after prolonged fasting, alcohol, or liver disease.
↓
In hospital / IV access: dextrose 50% 25 g (or D10 100–250 mL) IV; then D10 infusion if the cause is long-acting (sulfonylurea, long-acting insulin).
↓
Sulfonylurea overdose: hypoglycemia recurs for 24–72 h — admit, D10 infusion, and octreotide to suppress insulin release.
Hypoglycemia in the Non-Diabetic — Insulinoma vs Factitious vs OtherRecognize
During hypoglycemia (72-h fast)InsulinC-peptideProinsulinSulfonylurea screenDiagnosis
Insulinoma↑↑↑NegativeEndogenous hyperinsulinism → CT/MRI, endoscopic US → surgical resection; diazoxide/octreotide to bridge. Think MEN1.
Exogenous insulin (factitious)↑↑↓ (suppressed)↓NegativeInjected insulin has no C-peptide — health-care worker, access to insulin
Sulfonylurea (factitious or accidental)↑↑↑PositiveLooks exactly like insulinoma until the drug screen
Non-insulin causes↓↓↓NegativeAdrenal insufficiency, alcohol (blocks gluconeogenesis), sepsis, liver failure, non-islet tumors (IGF-2), post-bariatric dumping
⚠️ BOARD TRAP — Board Traps
  • Glucagon in a chronic alcoholic or after a 3-day fast → may fail (no glycogen); give IV dextrose (and thiamine before or with it).
  • Sulfonylurea hypoglycemia treated with one amp of D50 and discharged → recurs; admit for 24–72 h with D10 ± octreotide.
  • High insulin + high C-peptide → insulinoma or sulfonylurea; the drug screen decides.
  • Hypoglycemia unawareness → relax the glycemic target for several weeks to restore awareness; CGM with alarms.
  • β-blockers mask tremor and palpitations but not sweating.
★ Memory Trick
Rule of 15: 15 g → 15 min → recheck. C-peptide is the receipt for home-made insulin. No receipt = injected. Sulfonylurea = insulinoma labs + positive drug screen → octreotide.
Read the labsHypoglycemia2 in-session
Two questions. The first is the treatment sequence; the second is a labs-only read.
In-sessionQ1 of 2 · Medium · Hypoglycemia · First action
A 70-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes on glyburide and metformin is found by her daughter confused and diaphoretic at home. Fingerstick glucose 38 mg/dL. She is drowsy but can swallow. Which is the best initial action?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: B — Give 15–20 g of oral fast-acting carbohydrate and recheck glucose in 15 minutes
She is conscious with an intact swallow, so oral fast-acting carbohydrate is first-line: 15–20 g, recheck in 15 minutes, repeat if <70, then a meal. Because glyburide is long-acting, she needs emergency evaluation and probable admission for recurrent hypoglycemia.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Administer intramuscular glucagon 1 mg and recheck glucose in 15 minutes — Glucagon is for patients who cannot or will not take oral carbohydrate; she can swallow.
  • Give a peanut-butter sandwich and a glass of milk, then recheck in 30 minutes — Fat and protein slow glucose absorption — use them after fast-acting carbohydrate, not instead of it.
  • Withhold all food and drink until emergency services arrive and establish IV access — Withholding treatment risks seizure and coma.
  • Give 4 oz of orange juice and skip the recheck since she is awake and can swallow — The 15-minute recheck is the point of the rule — sulfonylurea hypoglycemia recurs.
Board pearlOral if she can swallow, glucagon if she can't, IV dextrose if you have a line. Sulfonylurea → this will come back for up to 72 h — admit.
Covered under Topic DK-2 — Hypoglycemia
Read the labsQ2 of 2 · Medium · Read the labs · Hypoglycemia workup
Glucose 41 mg/dL
Insulin ↑↑
C-peptide ↓ (undetectable)
Proinsulin ↓
Sulfonylurea screen negative
A 44-year-old ICU nurse with no history of diabetes has recurrent episodes of confusion and sweating relieved by eating. During a supervised fast she becomes symptomatic. Commit to a diagnosis.
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: D — Surreptitious insulin injection
High insulin with a suppressed C-peptide means the insulin did not come from her pancreas — it was injected. Endogenous secretion (insulinoma, sulfonylurea) always releases C-peptide with insulin in a 1:1 ratio.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Insulinoma of the pancreatic tail — Insulinoma raises insulin, C-peptide, and proinsulin together.
  • Surreptitious sulfonylurea ingestion — Sulfonylureas stimulate endogenous release — C-peptide would be high and the drug screen positive.
  • Primary adrenal insufficiency — Adrenal insufficiency produces hypoglycemia with low insulin.
  • Alcohol-induced hypoglycemia — Alcohol blocks gluconeogenesis; insulin would be appropriately suppressed.
Board pearlInsulin ↑ + C-peptide ↓ = exogenous. Insulin ↑ + C-peptide ↑ = insulinoma vs sulfonylurea → drug screen.
Covered under Topic DK-2 — Hypoglycemia
VariationVariation — Same DKA, One Thing Different2 variations
Answer these two before you read the topics. Getting them wrong is expected and useful — attempting a question first is what makes the material below stick. Each explanation unlocks only after you submit.
VariationQ1 of 2 · Variation · DKA
Glucose 480   pH 7.12   HCO3 9   AG 26   K 3.0
↻ One variable changed: potassium now 3.0
A 24-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes presents with DKA: glucose 480, pH 7.12, bicarbonate 9, anion gap 26. After the first liter of saline, potassium returns at 3.0 mEq/L. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: C — Hold insulin; replace potassium to ≥3.3, then start
Total-body potassium is severely depleted in DKA; insulin drives potassium into cells and can cause arrhythmia and respiratory muscle failure. Potassium <3.3 = hold insulin, replace potassium, then start.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Start the insulin infusion at 0.1 U/kg/h — Strongest distractor: starting insulin — the standard next step when potassium is ≥3.3, but at 3.0 it is dangerous
  • Give sodium bicarbonate 100 mEq over one hour for the acidemia — Bicarbonate is reserved for pH <6.9 and worsens hypokalemia
  • Add dextrose to the IV fluids now and continue at the current rate — Dextrose is added when glucose reaches ~200–250, not at 480
  • Give an insulin bolus of 0.1 U/kg, then start the infusion — A bolus is optional and never precedes potassium repletion when K is low
Board pearlDKA order: fluids → check K → insulin only when K ≥3.3.
Covered under Covered below under Topic DK-1
VariationQ2 of 2 · Variation · DKA
Glucose 210   HCO3 13   AG 20
↻ One variable changed: glucose normalized, gap still open
Same patient, 6 hours later: glucose is 210 mg/dL, but bicarbonate is 13 and the anion gap is still 20. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: B — Add dextrose to the fluids; continue the insulin infusion
Glucose normalizes before ketoacidosis resolves. The infusion continues until the anion gap closes; dextrose is added so insulin can keep suppressing ketogenesis without hypoglycemia. Stop the drip only after SC basal has been on board 1–2 hours.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Stop the insulin infusion and start subcutaneous basal insulin — Strongest distractor: stopping the infusion at a normal glucose — the classic error; the gap, not the glucose, defines resolution
  • Halve the insulin infusion rate and stop fluids — Halving the rate delays ketone clearance; rate reduction is acceptable only with dextrose running
  • Give sodium bicarbonate 100 mEq to close the anion gap faster — Bicarbonate does not treat ketogenesis
  • Transition to sliding-scale rapid-acting insulin every 4 hours — Sliding scale has no role in resolving DKA
Board pearlGlucose 200 with an open gap = add dextrose, keep the drip.
Covered under Covered below under Topic DK-1
Domain 3 · Thyroid — Second-Largest Endocrine Domain
Thyroid: TSH-First Testing, Hypo, Hyper, Thyroiditis, Nodules, Emergencies
Before you beginThyroid Disorders6 in-session
Core Topic 3 — Thyroid. In-session: starting levothyroxine safely, the etiologic test in thyrotoxicosis, the RAI/ophthalmopathy trap, and nodule triage. Homework: subclinical disease and absorption.
In-sessionQ1 of 6 · Medium · Hypothyroidism · Starting therapy
A 74-year-old woman with coronary artery disease and paroxysmal atrial fibrillation has fatigue, constipation, and cold intolerance. TSH 34 mIU/L, free T4 0.4 ng/dL. Which is the most appropriate initial management?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: E — Start levothyroxine 25 µg daily and recheck TSH in 6–8 weeks
Overt primary hypothyroidism → levothyroxine. In older patients or those with CAD or arrhythmia, start low (12.5–25 µg) and titrate every 6–8 weeks, because abrupt full replacement raises myocardial oxygen demand and can precipitate angina or AF.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Start levothyroxine at full replacement (1.6 µg/kg) daily — Full weight-based dosing (1.6 µg/kg) is correct for young, healthy patients — the trap here is the age and cardiac history.
  • Start liothyronine (T3) 25 µg daily for faster symptom relief — T3 has a short half-life, causes peaks that provoke arrhythmia, and has no role in routine hypothyroidism.
  • Start desiccated thyroid extract 60 mg twice daily — Desiccated extract has variable T3 content and is not recommended.
  • Observe and repeat thyroid function tests in 6 months — TSH 34 with symptoms is overt disease; observation is for subclinical disease with TSH <10.
Board pearlLevothyroxine dosing: 1.6 µg/kg in the young and healthy; 12.5–25 µg in the elderly or cardiac patient. Recheck TSH at 6–8 weeks (the T4 half-life is 7 days — steady state takes 5–6 weeks).
Covered under Topic T-1 — Hypothyroidism
In-sessionQ2 of 6 · Medium · Thyrotoxicosis · Next test
A 31-year-old woman has 3 months of palpitations, heat intolerance, and a 6-kg weight loss. The thyroid is diffusely enlarged and non-tender with a bruit. She has lid lag but no proptosis. TSH <0.01 mIU/L, free T4 3.4 ng/dL. Which test best establishes the etiology?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: C — Radioactive iodine uptake and scan
Thyrotoxicosis is confirmed (TSH suppressed, FT4 high). The etiologic question is answered by radioiodine uptake: diffusely increased = Graves; focal hot nodule = toxic adenoma; patchy = toxic MNG; low/absent = thyroiditis, exogenous hormone, or iodine load. TRAb/TSI is an acceptable alternative when Graves is suspected and RAIU is unavailable or contraindicated (pregnancy).
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Thyroid ultrasound with Doppler — Ultrasound characterizes nodules; it cannot reliably separate Graves from thyroiditis (Doppler flow is suggestive but not diagnostic).
  • Serum thyroglobulin level — Thyroglobulin is low in exogenous thyroid hormone ingestion — useful only for that specific question.
  • Fine-needle aspiration of the gland — FNA is for nodules, never for diffuse thyrotoxicosis.
  • Anti-thyroid peroxidase antibodies — Anti-TPO is the Hashimoto antibody; it is positive in many Graves patients too and does not define the cause of hyperthyroidism.
Board pearlTSH → free T4 → RAIU/scan (or TRAb). High uptake = the gland is making hormone (treat the gland). Low uptake = hormone is leaking or being swallowed (treat symptoms).
Covered under Topic T-2 — Thyrotoxicosis
In-sessionQ3 of 6 · Medium · Graves · Treatment selection
A 28-year-old woman with Graves disease has moderate active ophthalmopathy (proptosis, periorbital edema, diplopia). She smokes. She is not pregnant. Which treatment is most appropriate for her hyperthyroidism?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: A — Methimazole
Radioactive iodine can worsen Graves ophthalmopathy, especially in smokers and those with active eye disease. Methimazole (first-line thionamide) or thyroidectomy after euthyroidism are preferred; if RAI is still chosen, prophylactic glucocorticoids are required.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Radioactive iodine ablation — This is the trap — RAI is often first-line in the US for uncomplicated Graves but is relatively contraindicated with active moderate-to-severe eye disease.
  • Propylthiouracil — PTU is reserved for the first trimester of pregnancy and thyroid storm because of hepatotoxicity.
  • Total thyroidectomy without pretreatment — Surgery requires a euthyroid state (thionamide ± iodine) beforehand to avoid intraoperative storm.
  • Propranolol alone — β-blockers control symptoms but do not treat the disease.
Board pearlRAI is contraindicated in pregnancy/lactation and relatively contraindicated with active ophthalmopathy. Methimazole is first-line except in the first trimester (PTU) and thyroid storm (PTU preferred).
Covered under Topic T-2 — Thyrotoxicosis
In-sessionQ4 of 6 · Medium · Thyroid nodule · Next step
A 45-year-old woman has an incidental 1.8-cm hypoechoic solid thyroid nodule with irregular margins and microcalcifications on ultrasound. TSH is 1.9 mIU/L. What is the next best step?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: B — Ultrasound-guided fine-needle aspiration
Nodule workup: TSH first. Normal or high TSH → ultrasound → FNA based on size and sonographic risk (TI-RADS): high-suspicion features (hypoechoic, irregular margins, microcalcifications, taller-than-wide) → FNA at ≥1 cm. Cytology is reported by the Bethesda system.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Radioactive iodine uptake and scan — RAIU/scan is only for a nodule with a low TSH, to identify a hot (autonomous, almost never malignant) nodule that does not need FNA.
  • Repeat ultrasound in 12 months — Surveillance is for low-risk patterns or sub-centimeter nodules; high-suspicion features at 1.8 cm require tissue.
  • Serum calcitonin and thyroglobulin — Calcitonin is not routinely obtained; thyroglobulin is a post-thyroidectomy tumor marker, not a diagnostic test.
  • Start levothyroxine to suppress the nodule — Levothyroxine suppression therapy is no longer recommended and does not reduce malignancy risk.
Board pearlNodule algorithm: TSH → (low: scan; hot nodule = no FNA) · (normal/high: ultrasound → FNA if ≥1 cm with high or intermediate suspicion, ≥1.5 cm low suspicion, ≥2 cm very low suspicion). No routine FNA <1 cm.
Covered under Topic T-4 — Nodules & Cancer
In-sessionQ5 of 6 · Medium · Subclinical hypothyroidism
A 58-year-old asymptomatic woman has TSH 7.2 mIU/L with a normal free T4, confirmed on repeat 8 weeks later. Anti-TPO antibodies are positive. Lipids are normal and she is not planning pregnancy. What is the most appropriate management?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: C — Monitor TSH every 6–12 months without treatment for now
Subclinical hypothyroidism (TSH high, FT4 normal): treat when TSH ≥10, and consider treatment for TSH 4.5–10 when symptomatic, pregnant or planning pregnancy, or with goiter/strong anti-TPO positivity in younger patients. In an asymptomatic 58-year-old with TSH 7.2, monitoring is reasonable; anti-TPO positivity predicts progression (~4%/yr) and justifies closer follow-up.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Start levothyroxine 50 µg daily and recheck in 6–8 weeks — Treatment is not mandatory below TSH 10 in an asymptomatic older adult; overtreatment causes AF and bone loss.
  • Start liothyronine 25 µg daily and recheck in 6–8 weeks — T3 has no role.
  • Order a radioactive iodine uptake scan to characterize the gland — RAIU is for hyperthyroidism etiology.
  • Refer for total thyroidectomy given the positive antibodies — Surgery is not indicated for autoimmune hypothyroidism.
Board pearlSubclinical hypo: TSH ≥10 → treat. TSH 4.5–10 → treat if symptomatic, pregnant/trying, or young with positive antibodies; otherwise monitor. Always confirm on repeat before acting.
Covered under Topic T-1 — Hypothyroidism
In-sessionQ6 of 6 · Medium · Levothyroxine absorption
A 40-year-old woman with Hashimoto thyroiditis has been stable on levothyroxine 100 µg for 3 years. She recently started calcium carbonate, a daily iron supplement, and omeprazole. Her TSH is now 11 mIU/L. What is the most likely explanation?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: E — Impaired levothyroxine absorption from the new medications
Calcium, iron, PPIs, sucralfate, bile-acid resins, soy, and coffee reduce levothyroxine absorption. Take levothyroxine on an empty stomach 30–60 minutes before breakfast and separate it from calcium/iron by 4 hours. Recheck TSH 6–8 weeks after any change.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Progression of Hashimoto thyroiditis requiring a higher dose — Possible but far less likely than three new absorption-blocking drugs started at once.
  • Development of a TSH-secreting pituitary adenoma — TSH-omas are exceedingly rare and present with high FT4.
  • Conversion of Hashimoto disease to Graves disease — Conversion to Graves would suppress TSH, not raise it.
  • Laboratory error from biotin interference — Biotin lowers TSH results (mimicking hyperthyroidism).
Board pearlRising TSH on a stable dose → ask about calcium, iron, PPI, pregnancy, estrogen, and adherence before raising the dose. Pregnancy requires a 25–30% dose increase as soon as it is confirmed.
Covered under Topic T-1 — Hypothyroidism
Tier 1
Topic T-1
Hypothyroidism & the TSH-First Strategy
TSH → FT4 · Hashimoto · Primary vs Central · Levothyroxine Dosing · Subclinical Disease · Myxedema Coma
★★★ PANCE Core
Testing Strategy — TSH FirstMemorize
Serum TSH — best single screen (log-linear inverse relation to FT4). Normal TSH ends the workup unless pituitary disease is suspected.
↓
Abnormal TSH → add free T4. T3 is useful only in suspected T3 toxicosis; it has no role in diagnosing hypothyroidism.
↓
Antibodies: anti-TPO (Hashimoto), TRAb/TSI (Graves). RAIU/scan for the cause of hyperthyroidism. Ultrasound for nodules.
TSHFree T4InterpretationNext
↑↓Primary (overt) hypothyroidismLevothyroxine; anti-TPO optional
↑NormalSubclinical hypothyroidismRepeat in 6–8 wk; treat if TSH ≥10 or indicated
↓ or inappropriately normal↓Central (secondary) hypothyroidismPituitary MRI; check cortisol before starting levothyroxine
↓↑Primary hyperthyroidism / thyrotoxicosisRAIU or TRAb
↓NormalSubclinical hyperthyroidism (check T3 for T3 toxicosis)Treat if TSH <0.1 with age ≥65, osteoporosis, or AF
Normal or ↑↑TSH-oma or thyroid hormone resistance (rare); assay interference (biotin)Repeat off biotin; α-subunit; MRI
Normal / ↓↓ T3, normal/↓ T4Euthyroid sick (nonthyroidal illness)Do not treat; recheck after recovery
Hypothyroidism — Recognize → Test → Confirm → Treat → Don't Miss
Recognize
Fatigue, weight gain, cold intolerance, constipation, dry skin, brittle hair, menorrhagia, depression, bradycardia, delayed relaxation of reflexes, periorbital edema, hoarseness; hyperlipidemia, hyponatremia, macrocytosis, ↑CK
First test
TSH
Confirm
TSH ↑ + free T4 ↓ (anti-TPO positive in Hashimoto)
First-line treatment
Levothyroxine 1.6 µg/kg/day (12.5–25 µg start if elderly/CAD); recheck TSH 6–8 wk; empty stomach
Don't miss
Myxedema coma · central hypothyroidism (give steroids first) · overtreatment in the elderly (AF, fractures)
CauseClueKey point
Hashimoto (chronic lymphocytic) thyroiditisMost common cause in iodine-sufficient regions; women 30–50; painless goiter; anti-TPO +Increased risk of primary thyroid lymphoma; associated with other autoimmune disease (T1DM, celiac, Addison, pernicious anemia)
IatrogenicPost-RAI, post-thyroidectomy, neck irradiationMost common cause overall in treated Graves patients
DrugsAmiodarone, lithium, interferon-α, immune checkpoint inhibitors, tyrosine kinase inhibitorsAmiodarone can cause hypo- or hyperthyroidism (iodine load)
Iodine deficiencyMost common cause worldwide; goiterRare in the US
Central (secondary/tertiary)Low/normal TSH with low FT4; other pituitary deficits; headache, visual field cutReplace cortisol before thyroid hormone; follow FT4, not TSH
CongenitalNewborn screening (TSH) mandatory; treat by 2 weeks to prevent intellectual disabilityMost common preventable cause of intellectual disability

🩺 Pregnancy: increase levothyroxine 25–30% as soon as pregnancy is confirmed; target trimester-specific TSH (roughly <2.5 in the first trimester). Untreated maternal hypothyroidism impairs fetal neurodevelopment.

Primary vs Secondary Hypothyroidism
PrimarySecondary (central)
TSH↑↓ or inappropriately normal
Free T4↓↓
CauseThyroid gland (Hashimoto, ablation, drugs, iodine)Pituitary/hypothalamic (adenoma, surgery, radiation, Sheehan, apoplexy, infiltration)
Associated findingsGoiter, anti-TPO, other autoimmune diseaseHypogonadism, adrenal insufficiency, GH deficiency, headache, bitemporal hemianopsia
MonitoringTSHFree T4 (TSH is useless)
Trap—Start hydrocortisone before levothyroxine or you precipitate adrenal crisis
Myxedema Coma — EmergencyRecognize
  • Recognize: elderly woman with untreated hypothyroidism + precipitant (infection, cold, sedatives, MI) → hypothermia, bradycardia, hypotension, hypoventilation with hypercapnia, hyponatremia, hypoglycemia, altered mental status ("coma" is a misnomer — usually lethargy/confusion)
  • Labs: TSH markedly ↑ (unless central), FT4 ↓; check cortisol; ECG (bradycardia, low voltage); treat empirically — do not wait
  • Treatment: ICU; IV levothyroxine (200–400 µg load, then 50–100 µg daily; ± IV liothyronine); stress-dose hydrocortisone (100 mg q8h) until adrenal insufficiency is excluded; passive rewarming; treat the precipitant; supportive ventilation; cautious fluids (hyponatremia)
  • Mortality 30–60% — highest of the endocrine emergencies
⚠️ BOARD TRAP — Board Traps
  • Central hypothyroidism + levothyroxine alone → adrenal crisis. Give hydrocortisone first, thyroid hormone second.
  • Low T3 in an ICU patient → euthyroid sick syndrome; do not treat.
  • Elderly patient started on full-dose levothyroxine → angina, AF. Start at 12.5–25 µg.
  • Rechecking TSH 2 weeks after a dose change → too early; wait 6–8 weeks.
  • Amiodarone patient with new hypothyroidism → continue amiodarone if needed, add levothyroxine.
  • Hashimoto patient with a rapidly enlarging, firm goiter → thyroid lymphoma; biopsy.
★ Memory Trick
TSH is the thermostat. High TSH = the furnace (thyroid) is broken. Low TSH + low T4 = the thermostat (pituitary) is broken → check the rest of the house (cortisol). Myxedema coma: cold, slow, low (Na, glucose, BP) → warm, T4, steroids.
Tier 1
Topic T-2
Thyrotoxicosis — Graves, Toxic Nodules, Thionamides, Thyroid Storm
Five-Way Comparison · RAIU Pattern · Methimazole vs PTU · RAI Contraindications · Storm Sequence (Iodine AFTER Thionamide)
★★★ PANCE Core
Thyrotoxicosis — Recognize → Test → Confirm → Treat → Don't Miss
Recognize
Weight loss with good appetite, heat intolerance, palpitations, tremor, anxiety, insomnia, diarrhea, oligomenorrhea, proximal weakness, lid lag/stare, warm moist skin, AF in the elderly (may be "apathetic")
First test
TSH (suppressed) → free T4 (± T3)
Confirm
RAIU/scan pattern or TRAb/TSI
First-line treatment
β-blocker for symptoms + definitive therapy by cause (methimazole / RAI / surgery; NSAIDs-steroids for thyroiditis)
Don't miss
Thyroid storm · agranulocytosis on thionamides · RAI in pregnancy or active eye disease · AF/osteoporosis in the elderly
The Five-Way Thyrotoxicosis TableMemorize
Graves diseaseToxic adenomaToxic multinodular goiterThyroiditis (subacute / painless / postpartum)Exogenous thyroid hormone
TSH↓↓↓↓↓
Free T4 / T3↑ (T3 often disproportionately ↑)↑ (T3 toxicosis common)↑↑ (transient)↑ T4 (LT4) or ↑ T3 with low T4 (liothyronine)
RAI uptakeDiffusely ↑↑ in nodulePatchy ↑↓ / absent↓ / absent
Uptake patternHomogeneous, whole glandSingle hot nodule, rest suppressedMultiple hot and cold areasNear-zero uptakeNear-zero uptake
AntibodiesTRAb / TSI positiveNegativeNegativeAnti-TPO ± (painless/postpartum); negative (subacute)Negative
Clinical cluesYoung woman; diffuse goiter with bruit; ophthalmopathy (proptosis, diplopia); pretibial myxedema; acropachySolitary nodule; older; no eye signsElderly; long-standing nodular goiter; iodine load (amiodarone, contrast) unmasks it (Jod-Basedow)Painful tender gland after viral URI + ↑ESR (subacute); painless postpartum; triphasic courseWeight-loss supplements, factitious use; low thyroglobulin; small gland
TreatmentMethimazole (PTU 1st trimester) · RAI (not in pregnancy/eye disease) · thyroidectomyRAI or lobectomyRAI or thyroidectomy (large goiter/compression)β-blocker + NSAIDs/steroids for pain; thionamides do NOT workStop the hormone
Graves Disease — Specifics
  • Autoimmune: TSH-receptor stimulating antibodies (TRAb/TSI); most common cause of hyperthyroidism; women 20–40; HLA-DR3
  • Extrathyroidal signs occur ONLY in Graves: ophthalmopathy (proptosis, periorbital edema, diplopia, lid retraction — lid lag alone occurs in any thyrotoxicosis), pretibial myxedema (infiltrative dermopathy), thyroid acropachy
  • Methimazole first-line (once daily; less hepatotoxic); 12–18 months then attempt withdrawal (remission ~30–50%). PTU first trimester (methimazole causes aplasia cutis, choanal/esophageal atresia) and in thyroid storm; switch to methimazole after the first trimester (PTU hepatotoxicity)
  • Both thionamides: agranulocytosis (~0.3%; stop immediately and check CBC for fever/sore throat — do not monitor routinely), hepatotoxicity, rash, arthralgia, ANCA vasculitis (PTU)
  • Radioactive iodine (I-131): definitive; causes permanent hypothyroidism (expected); contraindicated in pregnancy, lactation, and severe/active ophthalmopathy (or cover with steroids); pretreat elderly/cardiac patients with methimazole; pregnancy test first; avoid pregnancy 6 months
  • Thyroidectomy: large goiter, compressive symptoms, coexisting nodule/cancer, pregnancy intolerant of thionamides, severe eye disease; render euthyroid first; risks: recurrent laryngeal nerve injury, hypoparathyroidism
  • Ophthalmopathy: stop smoking; selenium (mild); glucocorticoids or teprotumumab (moderate–severe active); orbital decompression for optic neuropathy
Thyroid Storm — EmergencyMemorize
  • Recognize: known or undiagnosed hyperthyroidism + precipitant (infection, surgery, RAI, iodine load, DKA, trauma, thionamide withdrawal) → fever (often >40 °C), tachycardia/AF out of proportion, agitation → delirium → coma, vomiting/diarrhea, jaundice, heart failure. Burch-Wartofsky score ≥45 supports. Hormone levels do not differ from uncomplicated thyrotoxicosis — it is a clinical diagnosis.
  • Treatment in this order:
1. β-blocker — propranolol (also blocks T4→T3 conversion) or esmolol; controls HR, tremor, agitation. Caution in decompensated HF.
↓
2. Thionamide — PTU preferred (blocks synthesis and peripheral T4→T3 conversion); methimazole acceptable. Give before iodine.
↓
3. Iodine — SSKI or Lugol solution ≥1 hour after the thionamide (Wolff-Chaikoff: blocks release). Given first, iodine feeds synthesis → worse storm.
↓
4. Glucocorticoid — hydrocortisone 100 mg IV q8h: blocks T4→T3 conversion and treats possible relative adrenal insufficiency.
↓
5. Supportive + precipitant — cooling (acetaminophen, not aspirin — displaces T4 from TBG), fluids, treat infection; cholestyramine to bind enterohepatic T4; plasmapheresis if refractory. Definitive therapy once stable.
⚠️ BOARD TRAP — Board Traps
  • Iodine before the thionamide in thyroid storm → fuels hormone synthesis. Thionamide first, iodine ≥1 hour later.
  • Aspirin for fever in thyroid storm → displaces T4 from binding proteins; use acetaminophen and cooling.
  • Methimazole in the first trimester → aplasia cutis, choanal atresia. PTU first trimester, then switch.
  • Thyrotoxicosis with low RAIU → thyroiditis or exogenous. Thionamides and RAI will not help.
  • Routine CBC monitoring on methimazole → not done; instruct the patient to stop and get a CBC for fever/sore throat.
  • Elderly patient with weight loss, AF, depression, and no tremor → apathetic thyrotoxicosis; check TSH.
  • Amiodarone-induced thyrotoxicosis: type 1 (iodine load, underlying nodular disease → thionamide) vs type 2 (destructive thyroiditis → steroids).
★ Memory Trick
Storm sequence: Beta → Block → (wait an hour) → Iodine → Steroids. "B-B-I-S." Eye + shin + finger clubbing = Graves only. Low uptake = leak or pills.
Tier 1
Topic T-3
Thyroiditis — Subacute, Painless, Postpartum, Drug-Induced
Triphasic Course · Low Uptake · NSAIDs/Steroids, Not Thionamides
★★★ PANCE Core
Thyroiditis — Compare the CausesRecognize
TypeCluePainLabsRAIUCourseTreatment
Subacute granulomatous (de Quervain)Weeks after viral URI; middle-aged woman; malaise, feverExquisitely tender gland; pain radiates to jaw/ear↑ESR, ↑CRP, low thyroglobulin release ↑; antibodies negative↓Thyrotoxic (2–8 wk) → hypothyroid (weeks–months) → recovery; ~10–15% permanent hypothyroidismNSAIDs/aspirin; prednisone if severe; β-blocker for symptoms; levothyroxine for symptomatic hypothyroid phase (temporary)
Painless (silent) lymphocyticVariant of Hashimoto; anti-TPO +NoneAnti-TPO +↓Same triphasic course; higher rate of permanent hypothyroidismβ-blocker; observe
PostpartumWithin 12 months of delivery (or miscarriage); anti-TPO +; ↑ in T1DMNoneAnti-TPO +↓ (RAI contraindicated if breastfeeding anyway)Thyrotoxic 1–4 mo → hypothyroid 4–8 mo → recovery; ~20–30% permanent; recurs in later pregnanciesβ-blocker; levothyroxine for hypothyroid phase; annual TSH
Hashimoto (chronic)Most common; goiter; hypothyroidismNoneAnti-TPO +, anti-Tg +VariableProgressive hypothyroidism; rare transient "Hashitoxicosis"Levothyroxine
Drug-inducedAmiodarone (type 2 = destructive), lithium, interferon, checkpoint inhibitors (nivolumab, pembrolizumab)NoneVaries↓Hypo or hyper; checkpoint inhibitors → thyroiditis then hypothyroidism (also hypophysitis)Steroids (amio type 2); stop drug if possible; replace
Acute suppurative (infectious)Bacterial (Staph, Strep); child with pyriform sinus fistula; immunocompromisedTender, erythema, fever, fluctuance↑WBC; thyroid function usually normalNormalAbscessIV antibiotics; drainage
Riedel (fibrous)Rock-hard, fixed, painless goiter with compression; IgG4-relatedNoneHypothyroid in 30%↓Fibrosis extends into neckSteroids, tamoxifen; surgery for airway
⚠️ BOARD TRAP — Board Traps
  • Painful thyroid + thyrotoxicosis + ↑ESR → subacute thyroiditis. NSAIDs, not methimazole. The uptake is low because hormone is leaking, not being made.
  • Postpartum "depression" with fatigue and weight gain 6 months after delivery → check TSH; postpartum thyroiditis hypothyroid phase.
  • Giving RAI to a thyroiditis patient → nothing happens (uptake is zero) — and it is the wrong answer.
  • Thyrotoxic phase of thyroiditis treated with levothyroxine for the later hypothyroid phase → reassess at 6–12 months; most recover and do not need lifelong therapy.
★ Memory Trick
Painful + viral + high ESR = de Quervain ("quer-PAIN"). Every thyroiditis: hyper → hypo → (usually) normal. Treat the phase, not the gland.
Tier 1
Topic T-4
Thyroid Nodules & Thyroid Cancer
TSH → Scan or Ultrasound → FNA Thresholds · Bethesda · Papillary / Follicular / Medullary / Anaplastic
★★★ PANCE Core
Thyroid Nodule AlgorithmMemorize
Nodule found (palpation or incidental imaging) → history for risk: childhood neck radiation, family history of thyroid cancer/MEN2, rapid growth, hoarseness, fixed/hard nodule, cervical adenopathy, age <20 or >60, male.
↓
Serum TSH.
↓
TSH low → RAIU/scan. Hot (functioning) nodule → essentially never malignant → treat hyperthyroidism (RAI/surgery); no FNA. Cold nodule → proceed as below.
↓
TSH normal or high → thyroid ultrasound (first-line imaging): size, composition, echogenicity, margins, calcifications, shape, lymph nodes → TI-RADS/ATA risk category.
↓
Ultrasound-guided FNA if ≥1 cm with high/intermediate suspicion (hypoechoic solid, microcalcifications, irregular margins, taller-than-wide, extrathyroidal extension), ≥1.5 cm low suspicion, ≥2 cm very low suspicion. No routine FNA of nodules <1 cm (unless suspicious nodes/extension). Purely cystic → no FNA.
↓
Bethesda cytology: I nondiagnostic → repeat · II benign → US follow-up · III/IV indeterminate → molecular testing or lobectomy · V suspicious / VI malignant → surgery.
Thyroid Cancer — The Four TypesRecognize
TypeFrequencyOriginClueSpreadMarkerPrognosis / treatment
Papillary~80–85% (most common)Follicular cellPrior radiation; young woman; psammoma bodies, "Orphan Annie" nuclei; often multifocalLymphatic (cervical nodes) — still excellent prognosisThyroglobulin (post-op)Excellent (>95% 10-yr). Lobectomy or total thyroidectomy ± RAI; TSH suppression
Follicular~10%Follicular cellIodine-deficient regions; FNA cannot distinguish adenoma from carcinoma (needs capsular/vascular invasion on histology)Hematogenous (lung, bone)ThyroglobulinGood. Total thyroidectomy + RAI; Hürthle cell is a variant
Medullary~2–5%Parafollicular C cellsMEN 2A/2B (RET); calcitonin ↑; may cause diarrhea/flushing; amyloid stromaLymphatic and hematogenousCalcitonin, CEAIntermediate. Total thyroidectomy; screen for pheochromocytoma before surgery; prophylactic thyroidectomy in RET carriers; RAI useless (no iodine uptake)
Anaplastic<2%Dedifferentiated follicular cellElderly; rapidly enlarging, rock-hard mass; dysphagia, stridor, hoarseness; may arise from long-standing goiter/papillaryLocal invasion, distant—Dismal (months). Tracheostomy/airway, palliative radiation/chemo; BRAF-targeted therapy in selected
Lymphoma<2%LymphocytesHashimoto patient with rapidly enlarging goiter——Chemotherapy/radiation; core biopsy
⚠️ BOARD TRAP — Board Traps
  • Hot nodule → no FNA; it is functional, not cancer.
  • Nodule 0.8 cm with no suspicious features → surveillance, not FNA.
  • Follicular neoplasm on FNA → cannot be called benign or malignant by cytology; needs lobectomy for histology.
  • Medullary thyroid cancer → rule out pheochromocytoma (plasma metanephrines) and hyperparathyroidism before thyroidectomy; test RET; screen family.
  • Rising thyroglobulin after total thyroidectomy → recurrence (check anti-Tg antibodies, which invalidate the assay).
  • Hoarseness + fixed hard mass + rapid growth → anaplastic; secure the airway.
★ Memory Trick
Papillary = Popular, Psammoma, Positive prognosis, lymPh nodes. Follicular = Far away (blood → lung/bone). Medullary = MEN, calcitonin, Marker. Anaplastic = Aggressive, Airway.
Read the labs · Two-stepThyroid Emergencies4 in-session
Two lab reads, then a two-step storm case. Commit at each step before revealing.
Read the labsQ1 of 4 · Medium · Read the labs · Thyrotoxicosis etiology
TSH <0.01 mIU/L
Free T4 2.9 ng/dL (↑)
ESR 78 mm/h (↑)
RAIU at 24 h 2% (↓)
A 36-year-old woman has palpitations, weight loss, and anterior neck pain radiating to her jaw 3 weeks after a viral illness. The gland is tender. Commit to a diagnosis.
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: D — Subacute (de Quervain) thyroiditis
Thyrotoxicosis with low uptake means hormone is leaking, not being synthesized. Add pain, a tender gland, a recent viral illness, and a high ESR, and it is subacute granulomatous thyroiditis. Treat with NSAIDs (steroids if severe) and a β-blocker; expect a hypothyroid phase.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Graves disease with early ophthalmopathy — Graves has diffusely increased uptake and a painless gland.
  • Toxic multinodular goiter — Toxic MNG shows patchy increased uptake in an older patient with nodules.
  • Factitious thyrotoxicosis — Factitious ingestion also has low uptake, but the gland is not painful or tender, ESR is normal, and thyroglobulin is low.
  • Acute suppurative thyroiditis — Suppurative thyroiditis is bacterial with fever, leukocytosis, fluctuance, and usually normal thyroid function.
Board pearlThe uptake is the pivot: low RAIU + pain + ↑ESR = subacute thyroiditis. Thionamides are the wrong answer because nothing is being synthesized.
Covered under Topic T-3 — Thyroiditis
Read the labsQ2 of 4 · Medium · Read the labs · Central pattern
TSH 1.1 mIU/L (normal)
Free T4 0.5 ng/dL (↓)
Testosterone ↓ with LH ↓
Prolactin mildly ↑
A 46-year-old man has fatigue, cold intolerance, decreased libido, and headaches. Commit to a diagnosis and the one thing you must do before treating.
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: A — Central hypothyroidism — check cortisol and replace it first if low
A low free T4 with a TSH that is normal is an inappropriately normal TSH — the pituitary is not responding. Low testosterone with low LH and headache point to a pituitary lesion. Order a pituitary MRI and a full anterior pituitary panel, and replace cortisol first: levothyroxine accelerates cortisol metabolism and can unmask adrenal crisis.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Primary hypothyroidism — start levothyroxine 1.6 µg/kg daily now — Primary hypothyroidism requires an elevated TSH.
  • Subclinical hypothyroidism — repeat TSH and free T4 in 6–8 weeks — Subclinical hypothyroidism is a high TSH with a normal FT4 — the reverse.
  • Euthyroid sick syndrome — no treatment; recheck after recovery — Euthyroid sick syndrome shows a low T3 in an acutely ill patient; this man is ambulatory with pituitary symptoms.
  • T3 toxicosis — order a total T3 and radioactive iodine uptake — T3 toxicosis has a suppressed TSH.
Board pearlIn central hypothyroidism TSH is useless for diagnosis and monitoring — follow free T4. And the order matters: steroid before thyroid.
Covered under Topic T-1 — Primary vs Secondary Hypothyroidism; Topic P-3 — Hypopituitarism
In-sessionQ3 of 4 · Medium · Two-step · Thyroid storm (1 of 2)
A 29-year-old woman with untreated Graves disease presents 2 days after an emergency appendectomy with temperature 40.2 °C, HR 168 (atrial fibrillation), BP 90/50, vomiting, and agitation progressing to confusion. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: E — Thyroid storm
Known hyperthyroidism + surgical stress + hyperpyrexia, tachyarrhythmia out of proportion, GI symptoms, and CNS dysfunction = thyroid storm. It is a clinical diagnosis (Burch-Wartofsky) — thyroid hormone levels do not distinguish storm from ordinary thyrotoxicosis.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Sepsis from an intra-abdominal abscess — Sepsis is the key alternative and precipitant, and should be treated concurrently, but AF at 168 with agitation in a Graves patient is storm.
  • Malignant hyperthermia — Malignant hyperthermia occurs during anesthesia with rigidity and hypercapnia, not 2 days later.
  • Serotonin syndrome — No serotonergic drugs, clonus, or hyperreflexia described.
  • Neuroleptic malignant syndrome — No antipsychotic exposure or lead-pipe rigidity.
Board pearlStorm triggers: surgery, infection, RAI, iodine contrast, DKA, stopping thionamides. Fever + tachycardia + delirium in a Graves patient = storm until proven otherwise.
Covered under Topic T-2 — Thyroid Storm
In-sessionQ4 of 4 · Medium · Two-step · Thyroid storm (2 of 2)
Propranolol and propylthiouracil have been given for the patient above. Which is the correct timing and rationale for the next agent?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: B — Potassium iodide (SSKI) at least 1 hour after the thionamide, to block hormone release
Iodine inhibits release of preformed hormone (Wolff-Chaikoff) but is also substrate for new synthesis. Given before the thionamide blocks synthesis, it fuels the fire. Sequence: β-blocker → thionamide → iodine ≥1 h later → glucocorticoid → supportive care.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Potassium iodide immediately, because it blocks release faster than the thionamide blocks synthesis — Iodine first is the classic lethal trap.
  • Aspirin 650 mg every 4 hours for the fever, with active cooling if the temperature stays above 39 °C — Aspirin displaces T4 from thyroxine-binding globulin, increasing free hormone; use acetaminophen and cooling.
  • Radioactive iodine to ablate the gland now, with the thionamide continued until it takes effect — RAI is never given in storm; it requires a euthyroid, stable patient and cannot work acutely.
  • Levothyroxine 100 µg IV to stabilize the axis and blunt further TSH-receptor stimulation — Thyroid hormone is the problem, not the solution.
Board pearl"Iodine AFTER thionamide" is on every high-yield list. Add hydrocortisone (blocks T4→T3 and covers adrenal reserve).
Covered under Topic T-2 — Thyroid Storm
VariationVariation — Same Thyrotoxicosis, Different Uptake3 variations
Answer these three before you read the topics. Getting them wrong is expected and useful — attempting a question first is what makes the material below stick. Each explanation unlocks only after you submit.
VariationQ1 of 3 · Variation · Thyroid
TSH <0.01   FT4 3.4
A 32-year-old woman has palpitations, weight loss, a diffuse goiter, and eye stare. TSH <0.01, free T4 3.4. Which of the following is the most appropriate next test to confirm the cause?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: B — Radioiodine uptake scan or TSH-receptor antibody
Thyrotoxicosis is confirmed by the labs; the cause is determined by radioiodine uptake (diffusely high = Graves; focal = toxic nodule; low = thyroiditis/exogenous) or, increasingly, by TRAb without a scan.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Thyroid ultrasound with FNA — Strongest distractor: anti-TPO — positive in most autoimmune thyroid disease including Hashimoto; it does not distinguish Graves from thyroiditis
  • Anti-thyroid peroxidase antibody titer — Ultrasound/FNA is the nodule pathway, not the thyrotoxicosis pathway
  • Serum thyroglobulin and thyroglobulin antibody — Thyroglobulin is low in factitious thyrotoxicosis but is not the confirmatory test here
  • CT of the neck with contrast — Iodinated contrast blocks uptake for weeks and can precipitate storm
Board pearlLow TSH, high T4: the next test asks WHY — RAIU or TRAb.
Covered under Covered below under Topic T-2
VariationQ2 of 3 · Variation · Thyroid
TSH <0.01   FT4 3.4   ESR 78   RAIU 1%
↻ One variable changed: uptake now low, gland tender
Same labs — but the gland is exquisitely tender, she had a viral illness 3 weeks ago, ESR is 78, and radioiodine uptake is 1%. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: C — NSAIDs (or prednisone) plus a beta-blocker
Low uptake = the gland is leaking, not making. Subacute (de Quervain) thyroiditis releases preformed hormone; thionamides have nothing to block. Treat pain and inflammation and block adrenergic symptoms; expect hypothyroid phase, then recovery.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Methimazole 20 mg daily until euthyroid — Strongest distractor: methimazole — correct for Graves, useless here because no new hormone is being synthesized
  • Radioactive iodine ablation — Radioiodine cannot work when uptake is 1%
  • Levothyroxine 50 µg daily — Levothyroxine is for the later hypothyroid phase if symptomatic
  • Total thyroidectomy after beta-blockade — Surgery has no role in a self-limited illness
Board pearlTender gland + low uptake = thyroiditis: NSAID + beta-blocker, not methimazole.
Covered under Covered below under Topic T-3
VariationQ3 of 3 · Variation · Thyroid
T 40.1   HR 152   agitated
↻ One variable changed: fever, tachycardia, delirium added
Same Graves patient, now presenting after a pneumonia with temperature 40.1 °C, heart rate 152, agitation, and vomiting. Which of the following must be given FIRST, before iodine?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: E — Propylthiouracil (or methimazole)
Thyroid storm: block synthesis with a thionamide (PTU preferred acutely for T4→T3 inhibition), then iodine at least 1 hour later to block release, propranolol, hydrocortisone, cooling, and treat the precipitant. Iodine before thionamide fuels more hormone synthesis (Jod-Basedow).
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Potassium iodide (SSKI) — Strongest distractor: SSKI — essential, but given at least an hour after the thionamide
  • Iodinated contrast for a CT to find the source — Iodinated contrast loads iodine into an unblocked gland
  • Radioactive iodine ablation after cooling — Radioiodine is never used in storm
  • Levothyroxine 100 µg IV — Levothyroxine adds hormone
Board pearlStorm order: thionamide → (1 h) → iodine → propranolol → steroids.
Covered under Covered below under Topic T-2
Tier 1
Topic T-5
The Definitive Thyroid Matrix
Every Thyroid Diagnosis on One Grid · TSH / FT4 / Uptake / Antibody / Clue / First MoveMemorize
★★★ Highest YieldUptake Traps
DiseaseTSHFT4RAIUAntibody / TestClassic ClueFirst Move
Hashimoto↑↓N/AAnti-TPOWoman, painless goiter, fatigue, weight gain; most common hypothyroidismLevothyroxine 1.6 µg/kg; TSH at 6–8 wk
Central hypothyroidism↓/normal↓N/AOther pituitary axes, MRIHeadache, other deficiencies, prior surgery/radiationCortisol BEFORE levothyroxine
Subclinical hypothyroidism↑NormalN/AAnti-TPOIncidental; pregnancy planningTreat if TSH >10, pregnant, symptomatic + antibodies
Graves↓↑↑ diffuseTRAb / TSIYoung woman, diffuse goiter, bruit, ophthalmopathy, pretibial myxedemaMethimazole (PTU 1st trimester) or RAI or surgery; beta-blocker; steroids with RAI if eye disease
Toxic multinodular goiter↓↑↑ patchyNoneOlder patient, long-standing nodular goiter, iodine loadRAI or surgery; methimazole to bridge
Toxic adenoma↓↑↑ single hot noduleNoneSolitary nodule; hot = benignRAI or lobectomy; no FNA needed for a hot nodule
Subacute (de Quervain)↓ then ↑↑ then ↓↓ (<5%)ESR ↑Painful tender gland after viral illnessNSAIDs/prednisone + beta-blocker; no thionamide
Painless / postpartum thyroiditis↓ then ↑↑ then ↓↓Anti-TPOPainless; 1–6 months postpartum; triphasic; recursBeta-blocker; levothyroxine in the hypo phase; 20–30% permanent
Factitious thyrotoxicosis↓↑↓Thyroglobulin lowHealth-care worker, weight-loss pills, no goiterStop the hormone; beta-blocker
Amiodarone / iodineVariableVariable↓IL-6, color DopplerAmiodarone: type 1 (iodine-induced synthesis) vs type 2 (destructive thyroiditis)Type 1 methimazole; type 2 prednisone; hypothyroidism from amiodarone = levothyroxine, continue drug
Thyroid storm↓↑—Burch-Wartofsky ≥45Fever, HR >140, delirium, vomiting after stress in GravesPTU/methimazole → iodine 1 h later → propranolol → hydrocortisone
Myxedema coma↑↑↓↓—CortisolElderly, hypothermia, bradycardia, hyponatremia, obtunded, winterIV levothyroxine + hydrocortisone (before or with); passive warming
TSH Shortcut
  • TSH HIGH: Hashimoto · subclinical hypothyroidism · recovery phase of thyroiditis · iodine deficiency · drugs (amiodarone, lithium, checkpoint inhibitors) · TSH-secreting adenoma (with high FT4 — rare)
  • TSH LOW + high uptake: Graves · toxic MNG · toxic adenoma  |  TSH LOW + low uptake: subacute/painless/postpartum thyroiditis · factitious · amiodarone type 2 · iodine load · struma ovarii
  • TSH LOW/NORMAL + low FT4: central hypothyroidism — check cortisol first
Interactive · Recognize It in Three Seconds
Endocrine Lab Pattern Challenge
Nine lab panels. Read the pair, name the pattern, then the diagnosis. Values are illustrative teaching panels, not patient data.
Read the labsEndocrine Lab Pattern Challenge9 lab reads
Answer these nine before you read the topics. Getting them wrong is expected and useful — attempting a question first is what makes the material below stick. Each explanation unlocks only after you submit.
Lab patternQ1 of 9 · Recognize · Panel 1
PANEL 1 · 44 F, fatigue, weight gainREAD THE LABSTSH22.6mIU/L↑Free T40.4ng/dL↓Anti-TPO480IU/mL↑PA CLINICAL BOOTCAMP · ENDOCRINOLOGY
What pattern is this? And what diagnosis should it make you think of?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: A — Primary hypothyroidism — Hashimoto
High trophic hormone + low target hormone = primary gland failure; anti-TPO names the cause. Treat with levothyroxine 1.6 µg/kg (lower in the elderly/CAD), recheck TSH in 6–8 weeks.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Central hypothyroidism — pituitary adenoma — Central disease shows a low or inappropriately normal TSH
  • Subclinical hypothyroidism — observe — Subclinical means a normal free T4
  • Nonthyroidal illness — repeat when well — Nonthyroidal illness rarely raises TSH above 10–20 and lowers T3
  • Thyroid hormone resistance syndrome (THRB mutation) — Resistance shows high FT4 with a non-suppressed TSH
Board pearlTSH↑ FT4↓ = primary. Add anti-TPO for the cause, nothing else to treat.
Covered under Covered below under Topic T-1
Lab patternQ2 of 9 · Recognize · Panel 2
PANEL 2 · 51 M, headache, low libidoREAD THE LABSTSH0.9mIU/L—Free T40.5ng/dL↓Prolactin148ng/mL↑8 AM cortisol2.1µg/dL↓PA CLINICAL BOOTCAMP · ENDOCRINOLOGY
What pattern is this? And what diagnosis should it make you think of?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: C — Central hypothyroidism with hypopituitarism
A “normal” TSH with a low FT4 is inappropriate — the pituitary should be shouting. With hyperprolactinemia (stalk effect or prolactinoma) and low cortisol, this is a pituitary lesion. Replace cortisol before levothyroxine or you precipitate adrenal crisis.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Primary hypothyroidism with hyperprolactinemia — Primary hypothyroidism has a frankly high TSH
  • Nonthyroidal illness in a hospitalized patient — Nonthyroidal illness does not cause hypocortisolism and hyperprolactinemia
  • Subclinical hyperthyroidism from a toxic nodule — No suppressed TSH with high T4
  • Sick euthyroid syndrome from depression — Depression does not explain the axis pattern
Board pearlNormal TSH + low FT4 = central. MRI, and cortisol first.
Covered under Covered below under Topic T-1 and P-3
Lab patternQ3 of 9 · Recognize · Panel 3
PANEL 3 · 29 F, palpitations, tremorREAD THE LABSTSH<0.01mIU/L↓Free T43.8ng/dL↑RAIU 24 h62%↑TRAbpositive↑PA CLINICAL BOOTCAMP · ENDOCRINOLOGY
What pattern is this? And what diagnosis should it make you think of?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: D — Graves disease
Suppressed TSH, high T4, diffusely high uptake, and TSH-receptor antibodies = Graves disease. Methimazole (PTU in the first trimester), radioiodine, or surgery; beta-blocker for symptoms; watch for ophthalmopathy worsening after radioiodine (steroid cover).
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Subacute thyroiditis — Thyroiditis has low uptake
  • Factitious thyrotoxicosis — Exogenous hormone suppresses uptake and thyroglobulin
  • Toxic multinodular goiter — Toxic MNG shows patchy focal uptake, no TRAb
  • Struma ovarii — Struma ovarii has low neck uptake with pelvic uptake
Board pearlHigh uptake + TRAb = Graves. Low uptake = leaking gland or pills.
Covered under Covered below under Topic T-2
Lab patternQ4 of 9 · Recognize · Panel 4
PANEL 4 · 36 F, neck pain after a URIREAD THE LABSTSH0.05mIU/L↓Free T42.6ng/dL↑RAIU 24 h2%↓ESR84mm/h↑PA CLINICAL BOOTCAMP · ENDOCRINOLOGY
What pattern is this? And what diagnosis should it make you think of?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: B — Subacute (de Quervain) thyroiditis
Thyrotoxic labs with near-zero uptake and a high ESR after a viral illness is subacute thyroiditis — preformed hormone leaking from an inflamed gland. NSAIDs/prednisone + beta-blocker; no thionamide; expect a hypothyroid phase.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Graves disease with early ophthalmopathy — Graves has high uptake
  • Toxic adenoma with focal uptake — Toxic adenoma has focal high uptake
  • Hashitoxicosis (early Hashimoto) — Hashitoxicosis is painless with anti-TPO and low uptake, but the pain and ESR make de Quervain the answer
  • Iodine-induced hyperthyroidism — Iodine exposure lowers uptake but not with pain and ESR
Board pearlLow uptake + painful gland + high ESR = subacute thyroiditis.
Covered under Covered below under Topic T-3
Lab patternQ5 of 9 · Recognize · Panel 5
PANEL 5 · 62 F, kidney stone, fatigueREAD THE LABSCalcium11.4mg/dL↑PTH112pg/mL↑Phosphate2.1mg/dL↓24-h urine Ca380mg↑PA CLINICAL BOOTCAMP · ENDOCRINOLOGY
What pattern is this? And what diagnosis should it make you think of?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: E — Primary hyperparathyroidism
High calcium with a high (or inappropriately normal) PTH is primary hyperparathyroidism; high urine calcium excludes FHH. Surgery for stones, Ca >1 above normal, age <50, eGFR <60, osteoporosis.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Hypercalcemia of malignancy — Malignancy suppresses PTH
  • Familial hypocalciuric hypercalcemia — FHH has low urine calcium (Ca/Cr clearance <0.01)
  • Milk-alkali syndrome — Milk-alkali suppresses PTH with alkalosis
  • Vitamin D intoxication — Vitamin D excess suppresses PTH and raises phosphate
Board pearlCa↑ PTH↑ urine Ca↑ = parathyroid adenoma. Low urine Ca = FHH, no surgery.
Covered under Covered below under Topic C-1
Lab patternQ6 of 9 · Recognize · Panel 6
PANEL 6 · 67 M, smoker, confusionREAD THE LABSCalcium14.8mg/dL↑PTH5pg/mL↓PTHrP9.2pmol/L↑Creatinine2.0mg/dL↑PA CLINICAL BOOTCAMP · ENDOCRINOLOGY
What pattern is this? And what diagnosis should it make you think of?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: C — Malignancy — PTHrP-mediated
Severe hypercalcemia with a suppressed PTH and elevated PTHrP is humoral hypercalcemia of malignancy (squamous lung, renal, breast). Saline first, calcitonin, then zoledronate (or denosumab given the creatinine); find the tumor.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Primary hyperparathyroidism — Primary hyperparathyroidism has a high PTH
  • Sarcoidosis with calcitriol excess — Sarcoid raises 1,25-vitamin D, not PTHrP
  • Tertiary hyperparathyroidism — Tertiary disease has a very high PTH after long-standing CKD
  • Thiazide-induced hypercalcemia — Thiazides cause mild hypercalcemia with normal-high PTH
Board pearlPTH low = not the parathyroids. PTHrP high = cancer.
Covered under Covered below under Topic C-1
Lab patternQ7 of 9 · Recognize · Panel 7
PANEL 7 · 34 F, hyperpigmentationREAD THE LABS8 AM cortisol1.8µg/dL↓ACTH890pg/mL↑Sodium127mEq/L↓Potassium5.6mEq/L↑PA CLINICAL BOOTCAMP · ENDOCRINOLOGY
What pattern is this? And what diagnosis should it make you think of?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: B — Primary adrenal insufficiency (Addison)
Low cortisol with a very high ACTH localizes to the adrenal; hyperkalemia confirms mineralocorticoid loss (only in primary disease), and ACTH excess drives the hyperpigmentation. Hydrocortisone + fludrocortisone; autoimmune adrenalitis is the most common cause.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Secondary adrenal insufficiency — Secondary AI has a low/normal ACTH, normal potassium, and no pigmentation
  • Cushing disease from a pituitary adenoma — Cushing has high cortisol
  • SIADH from a pulmonary process — SIADH does not cause hyperkalemia or low cortisol
  • Congenital adrenal hyperplasia — CAH presents in childhood with androgen excess
Board pearlCortisol↓ ACTH↑ K↑ = Addison. Cortisol↓ ACTH↓ K normal = pituitary or steroid withdrawal.
Covered under Covered below under Topic A-1
Lab patternQ8 of 9 · Recognize · Panel 8
PANEL 8 · 45 F, central obesity, bruisingREAD THE LABS1-mg DST cortisol14.2µg/dL↑Late-night salivary cortisol0.62µg/dL↑ACTH<5pg/mL↓PA CLINICAL BOOTCAMP · ENDOCRINOLOGY
What pattern is this? And what diagnosis should it make you think of?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: D — Adrenal adenoma — ACTH-independent
Two positive screening tests confirm hypercortisolism; a suppressed ACTH means the adrenal is autonomous. Adrenal CT, then adrenalectomy with perioperative steroid cover (the contralateral gland is suppressed).
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Cushing disease — pituitary adenoma — Cushing disease has a normal/high ACTH that suppresses with high-dose dexamethasone
  • Ectopic ACTH — small-cell carcinoma — Ectopic ACTH is very high and does not suppress
  • Pseudo-Cushing state from alcohol use disorder — Pseudo-Cushing fails screening less consistently and is excluded by history
  • Exogenous glucocorticoid use — Exogenous steroids suppress ACTH but also suppress endogenous cortisol on assay — history decides
Board pearlScreen twice, then ACTH: low = adrenal; high = pituitary or ectopic.
Covered under Covered below under Topic A-2
Lab patternQ9 of 9 · Recognize · Panel 9
PANEL 9 · 27 M, 7 L urine/day after head traumaREAD THE LABSSodium151mEq/L↑Serum osm308mOsm/kg↑Urine osm110mOsm/kg↓Urine osm after DDAVP480mOsm/kg↑PA CLINICAL BOOTCAMP · ENDOCRINOLOGY
What pattern is this? And what diagnosis should it make you think of?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: E — Central diabetes insipidus
Hypernatremia with dilute urine is diabetes insipidus; the >50% rise in urine osmolality after desmopressin proves the kidney can respond, so the deficit is central (post-traumatic). Desmopressin, free water, monitor for the triphasic pattern.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • SIADH — SIADH is hyponatremia with concentrated urine
  • Primary polydipsia — Polydipsia causes hyponatremia and dilute urine
  • Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus — Nephrogenic DI does not respond to desmopressin
  • Osmotic diuresis from hyperglycemia — Osmotic diuresis produces urine osm >300 with glucosuria
Board pearlDilute urine + high Na: DDAVP response = central; no response = nephrogenic.
Covered under Covered below under Topic P-4
Domain 4 · Adrenal Disorders
Adrenal: Insufficiency, Crisis, Cushing, Aldosteronism, Pheochromocytoma, Incidentaloma
Before you beginAdrenal Disorders6 in-session
Core Topic 4 — Adrenal. In-session: the crisis, the Cushing screen, aldosteronism, and the secondary-AI trap. Homework: incidentaloma and CAH.
In-sessionQ1 of 6 · Medium · Adrenal crisis · First action
A 38-year-old woman with fatigue, weight loss, and darkening of her skin over 6 months presents with vomiting, abdominal pain, and BP 72/40 unresponsive to 2 L of normal saline. Na 126, K 5.9, glucose 58. What is the most appropriate next step?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: C — Give hydrocortisone 100 mg IV immediately, then continue fluids and draw cortisol/ACTH when possible
Shock refractory to fluids + hyponatremia + hyperkalemia + hypoglycemia + hyperpigmentation = adrenal crisis in primary adrenal insufficiency. Hydrocortisone is given immediately; drawing a cortisol/ACTH beforehand is ideal only if it costs no time. Hydrocortisone at stress doses has enough mineralocorticoid activity that fludrocortisone is not needed acutely.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Draw a morning cortisol and ACTH and await the results before giving any glucocorticoid — Waiting for results is the fatal delay. Treat first.
  • Perform a cosyntropin stimulation test now and give hydrocortisone only if the response is blunted — Cosyntropin testing is for stable outpatients; if you must test acutely, dexamethasone can be given (it does not cross-react with the cortisol assay), but hydrocortisone is standard.
  • Start norepinephrine, obtain a CT of the abdomen to evaluate the adrenals, then give steroids — Vasopressors fail without cortisol (catecholamine responsiveness requires glucocorticoid).
  • Give fludrocortisone 0.1 mg orally and 3% saline for the hyponatremia, then recheck electrolytes — Oral fludrocortisone is too slow and 3% saline is unnecessary — cortisol and isotonic fluids correct the sodium.
Board pearlAdrenal crisis: hydrocortisone now, questions later. Then IV isotonic fluids with dextrose, treat the precipitant, and taper to maintenance over days.
Covered under Topic A-1 — Adrenal Insufficiency & Crisis
In-sessionQ2 of 6 · Medium · Cushing · Screening
A 44-year-old woman has 2 years of weight gain, facial plethora, wide violaceous striae, proximal muscle weakness, and new hypertension and hyperglycemia. She takes no glucocorticoids or inhaled steroids. Which is the most appropriate initial test?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: D — 1-mg overnight dexamethasone suppression test
After excluding exogenous steroids, screen for hypercortisolism with one of three first-line tests: 1-mg overnight DST (AM cortisol should fall <1.8 µg/dL), late-night salivary cortisol (×2), or 24-h urinary free cortisol (×2). Two abnormal screens confirm; then ACTH localizes.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Random serum cortisol at 10 AM — Random cortisol is useless — normal diurnal variation and stress overlap with disease.
  • Plasma ACTH — ACTH is the second step, after hypercortisolism is established.
  • Pituitary MRI — Imaging before biochemistry finds incidentalomas (10% of pituitaries) and misleads.
  • High-dose (8-mg) dexamethasone suppression test — High-dose DST helps distinguish pituitary from ectopic ACTH once ACTH-dependent disease is proven — not a screen.
Board pearlCushing sequence: exclude exogenous → screen (1-mg DST / late-night salivary / 24-h UFC) → ACTH → localize. Never image first.
Covered under Topic A-2 — Cushing Syndrome vs Disease
In-sessionQ3 of 6 · Medium · Primary aldosteronism · Recognition
A 47-year-old man has hypertension requiring four agents and a serum potassium of 2.9 mEq/L despite supplementation. He takes no diuretic. Which test is most appropriate to begin the evaluation?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: A — Plasma aldosterone concentration and plasma renin activity (ratio)
Resistant hypertension + hypokalemia (or hypertension with an adrenal incidentaloma, or early-onset/family history) → screen with the aldosterone-to-renin ratio: high aldosterone (>15 ng/dL) with suppressed renin, ARR >20–30. Correct potassium first; hold spironolactone/eplerenone ≥4 weeks (ACEi/ARB and diuretics can also interfere). Confirm with saline infusion or oral salt loading.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • 24-hour urine fractionated metanephrines and catecholamines — Metanephrines are for episodic symptoms (headache, palpitations, sweating); hypokalemia is the aldosterone clue.
  • CT of the adrenal glands with adrenal-protocol thin cuts — Adrenal CT before biochemical confirmation misattributes nonfunctioning nodules — it is done after confirmation to plan surgery.
  • Adrenal vein sampling for aldosterone and cortisol — Adrenal vein sampling lateralizes disease after confirmation, in surgical candidates.
  • Serum cortisol after 1 mg of dexamethasone at 11 PM — The DST screens for Cushing, which typically causes hypokalemia only when ectopic and severe.
Board pearlScreen: ARR. Confirm: salt load. Localize: CT then adrenal vein sampling. Treat: unilateral adenoma → adrenalectomy; bilateral hyperplasia → spironolactone/eplerenone.
Covered under Topic A-3 — Primary Aldosteronism
In-sessionQ4 of 6 · Medium · Secondary adrenal insufficiency · The steroid trap
A 61-year-old man with COPD has been taking prednisone 20 mg daily for 4 months. He stops it abruptly and 5 days later presents with weakness, nausea, hypotension, and Na 129. K is 4.1 and he has no hyperpigmentation. Which statement is correct?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: E — He has secondary adrenal insufficiency from HPA-axis suppression; potassium is normal because aldosterone is intact
Chronic exogenous glucocorticoids suppress CRH/ACTH; abrupt withdrawal leaves cortisol deficiency with an intact renin-angiotensin-aldosterone axis — so no hyperkalemia and no salt wasting — and low ACTH, so no hyperpigmentation. Hyponatremia still occurs (cortisol deficiency → ADH release). Treat with hydrocortisone and later taper.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • He has primary adrenal insufficiency from autoimmune adrenalitis unmasked by the steroid course and requires fludrocortisone — Primary disease shows high ACTH (pigmentation) and aldosterone loss (hyperkalemia); fludrocortisone is unnecessary in secondary AI.
  • The normal potassium excludes adrenal insufficiency; hyponatremia is from the COPD and he needs fluid restriction — This is the trap — normal potassium is expected in secondary AI.
  • The absence of hyperpigmentation excludes adrenal insufficiency; his symptoms reflect COPD exacerbation and need bronchodilators — Hyperpigmentation requires high ACTH/POMC; it is absent in secondary disease.
  • He needs a high-dose dexamethasone suppression test to determine whether the axis is suppressed at the pituitary or adrenal level — Dexamethasone suppression tests evaluate cortisol excess.
Board pearlSecondary AI = no pigmentation, no hyperkalemia, low ACTH. Most common cause: exogenous steroids. Anyone on ≥5 mg prednisone-equivalent for >3–4 weeks needs a taper and stress-dose coverage.
Covered under Topic A-1 — Adrenal Insufficiency & Crisis
In-sessionQ5 of 6 · Medium · Adrenal incidentaloma
A 55-year-old woman has a 2.5-cm homogeneous, low-attenuation (4 HU) adrenal mass found on CT for kidney stones. She has well-controlled hypertension on one agent and no cushingoid features. Which is the most appropriate evaluation?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: D — 1-mg overnight dexamethasone suppression test, plasma free metanephrines, and aldosterone-to-renin ratio
Every adrenal incidentaloma gets two questions: is it functional (DST for subclinical Cushing in all; metanephrines in all; ARR if hypertensive or hypokalemic) and is it malignant (size >4 cm, heterogeneity, >10 HU unenhanced, delayed washout <60%). A 2.5-cm, 4-HU lesion is a benign adenoma by imaging — the hormonal screen is still mandatory.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Percutaneous CT-guided biopsy of the mass to distinguish adenoma from adrenocortical carcinoma — Biopsy is almost never indicated (it cannot distinguish adenoma from carcinoma) and is dangerous if the lesion is a pheochromocytoma — exclude pheo first if biopsy is ever contemplated (e.g., suspected metastasis).
  • Laparoscopic adrenalectomy, because any adrenal mass larger than 2 cm carries a substantial malignancy risk — The surgical threshold is >4 cm or a functional/suspicious lesion.
  • No further testing now; repeat the CT in 5 years because the imaging features are benign — Functional testing is required; imaging follow-up alone misses hormone excess.
  • PET-CT of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis to exclude a metastasis from an occult primary tumor — Low attenuation and homogeneity indicate a lipid-rich adenoma; no need for PET.
Board pearlIncidentaloma rule: screen for cortisol and catecholamines in everyone, aldosterone if hypertensive; operate for >4 cm, suspicious imaging, or hormone excess; never biopsy without excluding pheo.
Covered under Topic A-3 — Pheochromocytoma & Incidentaloma
In-sessionQ6 of 6 · Medium · Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
A 10-day-old female infant with ambiguous genitalia presents with vomiting, lethargy, and poor feeding. Na 124, K 6.8, glucose 44. Which laboratory finding confirms the most likely diagnosis?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: C — Markedly elevated 17-hydroxyprogesterone
Classic 21-hydroxylase deficiency (>90% of CAH): the block diverts precursors to androgens (virilized XX infant; XY infants look normal and present with salt-wasting alone) and blocks cortisol and aldosterone (hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, hypoglycemia, shock in week 1–3). 17-OHP is the diagnostic marker and is on newborn screening. Treat with hydrocortisone + fludrocortisone + salt.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Elevated 11-deoxycortisol — 11β-hydroxylase deficiency raises 11-deoxycortisol and causes hypertension with hypokalemia (11-deoxycorticosterone acts as a mineralocorticoid).
  • Low renin with high aldosterone — Aldosterone is low and renin high in salt-wasting CAH.
  • Elevated ACTH with low 17-hydroxyprogesterone — 17-OHP is high, not low, in 21-OH deficiency.
  • Positive 21-hydroxylase antibodies — CAH is an inherited enzyme deficiency, not autoimmune.
Board pearlCAH: 21-OH → virilization + salt wasting + ↑17-OHP. 11β-OH → virilization + hypertension. 17α-OH → hypertension + no sex steroids (ambiguous XY, absent puberty). Nonclassic 21-OH → hirsutism/irregular menses in a young woman (mimics PCOS; check early-morning 17-OHP).
Covered under Topic A-4 — Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia
Tier 1
Topic A-1
Adrenal Insufficiency & Adrenal Crisis
Primary vs Secondary Table · Cosyntropin Test · Hydrocortisone Immediately · Fludrocortisone for Primary Only · Sick-Day Rules
★★★ PANCE Core
Adrenal Insufficiency — Recognize → Test → Confirm → Treat → Don't Miss
Recognize
Fatigue, anorexia, weight loss, nausea, abdominal pain, salt craving, orthostasis; hyperpigmentation (palmar creases, buccal mucosa, scars) in primary; hyponatremia, hyperkalemia (primary only), hypoglycemia, eosinophilia, mild hypercalcemia
First test
8 AM serum cortisol (<3 µg/dL diagnostic; >15–18 excludes) + simultaneous ACTH
Confirm
Cosyntropin (250 µg) stimulation test: cortisol <18–20 µg/dL at 30–60 min = insufficiency
First-line treatment
Hydrocortisone 15–25 mg/day divided (or prednisone); fludrocortisone 0.05–0.2 mg/day for primary only; sick-day rules; medical alert ID
Don't miss
Adrenal crisis · starting levothyroxine before cortisol in hypopituitarism · missing the diagnosis in a septic patient with refractory hypotension
Primary vs Secondary Adrenal InsufficiencyRecognize
Primary (Addison disease)Secondary / tertiary (central)
SiteAdrenal cortex destroyed (all three zones)Pituitary ACTH deficiency or hypothalamic CRH suppression
Most common causeAutoimmune adrenalitis (US; often with other autoimmune disease — APS-1/2); TB worldwide; also hemorrhage (meningococcemia, anticoagulation), metastasis, HIV/CMV, adrenoleukodystrophy, drugs (ketoconazole, etomidate, mitotane, checkpoint inhibitors)Abrupt withdrawal of chronic glucocorticoids (most common); pituitary tumor/surgery/radiation, Sheehan, apoplexy, hypophysitis (checkpoint inhibitors), opioids
ACTH↑↑↓ or inappropriately normal
Cortisol↓↓
Aldosterone↓ (renin ↑)Normal (RAAS intact)
Sodium↓ (aldosterone loss + ADH)↓ (cortisol deficiency → ADH release)
Potassium↑Normal
HyperpigmentationYes (↑ ACTH/MSH from POMC)No
Cosyntropin responseBlunted (gland cannot respond)Blunted if chronic (atrophy); may be normal in acute/recent onset — use insulin tolerance or metyrapone test
Other cluesVitiligo, T1DM, Hashimoto, pernicious anemia, celiac (autoimmune polyglandular)Other pituitary deficits (hypogonadism, hypothyroidism), headache, visual fields, prior steroid use
TreatmentHydrocortisone + fludrocortisoneHydrocortisone only (no fludrocortisone)
Adrenal Crisis — EmergencyMemorize
Recognize: shock refractory to fluids/pressors + hyponatremia ± hyperkalemia ± hypoglycemia, in a patient with known AI, on chronic steroids, or with a precipitant (infection, surgery, trauma, vomiting, steroid withdrawal). Also: bilateral adrenal hemorrhage (Waterhouse-Friderichsen — meningococcemia, anticoagulants, antiphospholipid).
↓
Treat immediately — do not wait for labs: hydrocortisone 100 mg IV bolus, then 50 mg q6h (or 200 mg/24 h infusion). If the diagnosis is unknown and time allows, draw cortisol + ACTH first, or use dexamethasone 4 mg (does not interfere with the cortisol assay).
↓
Fluids: 1–3 L isotonic saline with dextrose over the first hours. Treat hypoglycemia, hyperkalemia (usually resolves with cortisol and fluids), and the precipitant.
↓
Taper to maintenance over 2–3 days; add fludrocortisone once hydrocortisone <50 mg/day in primary AI. Educate: sick-day rules (double/triple dose for fever, injectable hydrocortisone kit), medical alert bracelet, stress-dose steroids for surgery.
⚠️ BOARD TRAP — Board Traps
  • Waiting for the cortisol result before treating a hypotensive Addisonian → death. Treat, then test.
  • Refractory hypotension in a patient on chronic prednisone who was NPO for surgery → adrenal crisis; give stress-dose hydrocortisone.
  • Hyperkalemia in secondary AI → does not happen; if K is high, think primary.
  • Normal cosyntropin test 2 weeks after pituitary surgery → does not exclude secondary AI (adrenals have not yet atrophied).
  • Fludrocortisone for secondary AI → unnecessary; aldosterone is intact.
  • Hypopituitarism: levothyroxine started before hydrocortisone → precipitates crisis.
  • Etomidate for intubation in septic shock → transient adrenal suppression; ketoconazole, mitotane, checkpoint inhibitors also cause AI.
★ Memory Trick
Primary = Pigmented, Potassium up, Pressure down. Secondary = Steroids stopped, Sodium low, Skin normal. Crisis: "Hydrocortisone first, hunt second." Sick-day rule: double the dose; can't keep it down → inject.
Tier 1
Topic A-2
Cushing Syndrome vs Cushing Disease — The Algorithm
Exclude Exogenous → Screen → ACTH → Dependent vs Independent → Localize → Treat
★★★ PANCE Core
Cushing Syndrome vs Cushing Disease — Get the Words Right
TermMeaningShare of endogenous cases
Cushing syndromeAny state of cortisol excess — exogenous (most common overall) or endogenous—
Cushing diseaseACTH-secreting pituitary adenoma (usually microadenoma); women 3–8:1~65–70%
Ectopic ACTHSmall cell lung cancer, bronchial/thymic carcinoid, medullary thyroid, pheochromocytoma; rapid course, hypokalemia, weight loss, hyperpigmentation~10–15%
Adrenal (ACTH-independent)Adrenal adenoma (benign, cortisol only), adrenal carcinoma (large, virilizing, rapid), bilateral nodular hyperplasia~15–20%
Pseudo-CushingAlcohol use disorder, depression, obesity, poorly controlled diabetes, pregnancy — mild biochemical hypercortisolism without the disease—
Recognize the Cushingoid PatientRecognize
  • Most specific findings: proximal muscle weakness, wide (>1 cm) violaceous striae, easy bruising, facial plethora, osteoporosis in the young — these separate Cushing from simple obesity
  • Classic but nonspecific: central obesity, moon facies, dorsocervical and supraclavicular fat pads, hirsutism, acne, oligomenorrhea, hypertension, hyperglycemia, hypokalemia (ectopic), depression/psychosis, infections, poor wound healing, nephrolithiasis
  • Exogenous: any oral, injected, inhaled, or high-potency topical glucocorticoid — including "herbal" preparations; ask before you test
The Cushing AlgorithmMemorize
Suspected Cushing syndrome
↓
Exclude exogenous glucocorticoids (history, medication review, including inhaled/topical/joint injections). If exogenous → taper; no further testing.
↓
Screen for hypercortisolism — any of: 1-mg overnight DST (AM cortisol ≥1.8 µg/dL abnormal) · late-night salivary cortisol ×2 · 24-h urinary free cortisol ×2 (>3–4× ULN). Two concordant abnormal tests = confirmed. (DST false positives: estrogen/OCPs ↑CBG, CYP3A4 inducers; use salivary/UFC in those.)
↓
Plasma ACTH (8–9 AM)
↓
ACTH suppressed (<5–10 pg/mL) → ACTH-independent → adrenal CT (adenoma vs carcinoma vs bilateral hyperplasia) → adrenalectomy. ▸ ACTH normal/high (>20) → ACTH-dependent → pituitary vs ectopic.
↓
Localize ACTH-dependent disease: pituitary MRI (adenoma ≥6 mm supports); high-dose 8-mg DST (pituitary suppresses >50%; ectopic does not); CRH stimulation; inferior petrosal sinus sampling is the gold standard when MRI is equivocal (central:peripheral ACTH gradient ≥2–3). Ectopic → CT chest/abdomen, octreotide/DOTATATE scan.
↓
Treat the source: Cushing disease → transsphenoidal surgery (first-line); radiation or bilateral adrenalectomy if it fails (watch for Nelson syndrome). Adrenal → adrenalectomy. Ectopic → resect tumor. Medical bridge: ketoconazole, metyrapone, osilodrostat, mifepristone, cabergoline/pasireotide. Post-op: stress-dose steroids, taper slowly — the axis is suppressed.
⚠️ BOARD TRAP — Board Traps
  • Ordering a pituitary MRI first → 10% of people have an incidental pituitary lesion; biochemistry must come first.
  • Random cortisol to diagnose Cushing → useless.
  • DST in a woman on oral contraceptives → false positive from ↑ cortisol-binding globulin; use salivary or urinary cortisol.
  • Hypokalemia + rapid weight loss + hyperpigmentation + smoker → ectopic ACTH (small cell), not Cushing disease.
  • Alcoholic with moon facies and elevated UFC → pseudo-Cushing; repeat after abstinence (dexamethasone-CRH test).
  • After curative pituitary surgery the patient becomes hypotensive and nauseated → expected postoperative adrenal insufficiency; give hydrocortisone.
★ Memory Trick
Syndrome = the state. Disease = the pituitary. Step order: Steroids? → Screen (DST/saliva/urine) → ACTH → Scan. Low ACTH = adrenal (CT belly). High ACTH = pituitary or ectopic (MRI head, high-dose DST, IPSS).
Tier 1
Topic A-3
Primary Aldosteronism, Pheochromocytoma & the Adrenal Incidentaloma
ARR → Salt Load → AVS · Metanephrines → Imaging → α Then β → Surgery · Incidentaloma: Functional? Malignant?
★★★ PANCE Core
Primary Aldosteronism (Conn Syndrome) — Most Common Secondary Hypertension
Recognize
Hypertension (often resistant or early-onset) ± hypokalemia (only ~30–40% have low K), muscle cramps/weakness, metabolic alkalosis, mild hypernatremia; adrenal incidentaloma with HTN; family history; OSA
First test
Plasma aldosterone concentration / plasma renin activity ratio (ARR) — aldosterone >15 ng/dL with suppressed renin; correct K first; stop spironolactone/eplerenone ≥4 wk (most other antihypertensives can continue for the screen)
Confirm
Saline infusion test (aldosterone fails to suppress <10 ng/dL) or oral salt loading (24-h urine aldosterone >12 µg); then adrenal CT; adrenal vein sampling to lateralize if surgery is considered (age >35)
First-line treatment
Unilateral adenoma → laparoscopic adrenalectomy. Bilateral hyperplasia (more common) or non-surgical → spironolactone (or eplerenone if gynecomastia)
Don't miss
Screening every resistant hypertensive · attributing hypokalemia to a diuretic · CT alone (nonfunctioning nodules are common) · secondary hyperaldosteronism (renin HIGH: renal artery stenosis, CHF, cirrhosis, diuretics)
Primary aldosteronismSecondary hyperaldosteronismApparent mineralocorticoid excess / licorice
Aldosterone↑↑↓
Renin↓ (suppressed)↑↓
CauseAdenoma / bilateral hyperplasiaRenal artery stenosis, CHF, cirrhosis, nephrotic, diureticsLicorice (glycyrrhizic acid inhibits 11β-HSD2), Liddle syndrome (ENaC), Cushing, CAH (11β/17α)
EdemaNo (aldosterone escape)YesNo
Pheochromocytoma — Recognize → Test → Localize → Alpha → Beta → Surgery
Recognize
Episodic headache, sweating, palpitations (classic triad) with paroxysmal or sustained hypertension; pallor (not flushing), tremor, anxiety, weight loss, orthostasis, hyperglycemia; crises with anesthesia, β-blockers, contrast, metoclopramide, TCAs; young patient, refractory HTN, or hereditary syndrome (MEN2, VHL, NF1, SDH mutations)
First test
Plasma free metanephrines (highest sensitivity; best in high-risk/hereditary) or 24-h urine fractionated metanephrines and catecholamines (better specificity for low-risk); avoid TCAs, levodopa, decongestants, acetaminophen (assay), caffeine before testing
Confirm
CT or MRI abdomen/pelvis (90% adrenal; 10% extra-adrenal paraganglioma); MIBG or DOTATATE scan if CT negative or metastatic/extra-adrenal suspected; genetic testing (30–40% hereditary)
First-line treatment
α-blockade first (phenoxybenzamine, or doxazosin) for 10–14 days with liberal salt/fluids → then β-blocker if tachycardic → laparoscopic adrenalectomy; expect post-op hypotension and hypoglycemia
Don't miss
β-blocker before α-blockade (unopposed α → hypertensive crisis) · FNA/biopsy of an unblocked pheo · undiagnosed pheo going to surgery · medullary thyroid cancer patient going to thyroidectomy without pheo screen
Classic symptoms — episodic headache, diaphoresis, palpitations + hypertension
↓
Plasma free metanephrines or 24-h urine fractionated metanephrines
↓
Imaging / localization — CT or MRI abdomen; MIBG/DOTATATE if needed
↓
ALPHA BLOCKADE — phenoxybenzamine (irreversible) or doxazosin; 10–14 days; salt + fluid loading; calcium channel blocker as add-on
↓
Then beta blockade only if reflex tachycardia — never first
↓
Surgery — laparoscopic adrenalectomy; anesthesia team aware; post-op watch for hypotension/hypoglycemia; lifelong follow-up (10% malignant, recurrence)

🩺 Rule of 10s (approximate): 10% bilateral, 10% extra-adrenal, 10% malignant, 10% in children, 10% not hypertensive — and now ~30–40% hereditary. Hereditary or bilateral disease → consider cortical-sparing surgery.

Adrenal Incidentaloma — Two QuestionsRecognize
QuestionTestAction threshold
Is it functional?1-mg DST (all) · plasma/urine metanephrines (all) · ARR (if HTN or hypokalemia) · DHEA-S/androgens (if virilization or suspected carcinoma)Any hormone excess → surgery (or medical therapy for aldosteronism/subclinical Cushing per patient)
Is it malignant?Unenhanced CT attenuation (≤10 HU = lipid-rich adenoma), size, homogeneity, contrast washout (>60% absolute at 15 min = adenoma), growth on 6–12-month repeat>4 cm, >10 HU with poor washout, heterogeneous, irregular, or growing → adrenalectomy; known extra-adrenal cancer → possible metastasis (biopsy only after pheo excluded)
⚠️ BOARD TRAP — Board Traps
  • Propranolol for a tachycardic hypertensive patient with headaches and sweating → unopposed α-stimulation → hypertensive crisis. Alpha first.
  • Ordering CT before metanephrines → wrong order; biochemistry first (except in the incidentaloma, where the mass is already found).
  • Hypokalemia blamed on hydrochlorothiazide in a resistant hypertensive → screen ARR anyway.
  • Hypertension + hypokalemia + edema → secondary hyperaldosteronism (high renin), not Conn.
  • Metanephrines drawn while on a TCA or after acetaminophen → false positive; repeat off interfering drugs, seated and rested.
★ Memory Trick
Pheo: the 3 P's — Pressure, Pain (head), Perspiration, Palpitations → Plasma metanephrines → Phenoxybenzamine (α) before Propranolol (β). Conn: high aldo, LOW renin, no edema. Secondary: high aldo, HIGH renin, edema.
Tier 3
Topic A-4
Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia
21-OH (salt-wasting + virilization) · 11β-OH (HTN + virilization) · 17α-OH (HTN + no sex steroids)
★ Rapid review
Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia — Rapid ReviewReference
Enzyme deficiencyCortisolAldosterone / BPSex steroidsMarkerPresentation
21-hydroxylase (>90%)↓↓ → salt wasting, hypotension, hyperkalemia↑ androgens↑ 17-hydroxyprogesteroneVirilized XX infant; salt-wasting crisis week 1–3; nonclassic → hirsutism, acne, irregular menses (PCOS mimic)
11β-hydroxylase↓↑ 11-deoxycorticosterone → HTN, hypokalemia↑ androgens↑ 11-deoxycortisolVirilization + hypertension
17α-hydroxylase↓↑ mineralocorticoids → HTN, hypokalemia↓ (both androgens and estrogens)↓ 17-OHP, ↑ corticosteroneXY: ambiguous/female external genitalia; XX: primary amenorrhea, no puberty; hypertension
  • Treatment: hydrocortisone (suppresses ACTH-driven androgen excess) + fludrocortisone + salt for salt-wasters; stress dosing; nonclassic — glucocorticoid only if symptomatic, or OCP/antiandrogen for hirsutism
  • Newborn screen measures 17-OHP; false positives in preterm/stressed infants
  • Mnemonic: "1" in the first digit (21, 11) → hypertension if the second digit is 1 (11β); "1" in the second digit only (17, 11) → hypertension. 21 = the only one with low BP.
Two-step · Read the labsPheochromocytoma Sequence & Adrenal Lab Patterns5 in-session
Three steps on one patient, then two lab reads. Commit at each step.
In-sessionQ1 of 5 · Medium · Two-step · Pheochromocytoma (1 of 3)
A 32-year-old woman has 4 months of episodic headache, diaphoresis, and palpitations lasting 20–30 minutes. During an episode in clinic her BP is 210/110 and HR 124; she is pale. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: B — Pheochromocytoma
Paroxysmal hypertension with the triad of headache, sweating, and palpitations — and pallor rather than flushing — is pheochromocytoma until proven otherwise.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Panic disorder — Panic attacks do not produce BP of 210/110 with pallor; panic disorder is the diagnosis a pheo patient carries for years before someone checks metanephrines.
  • Hyperthyroidism — Hyperthyroidism is sustained, with heat intolerance and weight loss, not 20-minute paroxysms.
  • Carcinoid syndrome — Carcinoid causes flushing, diarrhea, and wheezing — and often hypotension during flushing.
  • Essential hypertension with white-coat effect — White-coat hypertension does not come with spontaneous paroxysms at home.
Board pearlPallor + paroxysms = pheo. Flushing + diarrhea = carcinoid. Heat + weight loss = thyroid.
Covered under Topic A-3 — Pheochromocytoma
In-sessionQ2 of 5 · Medium · Two-step · Pheochromocytoma (2 of 3)
Which test should be ordered next for the patient above?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: A — Plasma free metanephrines (or 24-hour urine fractionated metanephrines)
Biochemical confirmation precedes imaging. Metanephrines are produced continuously inside the tumor regardless of episodic catecholamine release, so they are far more sensitive than catecholamine levels. Plasma free metanephrines are preferred when pretest probability is high.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • CT of the abdomen and pelvis with contrast to localize an adrenal mass — Imaging comes after biochemical confirmation (and contrast is safe in a blocked patient, but CT before biochemistry is the wrong order).
  • MIBG scintigraphy to localize a catecholamine-secreting tumor — MIBG is for localization when CT/MRI is negative or for extra-adrenal/metastatic disease.
  • Plasma catecholamines drawn during a spontaneous symptomatic episode — Catecholamines are released episodically and can be normal between attacks.
  • Clonidine suppression test to confirm autonomous catecholamine release — Clonidine suppression is a second-tier test for borderline metanephrine results.
Board pearlScreen with metanephrines, then image. Draw supine after 30 min of rest; stop TCAs, decongestants, and levodopa first.
Covered under Topic A-3 — Pheochromocytoma
In-sessionQ3 of 5 · Medium · Two-step · Pheochromocytoma (3 of 3)
Metanephrines are markedly elevated and CT shows a 4-cm right adrenal mass. Which medication must be started first, before surgery?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: C — Phenoxybenzamine (alpha blockade)
α-blockade for 10–14 days with volume/salt loading prevents intraoperative hypertensive crisis and post-resection collapse. β-blockade is added only afterward for reflex tachycardia.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Propranolol (beta blockade) — β-blockade first leaves α-receptors unopposed → severe hypertension and possible stroke/MI.
  • Labetalol (combined blockade) — Labetalol's β effect predominates (β:α ~7:1) — it behaves like a β-blocker here.
  • Hydrochlorothiazide (diuresis) — Diuretics worsen the volume contraction of chronic catecholamine excess.
  • Metyrosine as monotherapy — Metyrosine (tyrosine hydroxylase inhibitor) is an adjunct, not a substitute for α-blockade.
Board pearlNEVER START BETA BLOCKADE FIRST. Alpha → (beta if needed) → surgery.
Covered under Topic A-3 — Pheochromocytoma
Read the labsQ4 of 5 · Medium · Read the labs · Adrenal
8 AM cortisol 1.9 µg/dL (↓)
ACTH 610 pg/mL (↑↑)
Na 128 · K 5.7
Glucose 64
A 29-year-old woman with vitiligo has fatigue, weight loss, and darkened palmar creases. Commit to a diagnosis.
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: B — Primary adrenal insufficiency (Addison disease)
Low cortisol with a high ACTH localizes to the adrenal. Hyperkalemia confirms mineralocorticoid loss (primary only). Vitiligo signals autoimmune adrenalitis. Confirm with cosyntropin; treat with hydrocortisone + fludrocortisone; screen for other autoimmune endocrinopathies.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Secondary adrenal insufficiency — Secondary disease has a low ACTH and normal potassium.
  • Cushing disease — Cushing raises cortisol.
  • Primary aldosteronism — Aldosteronism causes hypertension with low potassium.
  • Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone — SIADH gives hyponatremia with normal potassium and normal cortisol — and hyponatremia from cortisol deficiency is one of its mimics (always check cortisol before calling SIADH).
Board pearlCortisol ↓ + ACTH ↑ + K ↑ = primary AI. Cortisol ↓ + ACTH ↓ + K normal = secondary AI.
Covered under Topic A-1 — Adrenal Insufficiency
Read the labsQ5 of 5 · Medium · Read the labs · Cushing localization
24-h UFC 6× ULN
ACTH 240 pg/mL (↑↑)
8-mg DST no suppression
K 2.4 mEq/L
A 52-year-old man who smokes has 3 months of weight loss, proximal weakness, hyperpigmentation, and new diabetes. Screening confirms hypercortisolism. Commit to the source.
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: D — Ectopic ACTH secretion (likely small cell lung cancer)
ACTH-dependent hypercortisolism (ACTH high) that fails to suppress with high-dose dexamethasone, with rapid onset, profound hypokalemia, and pigmentation in a smoker, is ectopic ACTH — image the chest.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Cushing disease from a pituitary microadenoma — Cushing disease suppresses >50% with 8 mg dexamethasone, is slower, and rarely causes hypokalemia this severe.
  • Cortisol-secreting adrenal adenoma — Adrenal sources suppress ACTH.
  • Exogenous glucocorticoid use from an undisclosed source — Exogenous steroids suppress ACTH and would not raise it.
  • Pseudo-Cushing state from alcohol use disorder — Pseudo-Cushing does not produce hypokalemia of 2.4 or marked pigmentation.
Board pearlVery high ACTH + hypokalemia + no suppression on high-dose DST + rapid course = ectopic ACTH.
Covered under Topic A-2 — Cushing Algorithm
VariationVariation — Same Adrenal Failure, Different Urgency2 variations
Answer these two before you read the topics. Getting them wrong is expected and useful — attempting a question first is what makes the material below stick. Each explanation unlocks only after you submit.
VariationQ1 of 2 · Variation · Adrenal
Na 129   K 5.4   glucose 68   BP 112/70
A 38-year-old woman has 6 months of fatigue, weight loss, salt craving, and darkening of her palmar creases. Na 129, K 5.4, glucose 68. She is normotensive and well. Which of the following is the most appropriate next test?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: C — 8 AM cortisol and ACTH; cosyntropin stimulation if indeterminate
Stable suspected adrenal insufficiency is diagnosed with a morning cortisol (<3 confirms, >15–18 excludes) paired with ACTH to localize; indeterminate values go to cosyntropin stimulation. Hyperpigmentation and hyperkalemia already point to primary disease.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Random cortisol at the time of the visit — Strongest distractor: random cortisol — uninterpretable because of diurnal variation; the time of day is the point
  • Late-night salivary cortisol on two nights — Late-night salivary cortisol screens for cortisol EXCESS
  • 1-mg dexamethasone suppression test — The dexamethasone suppression test also evaluates excess, not deficiency
  • Abdominal CT with adrenal protocol — Imaging follows biochemical diagnosis and ACTH localization
Board pearlSuspected AI, stable: AM cortisol + ACTH → cosyntropin if unclear.
Covered under Covered below under Topic A-1
VariationQ2 of 2 · Variation · Adrenal
BP 76/40   Na 124   K 6.0   glucose 52
↻ One variable changed: now hypotensive and confused
Same woman, three weeks later, with vomiting from gastroenteritis: BP 76/40, heart rate 128, confusion, Na 124, K 6.0, glucose 52. Which of the following is the most appropriate immediate management?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: E — Draw cortisol and ACTH, then hydrocortisone 100 mg IV and saline now
Adrenal crisis is treated on suspicion: draw the labs, then hydrocortisone and volume without waiting. Hydrocortisone at stress doses has enough mineralocorticoid activity that fludrocortisone is not needed acutely.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Send 8 AM cortisol tomorrow and give fluids overnight — Strongest distractor: dexamethasone — acceptable when preserving the stimulation test matters, but in shock hydrocortisone is preferred for its mineralocorticoid effect; waiting is never acceptable
  • Cosyntropin stimulation test, then treat based on the result — Delay to the next morning risks death
  • Dexamethasone 4 mg IV and await the stimulation test result — Oral fludrocortisone is neither fast enough nor sufficient
  • Fludrocortisone 0.1 mg orally with oral rehydration and observation — Testing before treating is the fatal error
Board pearlShock + hyponatremia + hyperkalemia + hypoglycemia = hydrocortisone before the cortisol result.
Covered under Covered below under Topic A-1
Domain 5 · Calcium, Parathyroid & Bone
Calcium & PTH: Hypercalcemia Workup, Hypocalcemia, Osteoporosis, Paget, Osteomalacia
Before you beginCalcium & Bone4 in-session
Core Topic 5 — Calcium. In-session: the PTH pivot, the crisis, and post-thyroidectomy tetany. Homework: osteoporosis therapy.
In-sessionQ1 of 4 · Medium · Hypercalcemia · First discriminating test
A 58-year-old woman has a serum calcium of 11.4 mg/dL (albumin 4.1) found on routine labs. She has mild fatigue and a history of kidney stones. Which test best directs the workup?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: E — Intact parathyroid hormone
The hypercalcemia workup pivots on PTH. High or inappropriately normal PTH = primary hyperparathyroidism (or FHH, lithium). Suppressed PTH = everything else (malignancy, vitamin D excess, granulomatous disease, hyperthyroidism, immobilization, milk-alkali). PTHrP, 1,25-D, and SPEP come after a low PTH.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Parathyroid hormone-related peptide — PTHrP is ordered when PTH is suppressed and malignancy is suspected.
  • Serum 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D — 1,25-D is ordered after a low PTH when lymphoma or granulomatous disease is suspected.
  • Sestamibi parathyroid scan — Sestamibi localizes an adenoma for surgery — it is not a diagnostic test and never precedes PTH.
  • Serum protein electrophoresis — SPEP for myeloma follows a suppressed PTH.
Board pearlHypercalcemia: confirm (repeat, albumin-correct or ionized) → PTH. Outpatient + mild + stones = primary hyperparathyroidism; inpatient + severe + cancer = malignancy.
Covered under Topic C-1 — Hypercalcemia & Hyperparathyroidism
In-sessionQ2 of 4 · Medium · Hypercalcemic crisis · First treatment
A 66-year-old man with squamous cell lung cancer presents confused and dehydrated with polyuria. Calcium 15.2 mg/dL, creatinine 2.1, PTH suppressed, PTHrP elevated. What is the most appropriate initial treatment?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: A — Aggressive IV isotonic saline
Severe symptomatic hypercalcemia: volume first — isotonic saline 200–300 mL/h restores GFR and promotes calciuresis. Calcitonin (fast, 4–6 h onset, tachyphylaxis in 48 h) is added early for symptomatic patients; a bisphosphonate (zoledronic acid) is given at the same time but takes 2–4 days to work. Denosumab if refractory or renal failure limits bisphosphonate.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • IV zoledronic acid 4 mg — Zoledronic acid is the definitive agent for malignancy but works over days and is nephrotoxic in a volume-depleted patient — give after fluids.
  • IV furosemide 40 mg — Loop diuretics are used only after volume repletion, to prevent overload — never as initial therapy (worsens dehydration).
  • Oral prednisone 40 mg daily — Glucocorticoids treat vitamin D–mediated hypercalcemia (lymphoma, granulomas, vitamin D toxicity), not PTHrP.
  • Emergent hemodialysis — Dialysis is reserved for renal failure or heart failure where fluids cannot be given.
Board pearlHypercalcemic crisis: saline → calcitonin (bridge) + bisphosphonate (definitive). Furosemide only after rehydration. Steroids for vitamin D–driven causes.
Covered under Topic C-1 — Hypercalcemia & Hyperparathyroidism
In-sessionQ3 of 4 · Medium · Hypocalcemia · Post-thyroidectomy
Twelve hours after total thyroidectomy, a 48-year-old woman develops perioral tingling and carpopedal spasm when the blood-pressure cuff is inflated. Calcium 7.1 mg/dL, albumin 4.0. Which is the most appropriate management?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: C — IV calcium gluconate, then oral calcium and calcitriol
Symptomatic hypocalcemia (Trousseau sign) after thyroidectomy is transient (or permanent) hypoparathyroidism from parathyroid injury. Treat with IV calcium gluconate, then oral calcium plus calcitriol (active 1,25-D — needed because without PTH the kidney cannot activate vitamin D). Check magnesium and correct if low.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Oral calcium carbonate alone and reassess in the morning — Oral calcium is too slow for a symptomatic patient with tetany.
  • IV magnesium sulfate — Magnesium repletion is essential if Mg is low (refractory hypocalcemia) but is not the first step for surgical hypoparathyroidism.
  • Subcutaneous recombinant PTH — Recombinant PTH (teriparatide/palopegteriparatide) is for chronic hypoparathyroidism refractory to standard therapy, not acute tetany.
  • Vitamin D₂ 50,000 IU orally weekly — Inactive vitamin D cannot be converted efficiently without PTH; calcitriol is the correct form.
Board pearlHypoparathyroidism = low Ca, high phosphate, low PTH. Treat with calcium + calcitriol; keep calcium low-normal to avoid hypercalciuria/nephrocalcinosis.
Covered under Topic C-2 — Hypocalcemia & Hypoparathyroidism
In-sessionQ4 of 4 · Medium · Osteoporosis · Screening and treatment
A 68-year-old woman with no prior fracture has a DEXA T-score of −2.7 at the femoral neck. eGFR 62. She takes calcium and vitamin D. What is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: B — Oral alendronate weekly
T-score ≤ −2.5 (or a hip/vertebral fragility fracture, or T-score −1 to −2.5 with FRAX 10-year hip fracture risk ≥3% / major osteoporotic ≥20%) → treat. Oral bisphosphonates are first-line (alendronate, risedronate); IV zoledronic acid yearly if oral not tolerated. Counsel: upright 30 min, empty stomach with water; avoid if eGFR <30–35, esophageal disease, or inability to sit upright.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Estrogen replacement therapy — Estrogen prevents bone loss but is not first-line for osteoporosis treatment because of VTE/breast/CV risks; reserved for menopausal symptoms in younger women.
  • Calcitonin nasal spray — Calcitonin has weak antifracture efficacy and a malignancy signal — last resort.
  • Raloxifene — Raloxifene reduces vertebral (not hip) fractures and increases VTE; second-line, useful if breast-cancer risk is high.
  • Calcium and vitamin D alone — Calcium/vitamin D alone is inadequate at a T-score of −2.7.
Board pearlOsteoporosis ladder: bisphosphonate first → denosumab (if renal impairment or intolerance; never stop abruptly — rebound fractures) → anabolic (teriparatide, abaloparatide, romosozumab) for very high risk. Reassess after 3–5 years for a drug holiday.
Covered under Topic C-3 — Osteoporosis
Tier 1
Topic C-1
Hypercalcemia, Primary Hyperparathyroidism & the PTH Pattern Table
Correct the Calcium · PTH Pivot · Primary / Secondary / Tertiary / Malignancy / Vitamin D / FHH · Hypercalcemic Crisis
★★★ PANCE Core
First, Confirm the Calcium
  • Corrected calcium = measured Ca + 0.8 × (4.0 − albumin). Low albumin lowers total calcium without changing ionized calcium; high albumin (dehydration) or myeloma paraproteins raise it. When in doubt, measure ionized calcium.
  • Alkalosis (hyperventilation) lowers ionized calcium without changing total calcium → tetany with a "normal" calcium.
  • Repeat any unexpected value before working it up.
The Calcium/PTH Lab-Pattern TableMemorize
CaPTHPhosphate25-OH vitamin DMajor clinical clueTreatment
Primary hyperparathyroidism↑↑ or inappropriately normal↓Normal / ↓Asymptomatic outpatient; stones, osteoporosis, ↑ urine Ca; single adenoma 85%; ↑ chloride, ↑ alk phos, ↓ bicarbonateParathyroidectomy if indicated; otherwise monitor; cinacalcet if not surgical
Secondary hyperparathyroidism (CKD)↓ or normal↑↑↑↓ (↓ 1,25-D)CKD stage 4–5; renal osteodystrophy; vitamin D deficiency also causes it (with low phosphate)Phosphate binders, calcitriol/analog, cinacalcet; treat vitamin D deficiency
Tertiary hyperparathyroidism↑↑↑↑ (autonomous)↑VariableLong-standing CKD/dialysis or after transplant; glands became autonomousParathyroidectomy
Hypercalcemia of malignancy↑↑ (often >13)↓ (suppressed)↓ (PTHrP) or ↑ (lytic)Normal (↑ 1,25-D in lymphoma)Inpatient, symptomatic, rapid; PTHrP (squamous lung, renal, breast) · lytic mets (breast, myeloma) · 1,25-D (lymphoma)Saline → calcitonin + bisphosphonate; denosumab; steroids for lymphoma; treat cancer
Vitamin D deficiency↓ or normal↑↓↓↓Osteomalacia/rickets; bone pain, proximal weakness, pseudofractures (Looser zones); ↑ alk phos; malabsorption, CKD, little sun, anticonvulsantsVitamin D₃ (or D₂ 50,000 IU weekly ×8) + calcium
Familial hypocalciuric hypercalcemia↑ (mild, lifelong)Normal / mildly ↑NormalNormal24-h urine Ca LOW (Ca/Cr clearance ratio <0.01); family history; CaSR mutation; asymptomaticNo surgery — benign
Hypoparathyroidism↓↓↑NormalPost-thyroidectomy (most common), autoimmune (APS-1), DiGeorge, hypomagnesemia, radiationCalcium + calcitriol (± thiazide); rhPTH if refractory
Pseudohypoparathyroidism↓↑ (resistance)↑NormalAlbright hereditary osteodystrophy: short stature, round face, short 4th/5th metacarpals, obesityCalcium + calcitriol
Primary Hyperparathyroidism — Recognize → Test → Confirm → Treat → Don't Miss
Recognize
Most common cause of outpatient hypercalcemia; women >50; usually asymptomatic on screening labs; "stones (kidney), bones (osteoporosis, osteitis fibrosa cystica, subperiosteal resorption), abdominal groans (constipation, pancreatitis, PUD), psychiatric moans (depression, fatigue, confusion)"; polyuria; short QT
First test
Serum calcium (corrected/ionized) + intact PTH
Confirm
High/inappropriately normal PTH with high Ca; 24-h urine calcium (to exclude FHH and assess stone risk); 25-OH D; creatinine/eGFR; DEXA (include distal radius); renal imaging for stones
First-line treatment
Parathyroidectomy (single adenoma 85%, four-gland hyperplasia 15% — MEN1/2A; carcinoma <1%) — sestamibi/ultrasound/4D-CT localize after the biochemical diagnosis; medical: hydration, avoid thiazides/lithium, bisphosphonate for bone, cinacalcet for calcium
Don't miss
FHH masquerading (check urine Ca before surgery) · MEN syndromes (young, multigland) · hungry bone syndrome after surgery (profound hypocalcemia) · thiazide/lithium-induced hypercalcemia
Surgical indication (asymptomatic primary HPT)Threshold
Serum calcium>1.0 mg/dL above the upper limit of normal
BoneT-score ≤ −2.5 at any site or vertebral fracture
KidneyeGFR <60 · 24-h urine Ca >400 mg with increased stone risk · nephrolithiasis/nephrocalcinosis on imaging
Age<50 years
Any symptomatic patientSurgery
Hypercalcemia — Other Causes to RecognizeRecognize
  • Granulomatous disease (sarcoidosis, TB): macrophage 1α-hydroxylase → ↑1,25-D; PTH suppressed; treat with steroids
  • Vitamin D or A toxicity; milk-alkali syndrome (calcium carbonate + antacids → hypercalcemia, alkalosis, AKI)
  • Drugs: thiazides (↓ renal Ca excretion — often unmasks mild primary HPT), lithium (↑ PTH set point), teriparatide
  • Hyperthyroidism (bone turnover), immobilization (Paget, young), adrenal insufficiency, pheochromocytoma, MEN
⚠️ BOARD TRAP — Board Traps
  • Mild hypercalcemia with normal PTH → still primary HPT until proven otherwise (PTH should be suppressed when calcium is high); rule out FHH with urine calcium.
  • Sestamibi ordered to diagnose hyperparathyroidism → wrong; it localizes for surgery after the biochemical diagnosis; a negative scan does not exclude disease.
  • Low urine calcium + hypercalcemia + family history → FHH; parathyroidectomy will not help.
  • Hypercalcemia in a patient on a thiazide → stop it and recheck before the workup.
  • Furosemide as first-line for hypercalcemia → only after saline repletion.
  • Hypercalcemia + normal PTH + normal PTHrP + lymphoma → check 1,25-D; treat with steroids.
★ Memory Trick
PTH is the switch: HIGH-Ca/HIGH-PTH = parathyroid (or FHH — check the urine). HIGH-Ca/LOW-PTH = cancer, D, granuloma, thyroid, drugs. Crisis: "Saline, then calcitonin now, bisphosphonate for later." Surgery for HPT: Ca >1 over, bone ≤ −2.5, kidney <60/stones, age <50.
Tier 1
Topic C-2
Hypocalcemia & Hypoparathyroidism
Chvostek/Trousseau · QT Prolongation · Magnesium First · Calcium + Calcitriol · DiGeorge · Pseudohypoparathyroidism
★★★ PANCE Core
Hypocalcemia — Recognize → Test → Confirm → Treat → Don't Miss
Recognize
Perioral and acral paresthesias, muscle cramps, tetany, carpopedal spasm, laryngospasm, seizures; Chvostek (facial nerve tap → twitch) and Trousseau (cuff inflation → carpal spasm — more specific); prolonged QT; chronic: cataracts, basal ganglia calcification, dry skin, dental defects
First test
Ionized calcium (or albumin-corrected), phosphate, magnesium, PTH, creatinine, 25-OH D
Confirm
Low PTH → hypoparathyroidism (surgical, autoimmune, DiGeorge, hypomagnesemia, infiltrative). High PTH → vitamin D deficiency/CKD (low phosphate = D deficiency; high phosphate = CKD or pseudohypoparathyroidism), pancreatitis, tumor lysis, rhabdomyolysis, citrate, loop diuretics, bisphosphonate/denosumab
First-line treatment
Symptomatic or Ca <7.5: IV calcium gluconate 1–2 g over 10–20 min then infusion; correct magnesium; chronic: oral calcium carbonate/citrate + calcitriol (hypoparathyroidism) or vitamin D₃ (deficiency); thiazide to reduce hypercalciuria
Don't miss
Hypomagnesemia (PPIs, alcohol, diuretics, cisplatin) causing refractory hypocalcemia — replace Mg first · hungry bone syndrome after parathyroidectomy · calcium infusion through the same line as bicarbonate/phosphate (precipitates) · digoxin toxicity potentiated by calcium
CauseCaPhosphatePTHClue
Hypoparathyroidism (surgical, autoimmune, DiGeorge)↓↑↓Neck surgery; APS-1 (candidiasis, Addison); DiGeorge (22q11: cardiac defects, thymic aplasia, cleft palate)
Hypomagnesemia↓Variable↓ or inappropriately normal (impaired secretion and action)Alcohol, PPIs, diuretics, diarrhea; calcium will not correct until Mg is replaced
Vitamin D deficiency / osteomalacia↓↓↑Malabsorption, minimal sun, anticonvulsants, CKD; ↑ alk phos; bone pain
CKD↓↑↑Low 1,25-D, phosphate retention
Pseudohypoparathyroidism↓↑↑End-organ PTH resistance; Albright phenotype
Acute pancreatitis / rhabdomyolysis / tumor lysis↓↑ (TLS, rhabdo)↑Saponification (pancreatitis); phosphate release (TLS/rhabdo)
Massive transfusion / citrate↓ ionizedNormal↑Chelation; total Ca may be normal
⚠️ BOARD TRAP — Board Traps
  • Hypocalcemia that will not correct with IV calcium → check and replace magnesium.
  • Low total calcium with low albumin → correct it (or check ionized) before treating.
  • Post-thyroidectomy hypocalcemia treated with vitamin D₂/D₃ → inactive; use calcitriol (no PTH → no 1α-hydroxylation).
  • Chronic hypoparathyroidism calcium target → low-normal (8–8.5); higher targets cause hypercalciuria and nephrocalcinosis.
  • Tetany with a normal calcium after hyperventilation → alkalosis lowers ionized calcium; treat the anxiety, not the calcium.
★ Memory Trick
Chvostek = Cheek. Trousseau = Tourniquet (more specific). Low Ca + high phos = parathyroid or kidney problem. Low Ca + low phos = vitamin D problem. No PTH → no active D → give calcitriol.
Tier 2
Topic C-3
Osteoporosis
DEXA T-score ≤ −2.5 · FRAX · Secondary Causes · Bisphosphonate → Denosumab → Anabolic · Drug Holiday
★★ Frequently tested
Osteoporosis — Screening, Diagnosis, Treatment
  • Screen with DEXA: all women ≥65; postmenopausal women <65 with risk factors (FRAX ≥ age-65 equivalent risk, low weight, prior fracture, smoking, glucocorticoids, RA, parental hip fracture, alcohol ≥3/day); men ≥70 (Endocrine Society; USPSTF: insufficient evidence for men); anyone with a fragility fracture or on chronic glucocorticoids (≥7.5 mg prednisone ≥3 months)
  • Diagnosis: T-score ≤ −2.5 at lumbar spine, femoral neck, total hip, or distal radius; or a hip or vertebral fragility fracture regardless of T-score; or osteopenia (T −1 to −2.5) with FRAX 10-year hip ≥3% or major osteoporotic ≥20%. Z-score (age-matched) ≤ −2.0 in premenopausal women/young men → look for a secondary cause
  • Secondary causes to exclude: hyperparathyroidism, hyperthyroidism, Cushing/glucocorticoids, hypogonadism, vitamin D deficiency, celiac, myeloma, CKD, anticonvulsants, PPIs, aromatase inhibitors/androgen deprivation, anorexia, immobilization — check CBC, CMP, 25-OH D, PTH, TSH, testosterone (men), ± SPEP, celiac serology, 24-h urine Ca
  • Universal measures: calcium 1,000–1,200 mg/day (diet preferred), vitamin D 800–1,000 IU/day (target 25-OH D ≥30), weight-bearing and resistance exercise, fall prevention, stop smoking, limit alcohol, review sedatives/antihypertensives
DrugMechanismFracture benefitKey adverse effects / rules
Alendronate, risedronate (oral); zoledronic acid (IV yearly); ibandronate (vertebral only)Antiresorptive (osteoclast apoptosis)Vertebral + hip + non-vertebralEsophagitis (take upright, empty stomach, water only, wait 30 min); avoid if eGFR <30–35; osteonecrosis of the jaw (dental exam first); atypical femoral fracture with long use (thigh pain → X-ray); flu-like reaction after IV; drug holiday after 5 yr oral / 3 yr IV if low risk
Denosumab (SC q6 months)RANKL antibodyVertebral + hip + non-vertebralHypocalcemia (correct vitamin D first; caution in CKD); ONJ, atypical fracture; rebound vertebral fractures if stopped without transition to a bisphosphonate; usable in renal impairment
Teriparatide, abaloparatide (daily SC, ≤2 yr)Anabolic (PTH/PTHrP analog)Vertebral + non-vertebral (greatest BMD gain)Hypercalcemia, orthostasis, leg cramps; avoid with Paget, prior radiation, open epiphyses, bone malignancy; follow with an antiresorptive
Romosozumab (monthly SC, 12 months)Anabolic + antiresorptive (sclerostin antibody)Vertebral + hipBoxed warning: MI, stroke — avoid within 1 yr of CV event; follow with an antiresorptive
RaloxifeneSERMVertebral onlyVTE, hot flashes; ↓ breast cancer risk
EstrogenAntiresorptiveVertebral + hipVTE, stroke, breast cancer; for menopausal symptoms in women <60 / <10 yr from menopause
CalcitoninWeak antiresorptiveVertebral (weak)Malignancy signal; last resort; useful for acute vertebral fracture pain

🩺 Who gets an anabolic first? Very high risk — T-score ≤ −3.0, multiple or recent vertebral fractures, fracture on therapy. Anabolic → then bisphosphonate/denosumab to lock in gains. Glucocorticoid-induced: start a bisphosphonate at prednisone ≥7.5 mg for ≥3 months in moderate/high-risk patients.

⚠️ BOARD TRAP — Board Traps
  • Stopping denosumab without transitioning to a bisphosphonate → multiple vertebral fractures within a year.
  • Bisphosphonate with eGFR 25 → contraindicated; use denosumab (with careful calcium/vitamin D).
  • New thigh/groin pain on a bisphosphonate for 8 years → atypical femoral fracture; X-ray both femurs, stop the drug.
  • Vertebral fracture with a T-score of −1.8 → this is osteoporosis; treat.
  • Premenopausal woman with low bone density → use Z-score; look for a cause (anorexia, celiac, Cushing, hyperparathyroidism) before drugs.
  • Teriparatide in a patient with Paget disease or prior skeletal radiation → osteosarcoma concern; avoid.
★ Memory Trick
−2.5 = the number. Hip/spine fracture = the diagnosis regardless of number. Bisphosphonate: "Sit up, stomach empty, kidneys ≥35." Denosumab: never just stop. Romosozumab: bones up, heart risk up.
Tier 3
Topic C-4
Paget Disease & Osteomalacia
Isolated ↑ Alk Phos = Paget · Low D / Low Phos / High PTH = Osteomalacia · Bisphosphonate vs Vitamin D
★ Rapid review
Paget Disease of Bone vs Osteomalacia — Rapid ReviewReference
Paget diseaseOsteomalacia / rickets
MechanismDisordered, accelerated remodeling (osteoclast → chaotic woven bone); possibly paramyxovirus; age >55; menDefective mineralization of osteoid — vitamin D deficiency (most), phosphate wasting (FGF23 tumors, XLH), renal tubular acidosis, aluminum, anticonvulsants, malabsorption/gastric bypass
PresentationOften asymptomatic; bone pain, bowing of tibia, skull enlargement (hat no longer fits), hearing loss (CN VIII), warmth over bone (↑ vascularity), high-output HF (rare), kyphosis, fracturesDiffuse bone pain and tenderness, proximal muscle weakness (waddling gait), fractures; rickets in children: bowed legs, rachitic rosary, widened wrists, delayed fontanelle closure
LabsIsolated ↑ alkaline phosphatase (bone-specific) with normal Ca, phosphate, PTH; ↑ urine hydroxyproline/NTx; hypercalcemia only with immobilization↓ or normal Ca, ↓ phosphate, ↑ alk phos, ↑ PTH (secondary), ↓ 25-OH D (<10–12 ng/mL)
ImagingLytic then sclerotic, thickened cortex, "cotton-wool" skull, "picture-frame" vertebrae; bone scan shows extentLooser zones (pseudofractures — symmetric radiolucent lines), osteopenia; children: cupped, frayed metaphyses
ComplicationsOsteosarcoma (<1%) — new pain/swelling or rising alk phos; nerve compression; osteoarthritisFractures, hypocalcemic tetany (rare)
TreatmentZoledronic acid (single IV) or oral bisphosphonate for symptoms, involvement of weight-bearing bone/skull/spine, or before orthopedic surgery; calcitonin if bisphosphonate contraindicated; analgesicsVitamin D₃ (or D₂ 50,000 IU weekly × 8 weeks then maintenance) + calcium; phosphate + calcitriol for phosphate-wasting forms; burosumab for XLH
⚠️ BOARD TRAP — Board Traps
  • Elevated alkaline phosphatase with normal GGT and normal calcium in an older man → bone source → Paget; do not chase the liver.
  • Bone pain + proximal weakness + low phosphate + high PTH → osteomalacia from vitamin D deficiency, not primary hyperparathyroidism (calcium is low/normal).
  • Paget patient with sudden increase in pain and alk phos → osteosarcoma; image.
Read the labsCalcium Patterns3 in-session
Three labs-only reads. PTH first, then phosphate, then urine calcium or magnesium.
Read the labsQ1 of 3 · Medium · Read the labs · Calcium (1)
Ca 11.6 mg/dL (↑) albumin 4.2
PTH 118 pg/mL (↑)
Phosphate 2.1 mg/dL (↓)
24-h urine Ca 420 mg (↑)
A 61-year-old woman with a history of nephrolithiasis. Commit to a diagnosis.
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: D — Primary hyperparathyroidism
High calcium with a high PTH and low phosphate is primary hyperparathyroidism. The high urine calcium excludes FHH and, with stones, is itself a surgical indication.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Hypercalcemia of malignancy — Malignancy suppresses PTH.
  • Familial hypocalciuric hypercalcemia — FHH has low urine calcium and a normal/mildly high PTH.
  • Vitamin D intoxication — Vitamin D excess suppresses PTH and raises phosphate.
  • Sarcoidosis — Granulomatous disease suppresses PTH via 1,25-D.
Board pearlCa ↑ + PTH ↑ + urine Ca ↑ = primary HPT → localize (sestamibi/US) → parathyroidectomy.
Covered under Topic C-1 — Hypercalcemia
Read the labsQ2 of 3 · Medium · Read the labs · Calcium (2)
Ca 13.8 mg/dL (↑↑)
PTH 6 pg/mL (↓)
PTHrP normal
Phosphate 4.9 (↑) · Alk phos ↑
A 72-year-old woman with breast cancer on no bone-directed therapy. Commit to a diagnosis.
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: E — Hypercalcemia of malignancy from osteolytic metastases
Suppressed PTH means the parathyroids are appropriately silent — the calcium is coming from somewhere else. Normal PTHrP with a high phosphate and high alkaline phosphatase in a breast-cancer patient points to direct osteolytic bone metastases (local cytokines/RANKL). Treat with saline, calcitonin, and zoledronic acid or denosumab; image the skeleton.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Primary hyperparathyroidism from a parathyroid adenoma — Primary HPT requires a high or non-suppressed PTH.
  • Tertiary hyperparathyroidism from long-standing CKD — Tertiary HPT occurs in long-standing CKD with a very high PTH.
  • Milk-alkali syndrome from calcium carbonate supplements — Milk-alkali produces hypercalcemia with metabolic alkalosis and AKI — and no cancer context; PTH would also be suppressed, but the history is the discriminator.
  • Familial hypocalciuric hypercalcemia (CaSR mutation) — FHH is mild, lifelong, with normal PTH and low urine calcium.
Board pearlMalignancy hypercalcemia has three mechanisms: PTHrP (squamous, renal — low phosphate), osteolytic metastases (breast, myeloma — normal PTHrP), and 1,25-D (lymphoma — steroid-responsive). All have a suppressed PTH.
Covered under Topic C-1 — Hypercalcemia
Read the labsQ3 of 3 · Medium · Read the labs · Calcium (3)
Ca 6.9 mg/dL (↓) albumin 3.9
Mg 0.9 mg/dL (↓↓)
PTH 12 pg/mL (low-normal)
Phosphate 3.4 (normal)
A 34-year-old man with long-standing alcohol use disorder and chronic diarrhea presents with carpopedal spasm. Commit to the most important next step.
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: A — Replace magnesium, then calcium
Hypomagnesemia (alcohol, diarrhea) both impairs PTH secretion and causes PTH resistance, producing hypocalcemia with an inappropriately low-normal PTH. Calcium will not correct until magnesium is repleted.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Give calcitriol — Calcitriol is for hypoparathyroidism; here the parathyroids will recover once magnesium is normal.
  • Perform a parathyroidectomy — There is nothing to remove.
  • Give a bisphosphonate — Bisphosphonates lower calcium further.
  • Start oral vitamin D₂ 50,000 IU weekly only — Vitamin D may be low as well, but it will not fix acute tetany and does not address the magnesium.
Board pearlRefractory hypocalcemia = check Mg. Alcohol, PPIs, diuretics, diarrhea, cisplatin.
Covered under Topic C-2 — Hypocalcemia
VariationVariation — Same Calcium, Different PTH2 variations
Answer these two before you read the topics. Getting them wrong is expected and useful — attempting a question first is what makes the material below stick. Each explanation unlocks only after you submit.
VariationQ1 of 2 · Variation · Calcium
Ca 11.2   albumin 4.0   PTH 98   prior stone
A 58-year-old woman has calcium 11.2 mg/dL (albumin 4.0) on routine labs, with a history of a kidney stone. PTH is 98 pg/mL (elevated). Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: C — Referral for parathyroidectomy
High calcium with a high PTH is primary hyperparathyroidism; a kidney stone is a surgical indication (as are Ca >1 above normal, age <50, eGFR <60, osteoporosis, or symptoms). Sestamibi/ultrasound localize but do not decide.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Observation with annual calcium — Strongest distractor: observation — appropriate only for asymptomatic patients meeting none of the surgical criteria
  • Zoledronic acid — Bisphosphonates treat bone loss, not the cause
  • Cinacalcet to normalize the calcium — Cinacalcet is for patients who cannot have surgery
  • Hydrochlorothiazide to reduce urinary calcium — Thiazides raise serum calcium
Board pearlHigh Ca + high PTH + stone = parathyroidectomy.
Covered under Covered below under Topic C-1
VariationQ2 of 2 · Variation · Calcium
Ca 14.6   PTH 6   confused
↻ One variable changed: PTH suppressed, calcium severe
A different 58-year-old woman, a smoker with weight loss, has calcium 14.6 mg/dL, confusion, and polyuria. PTH is 6 pg/mL (suppressed). Which of the following is the most appropriate first step?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: A — Aggressive isotonic saline
Severe symptomatic hypercalcemia with suppressed PTH is hypercalcemia of malignancy (likely PTHrP from a squamous cancer). The first step is volume repletion with saline; calcitonin gives a rapid bridge and zoledronate provides the durable effect over 2–4 days.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Calcitonin 4 units/kg subcutaneously — Calcitonin is second, given with or right after fluids
  • Zoledronic acid 4 mg IV — Strongest distractor: zoledronic acid — the most important durable therapy, but it takes days and is given after saline
  • Furosemide 40 mg IV — Loop diuretics only after volume is restored; never first in a dehydrated patient
  • Prednisone 60 mg — Steroids are for lymphoma, granulomas, and vitamin D toxicity
Board pearlCa >14 + symptoms: saline → calcitonin → zoledronate. PTH low = look for cancer.
Covered under Covered below under Topic C-1
Domain 6 · Pituitary & Hypothalamic Disorders
Pituitary: Adenomas, Prolactinoma, Acromegaly, Hypopituitarism, Apoplexy, DI vs SIADH
Before you beginPituitary Disorders6 in-session
Core Topic 6 — Pituitary. In-session: the prolactinoma trap, the acromegaly test trap, apoplexy, and replacement order. Homework: hyperprolactinemia differential and Sheehan.
In-sessionQ1 of 6 · Medium · Prolactinoma · First-line therapy
A 27-year-old woman has 8 months of amenorrhea, galactorrhea, and headaches with bitemporal visual field loss. Pregnancy test negative, TSH normal. Prolactin 2,400 ng/mL. MRI shows a 2.2-cm pituitary macroadenoma abutting the optic chiasm. What is the most appropriate initial treatment?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: D — Cabergoline
Prolactinomas — even macroadenomas with chiasm compression — are treated first with a dopamine agonist (cabergoline preferred over bromocriptine: more potent, better tolerated, twice weekly). Prolactin falls and the tumor shrinks within weeks, and vision usually improves. Surgery is reserved for dopamine-agonist resistance/intolerance, apoplexy, or CSF leak.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Transsphenoidal resection — This is the trap — visual loss makes surgery tempting, but medical therapy shrinks prolactinomas rapidly and cures more patients than surgery does.
  • Stereotactic radiosurgery — Radiation is third-line, for tumors refractory to both medication and surgery.
  • Combined oral contraceptive to restore menses — OCPs treat only the hypogonadism, not the tumor, and do not restore vision.
  • Observation with repeat MRI in 6 months — Chiasm compression requires active treatment.
Board pearlProlactinoma → dopamine agonist first, regardless of size. Check TSH, pregnancy, medications, and creatinine before labeling any hyperprolactinemia a prolactinoma.
Covered under Topic P-1 — Pituitary Adenomas & Prolactinoma
In-sessionQ2 of 6 · Medium · Acromegaly · Screening test
A 46-year-old man reports that his ring and shoe sizes have increased over 5 years. He has coarse facial features, a widened jaw, macroglossia, bilateral carpal tunnel syndrome, and new type 2 diabetes. Which is the most appropriate initial test?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: E — Serum IGF-1
IGF-1 is the screening test: it integrates GH secretion over 24 hours and is stable through the day. Confirm with failure of GH suppression (<1 ng/mL) on a 75-g OGTT, then MRI. Transsphenoidal surgery is first-line; somatostatin analogs (octreotide, lanreotide), pegvisomant, or cabergoline for residual disease.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Random serum growth hormone — GH is pulsatile — a random level can be normal in acromegaly or high in a normal person after exercise, stress, or sleep.
  • Growth hormone after 75-g oral glucose — OGTT-GH is the confirmatory test after an elevated IGF-1.
  • Pituitary MRI — MRI after biochemical confirmation.
  • Insulin tolerance test — Insulin tolerance tests GH deficiency (stimulation), the opposite question.
Board pearlAcromegaly: IGF-1 first, NOT random GH. Comorbidities to address: diabetes, hypertension, OSA, cardiomyopathy, colon polyps (colonoscopy at diagnosis), arthropathy.
Covered under Topic P-2 — Acromegaly
In-sessionQ3 of 6 · Medium · Pituitary apoplexy · Recognition and first action
A 51-year-old man with a known nonfunctioning pituitary macroadenoma develops sudden severe headache, nausea, diplopia with a right CN III palsy, and worsening vision over 2 hours. BP 84/52, Na 127. What is the most appropriate immediate management?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: B — IV hydrocortisone plus urgent neurosurgical evaluation
Sudden headache + ophthalmoplegia + visual loss + hemodynamic collapse in a pituitary adenoma = apoplexy (hemorrhage/infarction). Acute ACTH deficiency causes the hypotension and hyponatremia: stress-dose glucocorticoids immediately, fluids, urgent MRI, and neurosurgical consultation (decompression for visual loss or deteriorating consciousness).
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Lumbar puncture to evaluate for subarachnoid hemorrhage — LP is dangerous with a mass and hydrocephalus risk; CT/MRI is the imaging step, and it will not address the endocrine emergency.
  • IV levothyroxine — Thyroid hormone before cortisol precipitates further crisis.
  • Cabergoline — Dopamine agonists do not treat apoplexy (and most apoplexy occurs in nonfunctioning or GH adenomas).
  • Observation with repeat MRI in 48 hours — Visual loss and hypotension require immediate action.
Board pearlApoplexy = steroids + surgeon. Precipitants: anticoagulation, surgery, hypertension, dopamine agonists, pregnancy, dynamic testing.
Covered under Topic P-3 — Hypopituitarism, Sheehan & Apoplexy
In-sessionQ4 of 6 · Medium · Hypopituitarism · Order of replacement
A 39-year-old woman with a nonfunctioning macroadenoma has panhypopituitarism after transsphenoidal surgery: low free T4 with normal TSH, low estradiol with low LH/FSH, low IGF-1, and 8 AM cortisol of 2 µg/dL. Which replacement should be started first?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: C — Hydrocortisone
In combined deficiency, glucocorticoid replacement precedes thyroid hormone. Levothyroxine accelerates cortisol clearance and raises metabolic demand; started alone it can precipitate adrenal crisis. Begin hydrocortisone, then levothyroxine a few days later, then sex steroids and GH as appropriate.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Levothyroxine — Levothyroxine before cortisol → adrenal crisis.
  • Estradiol — Sex steroids follow once cortisol and thyroid are replaced.
  • Growth hormone — GH is replaced last and only in selected adults.
  • Desmopressin — Desmopressin is for diabetes insipidus, which is not described (no polyuria); post-surgical DI is treated when it occurs.
Board pearlReplacement order: cortisol → thyroid → sex steroids → GH. Monitor central hypothyroidism with free T4, not TSH.
Covered under Topic P-3 — Hypopituitarism, Sheehan & Apoplexy
In-sessionQ5 of 6 · Medium · Hyperprolactinemia · Differential
A 34-year-old woman on risperidone for schizophrenia has galactorrhea and amenorrhea. Prolactin 92 ng/mL, TSH normal, pregnancy test negative, creatinine normal. What is the most likely cause?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: A — Medication-induced hyperprolactinemia from dopamine antagonism
Antipsychotics (risperidone, haloperidol), metoclopramide, and other D2 antagonists block dopamine's tonic inhibition of prolactin, raising it typically to 25–100 ng/mL (occasionally higher). Other non-tumor causes: pregnancy/lactation, hypothyroidism (TRH stimulates prolactin), renal failure, chest-wall stimulation, stress, and stalk effect from any sellar mass (usually <100–150). Management: confirm on a repeat level; if the drug cannot be changed, MRI to exclude a mass, and treat hypogonadism (estrogen) rather than adding a dopamine agonist (which worsens psychosis).
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Prolactin-secreting pituitary macroadenoma with chiasm compression — Macroprolactinomas typically produce prolactin >200–250 ng/mL, often >1,000; 92 ng/mL on a known offending drug is far more likely medication.
  • Primary hypothyroidism with TRH-driven prolactin release — TSH is normal.
  • Pituitary stalk compression by a suprasellar craniopharyngioma — Stalk effect is possible but there is no headache or visual complaint, and a clear drug cause is present.
  • Polycystic ovary syndrome with associated hyperprolactinemia — PCOS causes hyperandrogenism, not galactorrhea, and prolactin is normal or minimally raised.
Board pearlProlactin level scales with cause: drugs/stalk effect <100–150 · microadenoma 100–250 · macroadenoma >250 (often >1,000). "Hook effect" — a huge tumor with a falsely low prolactin; ask the lab to dilute.
Covered under Topic P-1 — Pituitary Adenomas & Prolactinoma
In-sessionQ6 of 6 · Medium · Sheehan syndrome
A 31-year-old woman had a postpartum hemorrhage requiring 6 units of blood 4 months ago. Since then she has been unable to breastfeed, has not resumed menses, and reports fatigue, cold intolerance, and dizziness on standing. Which is the most likely diagnosis?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: E — Sheehan syndrome (postpartum pituitary infarction)
The pituitary enlarges in pregnancy; hemorrhagic shock infarcts it. Failure of lactation (prolactin loss) is the earliest clue, followed by amenorrhea (gonadotropins), hypothyroidism, adrenal insufficiency, and sometimes DI. Confirm with a pituitary hormone panel and MRI (empty sella); replace cortisol first.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Postpartum thyroiditis in its hypothyroid phase — Postpartum thyroiditis explains fatigue but not lactation failure or amenorrhea from gonadotropin loss; TSH would be high in its hypothyroid phase, whereas Sheehan gives central hypothyroidism.
  • Lymphocytic hypophysitis of the peripartum period — Lymphocytic hypophysitis also occurs peripartum but presents with headache and a mass, typically without hemorrhagic shock.
  • Postpartum depression with somatic symptoms — Depression does not stop lactation or menses by itself.
  • Primary ovarian insufficiency after hemorrhagic shock — Ovarian failure would raise FSH; it does not cause lactation failure or hypothyroidism.
Board pearlPostpartum hemorrhage + cannot lactate + amenorrhea = Sheehan → panhypopituitarism → hydrocortisone before levothyroxine.
Covered under Topic P-3 — Hypopituitarism, Sheehan & Apoplexy
Tier 1
Topic P-1
Pituitary Adenomas & Prolactinoma
Functioning vs Nonfunctioning · Mass Effect · Hyperprolactinemia Differential · Dopamine Agonist First
★★★ PANCE Core
Pituitary Adenoma Framework — The Rule, Stated CorrectlyMemorize
AdenomaPresentationDiagnosisFirst-line treatment
Prolactinoma (most common functioning, ~40%)Women: amenorrhea/oligomenorrhea, galactorrhea, infertility. Men: low libido, ED, gynecomastia, often large tumors with mass effect (diagnosed late). Both: bone lossProlactin (level scales with size); exclude pregnancy, drugs, hypothyroidism, renal failure, stalk effect; MRIDopamine agonist — cabergoline (or bromocriptine in pregnancy planning) — regardless of size; surgery only for resistance, intolerance, apoplexy, CSF leak
GH-secreting (acromegaly)Acral growth, coarse features, sweating, OSA, diabetes, HTN, arthropathy, carpal tunnel, colon polypsIGF-1 → OGTT GH suppression → MRITranssphenoidal surgery; then somatostatin analog / pegvisomant / cabergoline
ACTH-secreting (Cushing disease)Cushing syndromeScreen for hypercortisolism → ACTH → MRI / IPSSTranssphenoidal surgery
TSH-secreting (rare)Hyperthyroidism with a non-suppressed TSHTSH normal/↑ with FT4 ↑; α-subunit; MRITranssphenoidal surgery ± somatostatin analog
Nonfunctioning (~30–40%; often gonadotroph)Mass effect: headache, bitemporal hemianopsia, CN III/IV/VI palsies (cavernous sinus), hypopituitarism, mild stalk-effect hyperprolactinemia; or incidentalFull hormone panel (exclude secretion; assess deficiencies) + formal visual fields for any lesion near the chiasmDepends on size, symptoms, hormone deficits, and mass effect: microadenoma → observe with MRI; macroadenoma with visual/neurologic compromise or growth → transsphenoidal surgery; hypopituitarism → replace

🩺 The rule: prolactinoma → dopamine agonist first. Symptomatic functioning non-prolactin adenomas → transsphenoidal surgery. Nonfunctioning/incidental lesions → decision by size, symptoms, hormone abnormalities, and mass effect. "Everything but prolactinoma gets surgery" is an oversimplification that fails the incidentaloma question.

Pituitary Incidentaloma & Mass Effect
  • Microadenoma (<10 mm): hormone screen (prolactin, IGF-1, ± cortisol screen); if nonfunctioning, MRI at 1 year then less often; no visual fields needed unless near the chiasm
  • Macroadenoma (≥10 mm): full anterior pituitary panel for hypersecretion and hypopituitarism; formal visual field testing if abutting the chiasm; surgery for visual compromise, apoplexy, or growth
  • Bitemporal hemianopsia = chiasm compression from below; lateral extension into the cavernous sinus → CN III, IV, VI, V1/V2 palsies
  • Craniopharyngioma: child (or bimodal adult) with a calcified, cystic suprasellar mass; growth failure, DI, visual loss; surgery ± radiation
  • Empty sella: CSF fills the sella (often after infarction/surgery or idiopathic); usually normal function — evaluate, do not operate
Hyperprolactinemia — Before You Call It a TumorRecognize
CauseTypical prolactinClue
Pregnancy / lactationUp to ~200–300Pregnancy test first — always
Medications (antipsychotics, metoclopramide, domperidone, methyldopa, verapamil, SSRIs, opioids, estrogens)25–100 (risperidone can exceed)Timing with the drug; do not add a dopamine agonist to an antipsychotic
Primary hypothyroidismMildTRH stimulates lactotrophs; check TSH
Renal failureMild–moderateReduced clearance
Stalk effect (any sellar/suprasellar mass, hypophysitis)<100–150Loss of dopamine inhibition; prolactin does not match tumor size
Microprolactinoma100–250—
Macroprolactinoma>250, often >1,000Prolactin roughly proportional to size; beware hook effect
PhysiologicMildStress, exercise, chest-wall/nipple stimulation, seizure
⚠️ BOARD TRAP — Board Traps
  • Macroprolactinoma with visual loss → dopamine agonist, not surgery.
  • Prolactin 60 in a woman on risperidone → the drug; do not order surgery, do not give cabergoline.
  • Hyperprolactinemia + high TSH → treat the hypothyroidism; prolactin normalizes.
  • Huge sellar mass with a mildly elevated prolactin → either stalk effect (nonfunctioning tumor) or hook effect (giant prolactinoma with saturated assay) — ask for a diluted sample; the treatment differs completely.
  • Prolactinoma in a woman who becomes pregnant → stop the dopamine agonist for a microadenoma; for a macroadenoma continue bromocriptine or monitor visual fields each trimester (no serial prolactin — it rises anyway).
  • Cabergoline in high cumulative doses → echocardiographic monitoring for valvular fibrosis.
★ Memory Trick
Prolactin: PILLS (antipsychotics), PREGNANCY, PITUITARY, low thyroid (TRH), kidney. Level tells size: <100 drug/stalk, >250 tumor. Pro-LACTIN → dopamine agonist. Everything else that's SECRETING → scalpel. Nonfunctioning → size, sight, hormones.
Tier 2
Topic P-2
Acromegaly
IGF-1 First, Not Random GH · OGTT Suppression · Transsphenoidal Surgery · Somatostatin Analogs · Pegvisomant
★★ Frequently tested
Acromegaly — Recognize → Test → Confirm → Treat → Don't Miss
Recognize
Insidious (mean 8–10 yr delay): enlarging hands/feet (ring/shoe size), coarse facies, frontal bossing, prognathism, macroglossia, widened tooth spacing, oily sweaty skin, skin tags, deep voice, carpal tunnel, arthropathy, OSA, hypertension, diabetes, cardiomyopathy, headache, visual field loss, colon polyps; gigantism if before epiphyseal closure
First test
Serum IGF-1 (age/sex-adjusted)
Confirm
GH fails to suppress below 1 ng/mL after 75-g oral glucose; then pituitary MRI (macroadenoma in >75%)
First-line treatment
Transsphenoidal surgery; persistent disease → somatostatin analogs (octreotide, lanreotide, pasireotide), pegvisomant (GH-receptor antagonist; normalizes IGF-1, GH stays high), cabergoline (mild); radiation if refractory
Don't miss
Random GH is worthless · cardiovascular disease (leading cause of death) · colonoscopy at diagnosis · OSA · hypopituitarism after treatment · diabetes worsened by somatostatin analogs (pasireotide)
  • Monitoring: IGF-1 (and OGTT-GH after surgery); remission = normal IGF-1 and GH <1 ng/mL post-glucose
  • Somatostatin analog effects: gallstones, GI upset, hyperglycemia (pasireotide), bradycardia
  • Pegvisomant: blocks the GH receptor — IGF-1 falls but GH rises; monitor liver enzymes; tumor does not shrink
⚠️ BOARD TRAP — Board Traps
  • Ordering a random GH → pulsatile; use IGF-1 to screen and glucose-suppressed GH to confirm.
  • IGF-1 mildly elevated in pregnancy or adolescence → physiologic; interpret with age/sex norms.
  • Acromegaly patient with rectal bleeding → colonoscopy; increased colon polyps/cancer.
  • Pegvisomant patient with a rising GH → expected; follow IGF-1.
Tier 1
Topic P-3
Hypopituitarism, Sheehan Syndrome & Pituitary Apoplexy
Order of Loss · Cortisol Before Thyroid · Lactation Failure · Thunderclap Headache + Ophthalmoplegia → Steroids + Surgeon
★★★ PANCE Core
Hypopituitarism — Causes and the Order of Loss
  • Causes: pituitary adenoma (mass or post-treatment), surgery, radiation (years later), apoplexy, Sheehan syndrome, traumatic brain injury, infiltrative (sarcoid, hemochromatosis, Langerhans histiocytosis), hypophysitis (lymphocytic peripartum; immune checkpoint inhibitors — ipilimumab), infection, empty sella, congenital
  • Order of loss (typical): GH → LH/FSH → TSH → ACTH ("Go Look For The Adenoma"); prolactin is usually the last to fall except in Sheehan, where lactation failure is first
  • Presentation by axis: GH — fatigue, ↓ muscle, central adiposity, growth failure in children · LH/FSH — amenorrhea, ED, ↓ libido, infertility, ↓ body hair · TSH — central hypothyroidism (low FT4, TSH low/normal) · ACTH — secondary AI (no pigmentation, normal K) · ADH (posterior) — DI (only with stalk/hypothalamic involvement)
  • Evaluation: 8 AM cortisol + ACTH (cosyntropin may be falsely normal early), free T4 + TSH, LH/FSH + estradiol/testosterone, IGF-1 (GH stimulation testing if replacement considered), prolactin, serum/urine osmolality if polyuric; MRI; visual fields
  • Replacement order: hydrocortisone first → levothyroxine (titrate to mid-normal free T4) → sex steroids → GH (selected adults) → desmopressin if DI; stress-dose steroids for illness/surgery
Sheehan SyndromeRecognize
  • Postpartum pituitary infarction after obstetric hemorrhage/hypotension (the gland is hyperplastic and vulnerable in pregnancy)
  • Earliest clue: inability to lactate; then amenorrhea, fatigue, hypothyroidism, adrenal insufficiency (hypotension, hyponatremia, hypoglycemia); may present months–years later; DI uncommon
  • MRI: empty sella. Treat: hydrocortisone first, then levothyroxine, estrogen/progestin
Pituitary Apoplexy — EmergencyRecognize
Recognize: sudden severe headache (thunderclap), nausea/vomiting, visual field loss or acuity loss, ophthalmoplegia (CN III most common — ptosis, "down and out"), meningismus, altered consciousness; hypotension and hyponatremia from acute ACTH loss; usually a pre-existing (often undiagnosed) macroadenoma; precipitants: anticoagulants, surgery, hypertension, dopamine agonists, pregnancy, dynamic testing
↓
First action: stress-dose glucocorticoids (hydrocortisone 100 mg IV) + IV fluids — do not wait for cortisol. Draw pituitary panel, electrolytes, coagulation.
↓
Imaging: MRI (CT can miss it; useful to exclude SAH). Emergent neurosurgical evaluation — transsphenoidal decompression for visual loss, deteriorating consciousness, or progressive ophthalmoplegia; stable patients with mild deficits may be managed conservatively with steroids and close monitoring.
↓
Aftermath: most develop permanent hypopituitarism — full replacement and follow-up; watch for DI.
⚠️ BOARD TRAP — Board Traps
  • Thunderclap headache + CN III palsy + normal CT → do not stop at "SAH excluded"; look at the sella.
  • Apoplexy patient given levothyroxine for a low T4 → precipitates crisis; steroids first.
  • Normal cosyntropin test 3 weeks after apoplexy or pituitary surgery → adrenals have not yet atrophied; do not use it to exclude secondary AI early.
  • Ipilimumab patient with headache, fatigue, and hyponatremia → hypophysitis; hydrocortisone.
  • Sheehan diagnosed by a high TSH → wrong; central hypothyroidism has low/normal TSH.
★ Memory Trick
Sheehan: "She can't feed, she can't bleed" (no lactation, no menses). Apoplexy: sudden headache + eye palsy + collapse → steroids + surgeon. Replace: Cortisol → T4 → sex → GH ("Cool The Sick Gland").
Tier 2
Topic P-4
Diabetes Insipidus vs SIADH
Water Deprivation → Desmopressin · Central vs Nephrogenic · SIADH: Fluid Restriction, Correct ≤8 mEq/L per Day · Triphasic Post-Op Response
★★ Frequently tested
Diabetes Insipidus vs SIADH — The Water TableMemorize

Terminology note: the 2022 international consensus renamed central DI arginine vasopressin deficiency (AVP-D) and nephrogenic DI AVP resistance (AVP-R). The PANCE blueprint still says diabetes insipidus; know both.

Central DI (AVP deficiency)Nephrogenic DI (AVP resistance)SIADHPrimary polydipsia
ProblemNo ADH (pituitary/hypothalamic: surgery, trauma, tumor, infiltrative, idiopathic)Kidney ignores ADH (lithium, hypercalcemia, hypokalemia, demeclocycline, CKD, congenital V2/aquaporin)Too much ADH (SCLC, CNS disease, pulmonary disease, drugs — SSRIs, carbamazepine, cyclophosphamide, NSAIDs; pain, nausea, post-op)Excess water intake (psychiatric, thiazide-related thirst)
Serum sodium↑ (if thirst impaired or no water access) — often normal-high↑ / high-normal↓↓ / low-normal
Serum osmolality↑ (>295)↑↓ (<275)↓
Urine osmolality↓ (<300; often <100)↓↑ (>100, inappropriately concentrated; usually >300)↓ (appropriately dilute)
Urine sodiumVariableVariable↑ (>40)↓
Urine volume↑↑ (>3 L/day; can exceed 10 L)↑↑↓ / normal↑↑
Volume statusEuvolemic → dry if no access to waterEuvolemic → dryEuvolemic (no edema, no orthostasis)Euvolemic
Diagnostic testWater deprivation: urine stays dilute → desmopressin → urine osm rises >50%Water deprivation: urine stays dilute → desmopressin → no responseDiagnosis of exclusion: euvolemic hypotonic hyponatremia, urine osm >100, urine Na >40, normal thyroid and adrenal function, no diureticsWater deprivation → urine concentrates normally; low urine osm at baseline
TreatmentDesmopressin (intranasal/oral/SC); treat cause; free water accessTreat cause (stop lithium if possible — amiloride helps lithium DI); thiazide + low-salt/low-protein diet (paradoxical); NSAIDsFluid restriction (first) → salt tablets/urea → loop diuretic → tolvaptan/conivaptan (vaptan; not in hypovolemia); severe symptomatic (seizure, coma): 3% saline 100–150 mL bolus; correct ≤8 mEq/L per 24 hWater restriction; treat psychiatric cause
Rules That Get Tested
  • Copeptin (ADH surrogate) is increasingly used instead of water deprivation: high in nephrogenic, low in central
  • Post-pituitary-surgery triphasic response: DI (days 1–5) → SIADH (days 5–10, from dying neurons dumping ADH) → permanent DI or recovery — watch sodium closely
  • Osmotic demyelination: correcting chronic hyponatremia faster than 8–10 mEq/L in 24 h → pontine/extrapontine demyelination days later (quadriparesis, dysarthria, locked-in); highest risk with alcohol, malnutrition, hypokalemia, Na <105; if overcorrected, relower with D5W/desmopressin
  • Severe symptomatic hyponatremia (seizures, coma): 3% saline bolus regardless of cause — then figure out why
  • Hypernatremia correction: chronic → ≤10–12 mEq/L per 24 h (cerebral edema if too fast); replace the free-water deficit = TBW × (Na/140 − 1)
  • Before diagnosing SIADH: exclude hypothyroidism and adrenal insufficiency (both cause euvolemic hyponatremia), diuretics, and pseudohyponatremia (hyperglycemia, hyperlipidemia, paraproteins)
⚠️ BOARD TRAP — Board Traps
  • Hyponatremia + lung mass + concentrated urine → SIADH from small cell; fluid restriction first, not normal saline (saline can worsen it — the kidney keeps the water and excretes the salt).
  • Correcting sodium from 108 to 128 in 12 hours → osmotic demyelination; cap at 8/24 h.
  • Polyuria after transsphenoidal surgery with Na 150 → central DI → desmopressin; but recheck — the SIADH phase follows.
  • Polyuria on lithium → nephrogenic DI; desmopressin does nothing; amiloride/thiazide.
  • Hyponatremia labeled SIADH without checking cortisol and TSH → missed adrenal insufficiency or hypothyroidism.
  • Glucose 900 with Na 128 → corrected Na is normal/high; this is not SIADH.
★ Memory Trick
DI: DRY and DILUTE urine, HIGH serum. SIADH: SOAKED serum (low Na), SALTY concentrated urine. DDAVP fixes central, not nephrogenic. Lithium → amiloride. Eight in a day — or the pons pays.
Read the labsWater Balance2 in-session
Two labs-only reads. Serum sodium and osmolality first, urine osmolality second, volume status third.
Read the labsQ1 of 2 · Medium · Read the labs · Water (1)
Na 152 mEq/L (↑)
Serum osm 318 mOsm/kg (↑)
Urine osm 95 mOsm/kg (↓)
After desmopressin: urine osm 480 (↑ >50%)
A 36-year-old woman develops polyuria (7 L/day) and intense thirst 2 days after resection of a craniopharyngioma. Commit to a diagnosis.
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: D — Central diabetes insipidus
Hypernatremia with a high serum osmolality and an inappropriately dilute urine means ADH is absent or ineffective. A hypothalamic/pituitary operation and the rapid rise in urine osmolality after desmopressin make it central DI. Treat with desmopressin and free water; anticipate the triphasic pattern.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone — SIADH produces hyponatremia with concentrated urine.
  • Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus — Nephrogenic DI would not respond to desmopressin.
  • Primary polydipsia — Primary polydipsia causes low-normal sodium with dilute urine — the kidney is appropriately excreting excess water.
  • Osmotic diuresis from hyperglycemia — No hyperglycemia; osmotic diuresis produces urine osm >300.
Board pearlNa ↑ + serum osm ↑ + urine osm ↓ → DI. Desmopressin response → central; no response → nephrogenic.
Covered under Topic P-4 — DI vs SIADH
Read the labsQ2 of 2 · Medium · Read the labs · Water (2)
Na 121 mEq/L (↓)
Serum osm 258 mOsm/kg (↓)
Urine osm 520 mOsm/kg (↑)
Urine Na 68 mEq/L (↑)
A 68-year-old man who smokes has 2 weeks of nausea, confusion, and a 4-kg weight loss. He is euvolemic on exam and takes no diuretics. TSH and 8 AM cortisol are normal. Commit to a diagnosis and first-line treatment.
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: B — SIADH — fluid restriction and evaluate for small cell lung cancer
Euvolemic hypotonic hyponatremia with an inappropriately concentrated urine and high urine sodium, with normal thyroid and adrenal function and no diuretics, is SIADH. In a smoker with weight loss, image the chest for small cell carcinoma. Fluid restriction (800–1,000 mL/day) is first-line; add salt/urea or tolvaptan if refractory; 3% saline only for seizures/coma.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Central diabetes insipidus — desmopressin and free-water access — DI causes hypernatremia with dilute urine — the opposite.
  • Hypovolemic hyponatremia — normal saline bolus and reassess — He is euvolemic; saline in SIADH can worsen hyponatremia because the kidney excretes the sodium and retains the water.
  • Adrenal insufficiency — hydrocortisone and isotonic fluids — Cortisol was normal — though checking it was the right step before calling it SIADH.
  • Pseudohyponatremia — no treatment; repeat with a direct ion-selective electrode — Serum osmolality is truly low (258), so this is real hypotonic hyponatremia.
Board pearlNa ↓ + serum osm ↓ + urine osm >100 + urine Na >40 + euvolemic + normal TSH/cortisol = SIADH. Restrict water; find the cause (SCLC, drugs, CNS, lung).
Covered under Topic P-4 — DI vs SIADH
Domain 7 · Reproductive, Lipid & Metabolic Endocrinology — Tier 2
PCOS, Amenorrhea, Hypogonadism, Dyslipidemia, Metabolic Syndrome, Obesity
Before you beginReproductive, Lipid & Metabolic6 in-session
Tier 2 block. In-session: PCOS, amenorrhea, male hypogonadism, statin intensity. Homework: hirsutism red flags and testosterone monitoring.
In-sessionQ1 of 6 · Medium · PCOS · Diagnosis and first-line therapy
A 24-year-old woman has 8 menstrual periods per year, hirsutism, and acne. BMI 31. Pregnancy test negative, TSH and prolactin normal, total testosterone mildly elevated, 17-hydroxyprogesterone normal. She does not want to conceive now. Which is the most appropriate management?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: C — Combined oral contraceptive plus lifestyle modification
Rotterdam criteria (2 of 3: oligo/anovulation, clinical or biochemical hyperandrogenism, polycystic ovarian morphology) are met — ultrasound is not required. For a woman not seeking pregnancy, combined hormonal contraception (regulates cycles, lowers androgens, protects the endometrium) plus weight loss is first-line; add spironolactone for hirsutism after 6 months.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Letrozole 2.5 mg daily on cycle days 3–7 for ovulation induction — Letrozole is first-line for ovulation induction when she wants to conceive.
  • Metformin 1,000 mg twice daily as monotherapy — Metformin improves insulin resistance and cycles modestly but is second-line for menstrual/hirsutism goals; use for prediabetes/diabetes or when OCPs are contraindicated.
  • Transvaginal ultrasound to count follicles before any treatment — Two criteria are already present; ultrasound adds nothing (and is not needed in adolescents).
  • Dexamethasone 0.5 mg nightly to suppress adrenal androgens — Glucocorticoids are not indicated for PCOS.
Board pearlPCOS: exclude mimics (pregnancy, TSH, prolactin, 17-OHP for nonclassic CAH, DHEA-S/testosterone >150–200 for tumor, cortisol if cushingoid). Then: OCP for cycles/hirsutism, letrozole for fertility, metformin for metabolic disease. Screen for diabetes (OGTT), lipids, OSA, depression; unopposed estrogen → endometrial cancer risk.
Covered under Topic R-1 — PCOS, Amenorrhea & Hyperandrogenism
In-sessionQ2 of 6 · Medium · Amenorrhea · Workup
A 30-year-old woman with previously regular menses has had no period for 5 months. Which is the most appropriate first test?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: A — Urine or serum hCG
Pregnancy is the most common cause of secondary amenorrhea and must be excluded before anything else. Then: TSH, prolactin, FSH (high = ovarian insufficiency; low/normal = hypothalamic/pituitary or PCOS), and androgens if hirsute.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Serum FSH and LH — FSH/LH are the second tier, after hCG.
  • Pelvic ultrasound — Ultrasound is for suspected outflow/uterine causes (Asherman after D&C, Müllerian anomalies) after the hormonal screen.
  • Progestin challenge — The progestin challenge assesses estrogen status/outflow tract later in the algorithm.
  • Karyotype — Karyotype is for primary amenorrhea or ovarian insufficiency under 40.
Board pearlAmenorrhea: hCG → TSH, prolactin, FSH → (hirsute: testosterone, DHEA-S, 17-OHP). Primary amenorrhea (no menses by 15, or by 13 without breast development): Turner (45,X, high FSH), Müllerian agenesis (normal FSH, absent uterus), androgen insensitivity (46,XY, breasts but no uterus/pubic hair), imperforate hymen, constitutional delay.
Covered under Topic R-1 — PCOS, Amenorrhea & Hyperandrogenism
In-sessionQ3 of 6 · Medium · Male hypogonadism · Localize
A 19-year-old man has small firm testes, gynecomastia, sparse body hair, tall stature with long limbs, and learning difficulties. Testosterone is low. Which pattern of gonadotropins and diagnosis is expected?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: B — High LH and FSH — Klinefelter syndrome (47,XXY)
Primary (testicular) hypogonadism → the pituitary responds with high LH/FSH (hypergonadotropic). Small firm testes, gynecomastia, tall eunuchoid habitus, infertility (azoospermia), and mild cognitive/behavioral issues = Klinefelter, the most common congenital cause. Confirm with karyotype; treat with testosterone; increased breast cancer, VTE, osteoporosis, and diabetes risk.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Low LH and FSH — Kallmann syndrome — Kallmann is secondary (low gonadotropins) with anosmia; testes are small and soft, not firm, and there is no gynecomastia typically.
  • Low LH and FSH — prolactinoma — Prolactinoma is secondary hypogonadism with low LH/FSH — check prolactin in any man with low testosterone and low gonadotropins.
  • High LH and FSH — Turner syndrome — Turner (45,X) is a female phenotype.
  • Normal LH and FSH — constitutional delay of puberty — Constitutional delay is a diagnosis of exclusion with low-normal gonadotropins and a family history.
Board pearlTestosterone low → LH/FSH: high = testis problem (Klinefelter, orchitis, chemo, radiation, trauma); low = pituitary/hypothalamus (prolactin, mass, opioids, anabolic steroids, hemochromatosis, obesity, Kallmann). Draw two 8 AM total testosterone levels before labeling.
Covered under Topic R-2 — Hypogonadism & Testosterone
In-sessionQ4 of 6 · Medium · Dyslipidemia · Statin intensity
A 58-year-old man with type 2 diabetes, LDL 138 mg/dL, and a 10-year ASCVD risk of 12% has no prior cardiovascular events. Which lipid-lowering strategy is most appropriate?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: E — Moderate-intensity statin, escalating to high-intensity given his risk profile
Diabetes at age 40–75 is one of the four statin-benefit groups: at least a moderate-intensity statin, and high-intensity if multiple risk factors or 10-year risk ≥20% (many would treat this diabetic with a 12% risk as high-intensity). The other groups: clinical ASCVD (high-intensity), LDL ≥190 (high-intensity), and primary prevention with 10-year risk ≥7.5% (moderate; ≥20% high).
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Ezetimibe 10 mg daily alone, reserving a statin for a future LDL above 160 mg/dL — Ezetimibe is an add-on when LDL remains above goal on a maximally tolerated statin.
  • Fenofibrate 145 mg daily to address the lipid abnormality most linked to diabetes — Fibrates are for triglycerides ≥500 mg/dL (pancreatitis prevention), not LDL.
  • Lifestyle modification alone with a repeat lipid panel and risk reassessment in 1 year — A diabetic with LDL 138 needs pharmacotherapy.
  • PCSK9 inhibitor injections, since diabetes places him in the very-high-risk category — PCSK9 inhibitors are for very-high-risk ASCVD or familial hypercholesterolemia not at goal on statin + ezetimibe.
Board pearlFour statin groups: ASCVD · LDL ≥190 · diabetes 40–75 · risk ≥7.5%. High-intensity = atorvastatin 40–80, rosuvastatin 20–40. TG ≥500 → fibrate (or omega-3) to prevent pancreatitis. Familial hypercholesterolemia: LDL >190, tendon xanthomas, early MI, family history → high-intensity statin + ezetimibe ± PCSK9i; screen relatives.
Covered under Topic R-3 — Dyslipidemia, Metabolic Syndrome & Obesity
In-sessionQ5 of 6 · Medium · Hirsutism · Red flags
A 38-year-old woman develops rapidly progressive hirsutism over 4 months with deepening of her voice, clitoromegaly, and frontal balding. Total testosterone is 310 ng/dL; DHEA-S is normal. Which is the most likely source?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: C — Ovarian androgen-secreting tumor
Rapid onset, virilization (voice, clitoromegaly, balding), and total testosterone >150–200 ng/dL indicate a tumor. Normal DHEA-S points to the ovary (Sertoli-Leydig, hilus cell); a markedly elevated DHEA-S (>700 µg/dL) points to the adrenal. Image accordingly (transvaginal ultrasound vs adrenal CT).
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Polycystic ovary syndrome — PCOS is gradual, begins near menarche, and testosterone rarely exceeds 150–200; virilization is absent.
  • Nonclassic congenital adrenal hyperplasia — Nonclassic CAH presents like PCOS with an elevated 17-OHP, not rapid virilization.
  • Adrenal carcinoma — Adrenal tumors raise DHEA-S markedly.
  • Cushing disease — Cushing disease causes hirsutism with cushingoid features, not frank virilization with testosterone of 310.
Board pearlHirsutism red flags: rapid onset, virilization, testosterone >150–200, DHEA-S >700 → tumor. Slow + since adolescence = PCOS (or nonclassic CAH — check 17-OHP).
Covered under Topic R-1 — PCOS, Amenorrhea & Hyperandrogenism
In-sessionQ6 of 6 · Medium · Testosterone therapy · Monitoring
A 54-year-old man on testosterone cypionate injections for confirmed hypogonadism returns for follow-up. Which finding most warrants holding therapy?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: D — Hematocrit of 55%
Testosterone stimulates erythropoiesis; erythrocytosis (Hct >54%) raises thrombotic risk and requires holding/reducing the dose (or phlebotomy). Monitor hematocrit, PSA/DRE, and testosterone at 3, 6, and 12 months. Contraindications: prostate or breast cancer, Hct >50–54% at baseline, untreated severe OSA, desire for fertility (suppresses spermatogenesis), uncontrolled heart failure, PSA >4 without evaluation.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Mild acne — Acne is common and manageable.
  • Total testosterone in the mid-normal range — Mid-normal testosterone is the target.
  • PSA of 1.2 ng/mL, unchanged from baseline — A stable, low PSA is reassuring.
  • Weight gain of 2 kg — Modest weight gain from muscle mass is expected.
Board pearlTestosterone therapy risks: erythrocytosis, worsened OSA, infertility, gynecomastia, prostate growth, VTE, fluid retention. It is not a fertility treatment — use hCG/clomiphene if fertility matters.
Covered under Topic R-2 — Hypogonadism & Testosterone
Tier 2
Topic R-1
PCOS, Amenorrhea & Hyperandrogenism
Rotterdam · Exclude Mimics (17-OHP, DHEA-S, Testosterone) · OCP / Letrozole / Metformin · hCG First · Turner · Müllerian Agenesis · AIS
★★ Frequently tested
PCOS — Rotterdam Criteria and Management by GoalRecognize
  • Diagnosis (2 of 3): oligo/anovulation (<8 cycles/yr or cycles >35 days); clinical (hirsutism, acne, androgenic alopecia) or biochemical hyperandrogenism; polycystic ovarian morphology (≥20 follicles or volume ≥10 mL per ovary) — after excluding mimics
  • Exclude: pregnancy, thyroid disease, hyperprolactinemia, nonclassic CAH (8 AM 17-OHP >200 ng/dL → cosyntropin test), androgen-secreting tumor (rapid virilization, testosterone >150–200, DHEA-S >700), Cushing, acromegaly
  • Pathophysiology: insulin resistance → ↑ ovarian androgens, ↑ LH:FSH (often >2:1 — not diagnostic), ↓ SHBG; elevated free testosterone; anovulation → unopposed estrogen
  • Comorbidities to screen: 2-h OGTT for diabetes (A1c less sensitive), lipids, blood pressure, OSA, MASLD, depression/anxiety, endometrial hyperplasia if prolonged amenorrhea
GoalFirst-lineAlternatives / adjuncts
Menstrual regulation, hirsutism, acne, endometrial protectionCombined hormonal contraceptive + lifestyle/weight lossCyclic progestin (endometrial protection only); spironolactone for hirsutism after 6 months of OCP (contraception required — teratogenic); eflornithine cream; laser
FertilityLetrozole (aromatase inhibitor) for ovulation inductionClomiphene; metformin adjunct; gonadotropins; IVF; weight loss improves ovulation
Insulin resistance / prediabetes / OCP contraindicatedMetforminGLP-1 RA for obesity; lifestyle
Amenorrhea — The Algorithm
Primary (no menses by 15, or 13 without breasts) or secondary (no menses ≥3 months if previously regular, ≥6 months if irregular)
↓
hCG — pregnancy first, always
↓
TSH, prolactin, FSH (+ estradiol); testosterone/DHEA-S/17-OHP if hirsute; history: weight loss, exercise, stress, eating disorder, D&C, chemo, radiation, anosmia, galactorrhea
↓
FSH high → primary ovarian insufficiency (<40 y: karyotype for Turner/mosaicism, FMR1 premutation, autoimmune — adrenal antibodies; treat with HRT until ~51 for bone/CV) ▸ FSH low/normal → hypothalamic (functional: low weight/exercise/stress — the "female athlete triad"; Kallmann; infiltrative), pituitary (prolactinoma, Sheehan, mass), PCOS, or outflow tract
↓
Outflow/uterine: Asherman (post-D&C — hysteroscopy), cervical stenosis; primary: imperforate hymen (cyclic pain, bulging membrane), transverse septum, Müllerian agenesis (46,XX, normal ovaries/breasts/pubic hair, absent uterus — renal anomalies), androgen insensitivity (46,XY, breasts present, absent pubic/axillary hair, blind vaginal pouch, testes in canal — remove after puberty)
Menopause & Hormone Therapy — Decision PointsReference
  • Diagnosis is clinical (12 months amenorrhea, ~51 y); FSH >30–40 supports but is unnecessary; premature (<40) = primary ovarian insufficiency
  • Hormone therapy is the most effective treatment for vasomotor symptoms and genitourinary syndrome; safest when started <60 y or <10 y from menopause; add a progestin if the uterus is present (unopposed estrogen → endometrial cancer); transdermal estrogen carries less VTE risk
  • Contraindications: breast/endometrial cancer, VTE/stroke/CAD history, unexplained vaginal bleeding, active liver disease
  • Non-hormonal: fezolinetant (NK3 antagonist), SSRIs/SNRIs (paroxetine, venlafaxine), gabapentin; vaginal estrogen for GSM is safe in most
  • Bone: HT prevents loss but is not first-line for established osteoporosis
⚠️ BOARD TRAP — Board Traps
  • PCOS diagnosed by ultrasound alone → morphology is one criterion, not the diagnosis; and not used in adolescents.
  • Spironolactone without contraception → feminizes a male fetus.
  • Amenorrhea workup started with FSH → hCG first.
  • Breasts present, no pubic hair, no uterus, 46,XY → androgen insensitivity (do not call it Müllerian agenesis, which has normal pubic hair and 46,XX).
  • Estrogen alone in a woman with a uterus → endometrial hyperplasia/cancer; add progestin.
  • Runner with amenorrhea, low BMI, stress fracture → functional hypothalamic amenorrhea; treat with nutrition/weight restoration, not OCPs alone (they mask the problem and do not restore bone).
★ Memory Trick
PCOS: 2 of 3 — Periods, Pilosity, Polycystic. OCP for cycles, letrozole for babies, metformin for sugar. Amenorrhea: hCG → TSH → PRL → FSH.
Tier 2
Topic R-2
Hypogonadism, Gynecomastia & Puberty
LH/FSH Localize · Klinefelter vs Kallmann · Two 8 AM Testosterones · Testosterone Risks · Precocious vs Delayed
★★ Frequently tested
Male Hypogonadism — Primary vs Secondary
Primary (hypergonadotropic)Secondary (hypogonadotropic)
Testosterone↓↓
LH / FSH↑↓ or inappropriately normal
CausesKlinefelter (47,XXY; most common congenital), cryptorchidism, orchitis (mumps), torsion, chemotherapy/radiation, trauma, aging (partial)Prolactinoma, pituitary mass/surgery/radiation, Kallmann (GnRH deficiency + anosmia), hemochromatosis, opioids, anabolic steroids/exogenous testosterone, glucocorticoids, obesity, OSA, severe illness, eating disorders
WorkupKaryotype; semen analysisProlactin, iron studies, other pituitary axes, MRI if prolactin high or testosterone <150 or other deficits
TreatmentTestosterone replacementTreat the cause (stop opioids/steroids, cabergoline for prolactinoma); testosterone if not seeking fertility; hCG ± FSH/clomiphene to preserve spermatogenesis
  • Diagnosis: symptoms (↓ libido, ED, fatigue, ↓ muscle, gynecomastia, hot flashes, infertility, osteoporosis) + two 8 AM total testosterone levels below normal (~<300 ng/dL); free testosterone if SHBG abnormal (obesity ↓, aging/liver ↑)
  • Gynecomastia: ↑ estrogen:androgen ratio — puberty (physiologic, resolves), Klinefelter, testicular tumor (check hCG, AFP, estradiol), cirrhosis, hyperthyroidism, CKD, drugs (spironolactone, ketoconazole, cimetidine, antiandrogens, anabolic steroids, marijuana). Unilateral hard eccentric mass → mammogram/biopsy (male breast cancer, BRCA2)
  • Puberty: delayed = no testicular enlargement by 14 (boys) / no breasts by 13 (girls) — constitutional delay most common (bone age delayed, family history); precocious = <9 (boys) / <8 (girls) — central (GnRH-dependent; idiopathic in girls, CNS lesion more likely in boys; GnRH agonist) vs peripheral (CAH, tumors, McCune-Albright, exogenous)
⚠️ BOARD TRAP — Board Traps
  • Low testosterone drawn at 4 PM in an obese man → repeat at 8 AM, fasting, twice; check SHBG/free T.
  • Starting testosterone in a man who wants children → suppresses spermatogenesis; use hCG/clomiphene.
  • Low testosterone + low LH + headache → prolactin and MRI before treating.
  • Anosmia + delayed puberty → Kallmann.
  • Gynecomastia in a 16-year-old → reassure; in a 25-year-old with a testicular mass → hCG-secreting tumor.
Tier 2
Topic R-3
Dyslipidemia, Metabolic Syndrome & Obesity
Four Statin Groups · Intensity · TG ≥500 → Fibrate · FH · 3-of-5 Criteria · Pharmacotherapy ≥30 / ≥27 · Surgery ≥40 / ≥35
★★ Frequently tested
Dyslipidemia — Screening, Statin Groups, Drugs
  • Screening: USPSTF — adults 40–75 for ASCVD risk assessment; lipid panel every 4–6 years from age 20 (ACC/AHA); earlier with family history of premature ASCVD or FH; children: once at 9–11 and 17–21
  • Risk estimation: Pooled Cohort Equations (or PREVENT) 10-year ASCVD risk; risk enhancers (family history, CKD, metabolic syndrome, inflammatory disease, South Asian ancestry, LDL ≥160, Lp(a), hs-CRP); coronary artery calcium score when the decision is uncertain (CAC 0 → may defer statin)
Statin-benefit groupIntensityLDL goal / marker
Clinical ASCVD (MI, stroke, PAD, revascularization)High-intensity (atorvastatin 40–80, rosuvastatin 20–40)≥50% reduction; very high risk → LDL <55–70; add ezetimibe then PCSK9i if above
LDL ≥190 mg/dL (probable familial hypercholesterolemia)High-intensity≥50% reduction; screen and treat relatives; ezetimibe/PCSK9i often required
Diabetes, age 40–75Moderate; high if multiple risk factors or risk ≥20%≥30–50% reduction
Primary prevention, age 40–75, 10-yr risk ≥7.5% (discuss 5–7.5%)Moderate (≥20%: high)≥30% reduction
DrugEffectKey facts
Statins↓ LDL 30–60%First-line for all groups; myalgia (check CK if severe; try lower dose/alternate statin), transaminitis (no routine monitoring after baseline), new diabetes (small); contraindicated in pregnancy and active liver disease; simvastatin interacts with CYP3A4 inhibitors
Ezetimibe↓ LDL ~20%Add-on to statin (IMPROVE-IT); well tolerated
PCSK9 inhibitors (evolocumab, alirocumab); inclisiran (siRNA)↓ LDL 50–60%Injectable; ASCVD or FH not at goal on statin + ezetimibe
Bempedoic acid↓ LDL ~20%Statin-intolerant; gout, tendon rupture
Fibrates (fenofibrate)↓ TG 30–50%TG ≥500 to prevent pancreatitis; gemfibrozil + statin → myopathy (use fenofibrate); gallstones
Omega-3 (icosapent ethyl)↓ TGREDUCE-IT CV benefit in high-risk with TG 150–499 on statin; AF, bleeding
Niacin↑ HDL, ↓ TG/LDLFlushing, hyperglycemia, gout, hepatotoxicity; no outcome benefit — rarely used
Bile-acid sequestrants↓ LDL 15–20%↑ TG; GI; bind other drugs (levothyroxine); safe in pregnancy
Metabolic Syndrome — 3 of 5Reference
CriterionThreshold
Waist circumference≥40 in (102 cm) men · ≥35 in (88 cm) women (lower in Asian populations)
Triglycerides≥150 mg/dL (or on treatment)
HDL<40 men · <50 women (or on treatment)
Blood pressure≥130/85 (or on treatment)
Fasting glucose≥100 mg/dL (or on treatment)

🩺 Doubles ASCVD risk and quintuples diabetes risk. Treat each component; the unifying therapy is weight loss and activity.

Obesity — Classification and Treatment ThresholdsReference
  • BMI: overweight 25–29.9; class I 30–34.9; class II 35–39.9; class III ≥40 (Asian cutoffs ~2.5 lower); waist circumference adds risk; 2025 Lancet Commission distinguishes preclinical from clinical obesity (organ dysfunction)
  • Lifestyle (≥5–10% loss improves everything) is the foundation for all
  • Pharmacotherapy: BMI ≥30, or ≥27 with a comorbidity — semaglutide 2.4 mg SC weekly or oral 25 mg daily (~15%), tirzepatide (~20%), liraglutide 3 mg, orforglipron (oral, 2026), phentermine-topiramate (glaucoma, pregnancy — teratogenic), naltrexone-bupropion (seizures, opioids), orlistat (fat-soluble vitamin malabsorption); avoid GLP-1/GIP agents with MTC/MEN2 or pancreatitis history
  • Metabolic/bariatric surgery: BMI ≥40, or ≥35 with comorbidity (ASMBS 2022; ≥30 with uncontrolled type 2 diabetes considered); sleeve gastrectomy most common; Roux-en-Y best for GERD/diabetes; post-op: B12, iron, folate, vitamin D/calcium, thiamine deficiency; dumping syndrome; marginal ulcers (no NSAIDs); alcohol use disorder risk
  • Weight-promoting drugs to reconsider: insulin, sulfonylureas, TZDs, glucocorticoids, antipsychotics (olanzapine), mirtazapine, paroxetine, valproate, gabapentin, β-blockers
⚠️ BOARD TRAP — Board Traps
  • TG 1,100 with abdominal pain → pancreatitis; treat with fibrate/insulin infusion, not a statin first.
  • Gemfibrozil + statin → rhabdomyolysis; use fenofibrate.
  • LDL 210 in a 30-year-old with a father who had an MI at 42 → familial hypercholesterolemia; high-intensity statin now, screen family.
  • Statin stopped for mild myalgia with normal CK → rechallenge at a lower dose or alternate-day rosuvastatin; most "intolerance" is nocebo.
  • Phentermine-topiramate in a woman not on contraception → cleft lip/palate; monthly pregnancy tests.
  • Post-gastric-bypass confusion, ataxia, ophthalmoplegia → thiamine (Wernicke).
Domain 8 · Neuroendocrine & Multiglandular Syndromes — Tier 3 Rapid Review
MEN 1 · MEN 2A · MEN 2B · Carcinoid · Autoimmune Polyglandular Syndromes
Tier 3
Topic M-1
MEN Syndromes, Carcinoid & Autoimmune Polyglandular Syndromes
MEN 1 (3 P's) · MEN 2A (MTC + Pheo + Parathyroid) · MEN 2B (MTC + Pheo + Neuromas) · 5-HIAA · Octreotide · APS-1 vs APS-2
★ Rapid review
MEN Syndromes — The Visual ComparisonReference
MEN 1 (Wermer)MEN 2A (Sipple)MEN 2B
GeneMEN1 (menin) — tumor suppressorRET proto-oncogene (activating)RET (M918T)
InheritanceAutosomal dominantAutosomal dominantAutosomal dominant (often de novo)
The triad3 P's: Parathyroid (hyperplasia, ~95%) · Pituitary (prolactinoma most) · Pancreas/duodenum (gastrinoma most common functional → Zollinger-Ellison; insulinoma; VIPoma; nonfunctioning)Medullary thyroid carcinoma (~100%) · Pheochromocytoma (~50%) · Parathyroid hyperplasia (~20–30%)Medullary thyroid carcinoma (earliest, most aggressive) · Pheochromocytoma (~50%) · Mucosal neuromas (lips, tongue, eyelids) · Marfanoid habitus · intestinal ganglioneuromatosis · NO parathyroid disease
PresentationHypercalcemia in a young adult (most common first sign); recurrent PUD/diarrhea (gastrinoma); hypoglycemia; galactorrheaThyroid nodule/neck mass + ↑ calcitonin; pheo symptoms; hypercalcemiaChildhood MTC; bumpy lips; tall thin; GI dysmotility
Other tumorsCarcinoid (bronchial/thymic), adrenal adenomas, lipomas, angiofibromas, collagenomasCutaneous lichen amyloidosis, Hirschsprung—
Screening / managementAnnual Ca/PTH, prolactin, IGF-1, gastrin, fasting glucose/insulin, chromogranin A; MRI pituitary, pancreas imaging; subtotal parathyroidectomy (3.5 glands); PPIs for ZESRET testing of all first-degree relatives; prophylactic thyroidectomy by age 5 (or based on codon); annual calcitonin, metanephrines, Ca; remove pheo before thyroid surgeryProphylactic thyroidectomy in the first year of life; annual metanephrines
★ Memory Trick
MEN 1 = 3 P's (Parathyroid, Pituitary, Pancreas). MEN 2A = 2 P's + M (Pheo, Parathyroid, Medullary). MEN 2B = 1 P + 2 M's (Pheo, Medullary, Mucosal neuromas) + Marfanoid — no parathyroid. RET for 2; Menin for 1.
Carcinoid SyndromeReference
Recognize
Episodic flushing (face/neck, minutes, triggered by alcohol, stress, foods), secretory diarrhea, wheezing/bronchospasm, abdominal cramps; right-sided valvular disease (tricuspid regurgitation, pulmonic stenosis — fibrous plaques); pellagra (niacin diverted to serotonin: dermatitis, diarrhea, dementia). Syndrome requires hepatic metastases (or a bronchial/ovarian primary) — the liver otherwise inactivates serotonin from midgut tumors
First test
24-h urine 5-HIAA (serotonin metabolite); avoid serotonin-rich foods (bananas, walnuts, tomatoes) and certain drugs before collection; chromogranin A
Confirm
CT/MRI abdomen; somatostatin-receptor imaging (Ga-68 DOTATATE PET, or octreotide scan); echocardiogram for carcinoid heart; biopsy
First-line treatment
Octreotide/lanreotide (control symptoms and slow growth); telotristat (tryptophan hydroxylase inhibitor) for refractory diarrhea; surgical resection when localized/debulking; PRRT (Lu-177 DOTATATE) for progressive disease; niacin supplementation
Don't miss
Carcinoid crisis (hypotension/hypertension, bronchospasm, flushing) with anesthesia, biopsy, or tumor manipulation → pretreat with octreotide; avoid catecholamines. Small-bowel obstruction/mesenteric fibrosis. Appendiceal carcinoid <2 cm at the tip → appendectomy alone
Autoimmune Polyglandular SyndromesReference
APS-1 (APECED)APS-2 (Schmidt)
GeneticsAIRE mutation; autosomal recessive; childhood onsetPolygenic (HLA-DR3/DR4); adults; women; most common
Classic triadChronic mucocutaneous candidiasis · hypoparathyroidism · Addison diseaseAddison disease · autoimmune thyroid disease · type 1 diabetes
OthersHypogonadism, pernicious anemia, alopecia, vitiligo, hepatitis, malabsorptionCeliac, vitiligo, pernicious anemia, hypogonadism, myasthenia
Teaching pointChild with recurrent thrush + hypocalcemia → screen adrenal antibodiesNew Addison → check TSH and glucose; new T1DM with fatigue and hyponatremia → check cortisol
⚠️ BOARD TRAP — Board Traps
  • Pheo in a patient with medullary thyroid cancer → resect the pheo first (α-blockade) or the thyroidectomy will trigger a crisis.
  • Hypercalcemia + PUD + galactorrhea in a 28-year-old → MEN 1; check gastrin, prolactin.
  • Flushing + diarrhea with a normal liver → unlikely carcinoid syndrome unless the primary is bronchial/ovarian; consider medullary thyroid cancer, VIPoma, mastocytosis, pheo, menopause.
  • Carcinoid patient going to surgery without octreotide → carcinoid crisis.
  • Addison patient started on levothyroxine before hydrocortisone (APS-2 both present) → adrenal crisis; steroids first — and Hashimoto's high TSH may partly normalize once cortisol is replaced.
Rapid reviewMEN & Carcinoid2 in-session
Two pattern-recognition questions.
In-sessionQ1 of 2 · Medium · MEN · Pattern recognition
A 24-year-old man has a serum calcium of 11.2 mg/dL with an elevated PTH, recurrent duodenal ulcers despite Helicobacter eradication, and a prolactin of 180 ng/mL. His father died of a "pancreas tumor" at 45. Which is the most likely underlying diagnosis and gene?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: A — MEN 1 — menin
Parathyroid + pancreatic (gastrinoma) + pituitary (prolactinoma) with a family history = MEN 1. Hypercalcemia at a young age is usually the first manifestation. Test for the MEN1 mutation; screen relatives.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • MEN 2A — RET — MEN 2A is medullary thyroid cancer, pheochromocytoma, and parathyroid — no pituitary or pancreatic tumors.
  • MEN 2B — RET — MEN 2B has mucosal neuromas and a marfanoid habitus with no parathyroid disease.
  • Von Hippel-Lindau — VHL — VHL: hemangioblastomas, RCC, pheo, pancreatic cysts/NETs — not parathyroid or pituitary.
  • Neurofibromatosis type 1 — NF1 — NF1: neurofibromas, café-au-lait, pheo (rarely) — not this triad.
Board pearlYoung hypercalcemia + ulcers + galactorrhea = MEN 1. Young medullary thyroid cancer = MEN 2 → check metanephrines before surgery.
Covered under Topic M-1 — MEN Syndromes
In-sessionQ2 of 2 · Medium · Carcinoid · Test
A 61-year-old woman has 6 months of episodic facial flushing lasting several minutes, watery diarrhea, and wheezing. Exam reveals a holosystolic murmur at the left lower sternal border that increases with inspiration, and hepatomegaly. Which test is most appropriate to confirm the suspected diagnosis?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: E — 24-hour urine 5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid
Flushing + diarrhea + bronchospasm + tricuspid regurgitation + hepatomegaly (liver metastases) = carcinoid syndrome. Confirm with 24-h urinary 5-HIAA (then chromogranin A, imaging with DOTATATE PET, echocardiogram). Treat with octreotide.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Plasma free metanephrines and normetanephrines — Pheo causes pallor with hypertension, not flushing with diarrhea and a right-sided murmur.
  • Serum calcitonin and carcinoembryonic antigen — Medullary thyroid cancer can cause flushing/diarrhea but not carcinoid heart disease; calcitonin is a reasonable second test if 5-HIAA is normal.
  • Serum tryptase during a flushing episode — Mastocytosis causes flushing/anaphylactoid episodes with urticaria pigmentosa — tryptase would be the test for that picture.
  • Serum vasoactive intestinal peptide level — VIPoma causes massive watery diarrhea with hypokalemia and achlorhydria without flushing episodes of this type or valvular disease.
Board pearlCarcinoid = flushing + diarrhea + wheeze + right heart. Test 5-HIAA; treat octreotide; pretreat before procedures.
Covered under Topic M-1 — Carcinoid
Domain 9 · ENDOCRINE CODE BLUE
Eight Emergencies — Diagnosis + First Action in 30–45 Seconds
1. DKA
Kussmaul + fruity breath + gap acidosis. Isotonic fluids first; check K before insulin (hold if <3.3). Dextrose at 200–250; done when the gap closes; overlap SC basal 1–2 h.
2. HHS
Older, type 2, obtunded, glucose >600, osm >320, no acidosis. Aggressive isotonic fluids; insulin more cautiously; dextrose at 250–300; find the precipitant.
3. Thyroid storm
Graves + trigger → fever, AF/tachycardia, delirium. β-blocker → thionamide (PTU) → iodine ≥1 h later → hydrocortisone. Acetaminophen, not aspirin.
4. Myxedema coma
Hypothermia, bradycardia, hypoventilation, hyponatremia, hypoglycemia, lethargy. IV levothyroxine + stress-dose hydrocortisone (before/with T4); passive rewarming; ICU.
5. Adrenal crisis
Shock refractory to fluids + hyponatremia ± hyperkalemia ± hypoglycemia. Hydrocortisone 100 mg IV now — do not wait for cortisol. Fluids with dextrose.
6. Hypercalcemic crisis
Ca >14 or symptomatic: confusion, polyuria, AKI, short QT. IV isotonic saline first; calcitonin (bridge) + zoledronic acid (definitive); steroids if vitamin D–mediated; no furosemide until repleted.
7. Severe hypoglycemia
Confusion/seizure/coma, unable to swallow. IV D50 (or D10) if access; glucagon IM/intranasal if not. Sulfonylurea → admit, D10, octreotide. Thiamine with dextrose in alcohol use.
8. Pituitary apoplexy
Thunderclap headache + ophthalmoplegia (CN III) + visual loss ± collapse in a macroadenoma. Stress-dose glucocorticoids + emergent neurosurgical evaluation; MRI; expect hypopituitarism.
Endocrine Code BlueDiagnosis + First Action8 emergencies
Eight cases, 30–45 seconds each. Commit to the pair (diagnosis → first action) before reveal. These are the eight the blueprint expects you to act on without a consult.
Code Blue · 30–45 sQ1 of 8 · Emergency · Code Blue 1
A 24-year-old with type 1 diabetes: RR 32 with deep breathing, fruity breath, glucose 510, HCO₃ 8, K 4.8. Diagnosis + first action?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: B — DKA → 1 L isotonic crystalloid over the first hour
Ketoacidosis with Kussmaul respirations: fluids first, then insulin (K is 4.8, so insulin can follow the first liter).
Why the other choices are wrong
  • DKA → IV regular insulin bolus 0.1 U/kg, then infusion — Fluids precede insulin.
  • HHS → 3% hypertonic saline for cerebral protection — pH is low and glucose <600; hypertonic saline is never the answer here.
  • DKA → sodium bicarbonate 100 mEq over 2 hours — Bicarbonate only if pH <6.9.
  • Salicylate toxicity → alkalinize the urine with bicarbonate — No salicylate exposure; the fruity breath and glucose make this DKA.
Board pearlFluids → K → insulin.
Covered under Topic DK-1
Code Blue · 30–45 sQ2 of 8 · Emergency · Code Blue 2
An 84-year-old with type 2 diabetes from a nursing home, obtunded, glucose 980, serum osmolality 365, pH 7.36, trace ketones. Diagnosis + first action?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: D — HHS → aggressive IV isotonic saline
Hyperosmolar, no acidosis, obtunded: HHS. The 8–10 L deficit is the killer — saline first.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • HHS → insulin infusion 0.1 U/kg/h immediately — Insulin before restoring perfusion drops intravascular volume further.
  • DKA → insulin and bicarbonate — No acidosis.
  • Stroke → CT head before any fluids — Focal deficits in HHS are common and reverse with treatment; resuscitate first (CT can follow).
  • HHS → desmopressin for hypernatremia — Hypernatremia here is from free-water loss — isotonic fluid corrects it; desmopressin would be harmful.
Board pearlFluids matter even more in HHS than DKA.
Covered under Topic DK-1
Code Blue · 30–45 sQ3 of 8 · Emergency · Code Blue 3
A 33-year-old with untreated Graves disease, post-op day 2: T 40.4 °C, HR 170 AF, agitated, vomiting. Diagnosis + first action?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: C — Thyroid storm → propranolol, then PTU, iodine ≥1 h later, hydrocortisone
Clinical diagnosis (Burch-Wartofsky); the drug sequence is the test point.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Thyroid storm → potassium iodide first, then PTU and propranolol once the rate falls — Iodine before the thionamide fuels synthesis.
  • Sepsis → broad-spectrum antibiotics and 30 mL/kg crystalloid; no thyroid-specific therapy — Treat sepsis concurrently if suspected, but the storm needs its own therapy.
  • Malignant hyperthermia → dantrolene 2.5 mg/kg IV and active cooling — MH occurs during anesthesia with rigidity and hypercapnia.
  • Thyroid storm → radioactive iodine ablation with propranolol for rate control — RAI has no role acutely.
Board pearlB → B → I (wait an hour) → S.
Covered under Topic T-2
Code Blue · 30–45 sQ4 of 8 · Emergency · Code Blue 4
A 78-year-old woman with a history of Hashimoto disease who stopped levothyroxine: T 33 °C, HR 44, BP 82/50, Na 122, pCO₂ 58, somnolent. Diagnosis + first action?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: A — Myxedema coma → IV levothyroxine + IV hydrocortisone, ICU
Cold, slow, low (Na, BP, ventilation) in an untreated hypothyroid patient: IV T4 with stress-dose steroids (cover possible adrenal insufficiency), passive rewarming, ventilatory support, treat the precipitant.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Myxedema coma → oral levothyroxine 1.6 µg/kg, ward admission — Oral absorption is unreliable in myxedema (gut edema, ileus); IV is required.
  • Septic shock → normal saline 30 mL/kg and broad-spectrum antibiotics — Large saline volumes worsen hyponatremia; sepsis may be the precipitant but is not the primary diagnosis.
  • Accidental hypothermia → active external rewarming with a forced-air blanket — Active rewarming causes vasodilation and collapse; rewarm passively.
  • Adrenal crisis → hydrocortisone 100 mg IV alone and observe — Steroids alone will not reverse the hypothyroid crisis.
Board pearlMyxedema coma: IV T4 + steroids; mortality 30–60%.
Covered under Topic T-1
Code Blue · 30–45 sQ5 of 8 · Emergency · Code Blue 5
A 41-year-old with vitiligo and tan skin: BP 70/40 despite 3 L saline, Na 124, K 6.2, glucose 52, vomiting. Diagnosis + first action?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: D — Adrenal crisis → hydrocortisone 100 mg IV immediately
Refractory shock with hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, and hypoglycemia in a pigmented patient: give hydrocortisone now; draw cortisol/ACTH if it costs no time.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Adrenal crisis → cosyntropin stimulation test, then steroids — Testing first is the fatal delay.
  • Septic shock → norepinephrine — Pressors are ineffective without cortisol.
  • Hyperkalemia → calcium gluconate and insulin/dextrose only — Treat the hyperkalemia, yes — but it resolves with steroids and fluids; it is not the diagnosis.
  • SIADH → fluid restriction — SIADH does not cause shock or hyperkalemia.
Board pearlHydrocortisone first, questions later.
Covered under Topic A-1
Code Blue · 30–45 sQ6 of 8 · Emergency · Code Blue 6
A 68-year-old with multiple myeloma: confusion, polyuria, Ca 15.6 mg/dL, creatinine 2.4. Diagnosis + first action?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: C — Hypercalcemic crisis → aggressive IV isotonic saline
Severe symptomatic hypercalcemia with AKI: saline first (restores GFR, calciuresis), then calcitonin plus a bisphosphonate (dose-adjusted) or denosumab; steroids help myeloma; dialysis if refractory or anuric.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Hypercalcemic crisis → IV furosemide 40 mg every 6 hours — Loop diuretics only after volume repletion.
  • Hypercalcemic crisis → IV zoledronic acid 4 mg alone — Bisphosphonate works in 2–4 days and is nephrotoxic while volume-depleted — give after fluids.
  • Hypercalcemic crisis → oral prednisone 60 mg daily — Steroids are adjunctive for myeloma/lymphoma but not the first action for a calcium of 15.6.
  • Uremic encephalopathy → emergent hemodialysis — The creatinine is calcium-driven prerenal/nephrogenic DI; fluids first.
Board pearlSaline → calcitonin → bisphosphonate.
Covered under Topic C-1
Code Blue · 30–45 sQ7 of 8 · Emergency · Code Blue 7
A 59-year-old with type 2 diabetes on glimepiride, found unresponsive, glucose 28 mg/dL, no IV access yet. Diagnosis + first action?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: E — Severe hypoglycemia → glucagon 1 mg IM (or 3 mg intranasal), then IV dextrose once access is obtained; admit
Unresponsive with no line: glucagon now, dextrose as soon as access exists. Sulfonylurea → recurrent hypoglycemia for 24–72 h → admit with D10 infusion ± octreotide.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Severe hypoglycemia → oral glucose gel massaged between the cheek and gum, repeated every 5 minutes until awake — Oral anything in an unresponsive patient risks aspiration.
  • Severe hypoglycemia → one ampule of D50 once IV access is placed, then discharge home when awake and eating — Sulfonylurea hypoglycemia recurs; discharge after one dose is the trap.
  • Acute ischemic stroke → activate the stroke team and obtain a non-contrast CT of the head before any other treatment — Check glucose before calling any focal deficit a stroke — hypoglycemia mimics it.
  • Opioid overdose → naloxone 0.4 mg IV, repeated every 2–3 minutes until the patient is responsive — The glucose is 28; treat what you found.
Board pearlGlucagon when there is no line; sulfonylurea means admit.
Covered under Topic DK-2
Code Blue · 30–45 sQ8 of 8 · Emergency · Code Blue 8
A 47-year-old on warfarin with a known pituitary macroadenoma: sudden worst headache, ptosis with a dilated pupil on the right, vision loss, BP 80/48, Na 128. Diagnosis + first action?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: B — Pituitary apoplexy → IV hydrocortisone + emergent neurosurgical evaluation
Hemorrhage into a macroadenoma: acute ACTH loss causes the hypotension and hyponatremia — steroids immediately; MRI; decompression for visual loss or deteriorating consciousness.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Subarachnoid hemorrhage → nimodipine and reversal of anticoagulation — SAH is the key mimic (CT/CTA is appropriate), but the sellar mass, ophthalmoplegia, and endocrine collapse point to apoplexy; nimodipine is not the first action.
  • Migraine with aura → subcutaneous sumatriptan and IV antiemetic — Thunderclap headache is never migraine until proven otherwise; triptans with hypotension are inappropriate.
  • Pituitary apoplexy → cabergoline 0.5 mg twice weekly to shrink the tumor — Dopamine agonists have no role in apoplexy (and can precipitate it).
  • Acute angle-closure glaucoma → timolol drops and IV acetazolamide — A dilated pupil with ptosis is a CN III palsy, not glaucoma.
Board pearlSteroids + surgeon.
Covered under Topic P-3
Final Review
Endocrine Lightning Round — 12 Cases, 15 Seconds Each
Lightning roundOne Line, One Answer12 cases
Twelve one-line cases. Answer in 10–20 seconds. The pattern is the diagnosis.
Lightning · 15 sQ1 of 12 · Lightning · Lightning 1
TSH ↓, free T4 ↑, RAIU diffusely ↑, TSI positive, proptosis.
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: A — Graves disease
Diffuse uptake + TSI + eye disease = Graves.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Toxic adenoma — Focal uptake.
  • Subacute thyroiditis — Low uptake, painful.
  • Factitious thyrotoxicosis — Low uptake, low thyroglobulin.
  • Hashimoto thyroiditis — Hypothyroid.
Board pearlEye signs = Graves only.
Covered under T-2
Lightning · 15 sQ2 of 12 · Lightning · Lightning 2
Woman on lithium with polyuria; Na 149; urine osm 110; no change after desmopressin.
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: D — Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
Lithium + no desmopressin response = nephrogenic DI → amiloride/thiazide.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Central diabetes insipidus — Would respond to desmopressin.
  • SIADH from lithium toxicity — Hyponatremia.
  • Primary (psychogenic) polydipsia — Low-normal Na.
  • Osmotic diuresis from glycosuria — Urine osm would be >300.
Board pearlLithium → amiloride.
Covered under P-4
Lightning · 15 sQ3 of 12 · Lightning · Lightning 3
Cortisol ↓, ACTH ↓, K normal, no pigmentation, 5 days after stopping chronic prednisone.
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: B — Secondary adrenal insufficiency
Low ACTH + normal K + no pigment = central; steroid withdrawal.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Primary adrenal insufficiency — ACTH high, K high, pigmented.
  • Cushing syndrome — Cortisol high.
  • Primary aldosteronism — Hypertension, low K.
  • SIADH — Cortisol normal.
Board pearlNo fludrocortisone needed.
Covered under A-1
Lightning · 15 sQ4 of 12 · Lightning · Lightning 4
Ca 12.8, PTH 4 pg/mL, PTHrP ↑, 55-pack-year smoker with a cavitary lung mass.
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: C — Humoral hypercalcemia of malignancy (squamous cell carcinoma)
Suppressed PTH + high PTHrP + squamous lung cancer.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Primary hyperparathyroidism unmasked by dehydration — PTH would be high.
  • Sarcoidosis with 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D excess — 1,25-D mediated; PTHrP normal.
  • Familial hypocalciuric hypercalcemia (CaSR mutation) — PTH normal, mild, familial.
  • Tertiary hyperparathyroidism from chronic kidney disease — PTH very high in CKD.
Board pearlPTHrP = squamous (lung, head/neck), renal, breast.
Covered under C-1
Lightning · 15 sQ5 of 12 · Lightning · Lightning 5
Type 2 diabetic with EF 28% needs a second agent after metformin.
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: E — SGLT2 inhibitor
HF → SGLT2i.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Pioglitazone — Fluid retention.
  • Saxagliptin — HF hospitalization signal.
  • Glyburide — Hypoglycemia, no benefit.
  • Bedtime NPH insulin — No HF benefit.
Board pearlHF or CKD → -flozin.
Covered under DM-2
Lightning · 15 sQ6 of 12 · Lightning · Lightning 6
Postpartum hemorrhage 3 months ago; cannot lactate; amenorrhea; fatigue.
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: A — Sheehan syndrome
Pituitary infarction; lactation failure first.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Postpartum thyroiditis — Does not stop lactation.
  • Prolactinoma — Would cause galactorrhea.
  • Primary ovarian insufficiency — FSH high; lactation intact.
  • Postpartum depression — Hormonal findings absent.
Board pearlReplace cortisol first.
Covered under P-3
Lightning · 15 sQ7 of 12 · Lightning · Lightning 7
Episodic headache, sweating, palpitations, BP 220/120, pallor.
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: B — Pheochromocytoma → metanephrines → alpha blockade
Paroxysms + pallor; biochemistry before imaging; α before β.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Pheochromocytoma → CT abdomen → beta blockade — Wrong order twice.
  • Carcinoid syndrome → 24-h urine 5-HIAA → octreotide — Carcinoid flushes.
  • Panic disorder → SSRI and cognitive therapy — 220/120 is not panic.
  • Hyperthyroidism → RAIU scan → methimazole — Sustained, heat intolerant.
Board pearlAlpha first.
Covered under A-3
Lightning · 15 sQ8 of 12 · Lightning · Lightning 8
Postoperative day 0 after thyroidectomy: perioral tingling, positive Trousseau sign.
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: E — Hypocalcemia from hypoparathyroidism → IV calcium gluconate + calcitriol
Parathyroid injury; calcium (IV if symptomatic) + calcitriol; check Mg.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Hypomagnesemia → IV magnesium sulfate alone, recheck calcium in 4 hours — Possible contributor but not the primary cause here.
  • Hyperventilation syndrome → coached slow breathing and reassurance — Not the explanation after neck surgery.
  • Recurrent laryngeal nerve injury → urgent flexible laryngoscopy — Presents with hoarseness/stridor, not tetany.
  • Thyroid storm → propranolol, PTU, then potassium iodide — No fever/tachycardia.
Board pearlLow PTH → no active D → calcitriol.
Covered under C-2
Lightning · 15 sQ9 of 12 · Lightning · Lightning 9
22-year-old with polyuria, weight loss, glucose 380, GAD65 positive, low C-peptide.
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: D — Type 1 diabetes → basal-bolus insulin
Autoantibody + low C-peptide = type 1; insulin from day one.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Type 2 diabetes → metformin and lifestyle — Antibody-positive, lean, catabolic.
  • MODY → low-dose sulfonylurea — MODY is antibody-negative with preserved C-peptide.
  • LADA → observe and recheck A1c in 3 months — LADA is older, slower, and still needs insulin eventually.
  • Prediabetes → lifestyle program — Glucose 380 is not prediabetes.
Board pearlAntibodies decide, not ketones.
Covered under DM-1
Lightning · 15 sQ10 of 12 · Lightning · Lightning 10
Enlarging hands and feet, coarse face, new diabetes, sleep apnea. First test?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: C — IGF-1
IGF-1 screens; OGTT-GH confirms.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Random growth hormone — Pulsatile.
  • Pituitary MRI — After biochemistry.
  • Prolactin — Not the presenting axis.
  • Cortisol — Not cushingoid.
Board pearlNever random GH.
Covered under P-2
Lightning · 15 sQ11 of 12 · Lightning · Lightning 11
Painful, tender thyroid 3 weeks after a viral illness; TSH low; ESR 80; RAIU 1%.
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: A — Subacute thyroiditis → NSAIDs + β-blocker
Painful, low-uptake thyrotoxicosis after a virus.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Graves disease → methimazole — Uptake would be high; gland painless.
  • Toxic adenoma → RAI — Uptake would be focal and high.
  • Suppurative thyroiditis → IV antibiotics — Bacterial: fever, leukocytosis, fluctuance, normal TFTs.
  • Hashimoto → levothyroxine — Hypothyroid, painless.
Board pearlLow uptake → don't treat the gland.
Covered under T-3
Lightning · 15 sQ12 of 12 · Lightning · Lightning 12
Hypertension since age 30, K 3.1 off diuretics, aldosterone 28 ng/dL, renin suppressed.
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: D — Primary aldosteronism → saline suppression test → CT/AVS
High aldosterone, low renin = Conn; confirm, then localize.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Pheochromocytoma → plasma metanephrines → CT — No paroxysms.
  • Renal artery stenosis → CT angiography → stenting — Renin would be high.
  • Cushing syndrome → 1-mg DST → pituitary MRI — Not cushingoid; hypokalemia in Cushing is ectopic.
  • Liddle syndrome → amiloride and low-salt diet — Liddle has low aldosterone and low renin.
Board pearlLow renin = the adrenal is autonomous.
Covered under A-3
Final Review
Five Integrated PANCE-Style Cases
Integrated casesTwo Systems at Once5 cases
Five challenging cases that combine two domains — the format the PANCE uses for its hardest endocrine items.
Integrated caseQ1 of 5 · Hard · Integrated 1 · Thyroid + adrenal
A 34-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes and vitiligo has fatigue, weight loss, and increasing hypoglycemic episodes requiring insulin dose reductions over 3 months. BP 92/58 with orthostasis. TSH 9.8, free T4 low-normal, Na 129, K 5.4. Which is the most appropriate next step?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: E — Check 8 AM cortisol and ACTH; if adrenal insufficiency is confirmed, start hydrocortisone before any levothyroxine
Autoimmune polyglandular syndrome type 2: T1DM + Hashimoto + Addison. Falling insulin requirements, orthostasis, hyponatremia, and hyperkalemia signal primary adrenal insufficiency. Confirm and replace glucocorticoid first; cortisol replacement often lowers the TSH, and levothyroxine before hydrocortisone precipitates crisis.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Start levothyroxine 50 µg daily for the elevated TSH and recheck thyroid function in 6 weeks before any other testing — Levothyroxine first → adrenal crisis.
  • Increase basal insulin because the rising TSH indicates worsening insulin resistance from hypothyroidism — Insulin needs are falling because cortisol is absent; more insulin worsens hypoglycemia.
  • Start fludrocortisone 0.1 mg daily alone for the hyponatremia and hyperkalemia and recheck electrolytes in 1 week — Mineralocorticoid alone does not replace cortisol.
  • Order a pituitary MRI to evaluate for a mass causing combined secondary hypothyroidism and secondary adrenal insufficiency — Hyperkalemia indicates primary (adrenal) disease, not pituitary.
Board pearlNew hypoglycemia in a T1DM patient with other autoimmune disease = think Addison. Steroid before thyroid.
Covered under Topics A-1, T-1, M-1
Integrated caseQ2 of 5 · Hard · Integrated 2 · DKA + potassium + precipitant
A 26-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes presents with DKA: glucose 460, pH 7.08, HCO₃ 7, K 3.1, and a temperature of 38.9 °C with right flank pain and pyuria. She has received 1 L of saline. Which combination is most appropriate now?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: C — Continue isotonic fluids, infuse potassium chloride, hold insulin until K ≥3.3, and start antibiotics for pyelonephritis
Two rules at once: the potassium rule (K 3.1 → replete before insulin) and the precipitant rule (DKA is triggered by infection — treat empirically, do not wait for culture). Bicarbonate is not indicated at pH 7.08.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Start insulin infusion now, add potassium to the fluids, and await urine culture before antibiotics — Insulin at K 3.1 risks arrhythmia; antibiotics should not wait.
  • Give sodium bicarbonate, start insulin, and obtain a CT of the abdomen — Bicarbonate threshold is 6.9; imaging is not the priority.
  • Give an insulin bolus and switch to D5 ½NS — Dextrose is not yet needed at glucose 460, and insulin is unsafe.
  • Give potassium and insulin simultaneously and hold antibiotics until cultures return — Even with simultaneous potassium, guidelines say hold insulin until K ≥3.3; antibiotics should not be delayed.
Board pearlEvery DKA has a trigger — find and treat it while you run the algorithm.
Covered under Topic DK-1
Integrated caseQ3 of 5 · Hard · Integrated 3 · Hyperparathyroidism + MEN + pheo
A 31-year-old man has calcium 11.9 with PTH 140, a 2-cm thyroid nodule with calcitonin of 1,800 pg/mL, and intermittent palpitations with sweating. Before thyroidectomy, which step is essential?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: B — Measure plasma metanephrines and, if elevated, resect the pheochromocytoma after alpha blockade before the thyroid surgery
Medullary thyroid carcinoma + hyperparathyroidism + adrenergic symptoms = MEN 2A. Undiagnosed pheochromocytoma during neck surgery causes a hypertensive crisis; screen and remove it first (after α-blockade). Then thyroidectomy (RAI is useless for MTC), then address the parathyroids; test RET and screen relatives.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Proceed directly to total thyroidectomy with central neck dissection and parathyroidectomy in a single operation — Surgery with an unblocked pheo can be fatal.
  • Start radioactive iodine ablation for the thyroid nodule and address the hypercalcemia medically with cinacalcet afterward — C cells do not take up iodine.
  • Perform a sestamibi scan and parathyroidectomy first, since the hypercalcemia is the most immediately dangerous finding — Parathyroid disease is the least urgent of the three.
  • Give propranolol for the palpitations, obtain an echocardiogram, and schedule thyroidectomy once the heart rate is controlled — β-blockade before α-blockade in pheo is contraindicated.
Board pearlMTC → always look for a pheo before the OR.
Covered under Topics T-4, A-3, M-1
Integrated caseQ4 of 5 · Hard · Integrated 4 · Cushing + hyponatremia mimic
A 52-year-old woman has 4 months of weight gain, proximal weakness, hypertension, glucose 210, and a 1-mg DST cortisol of 9.6 µg/dL confirmed by two elevated 24-h urinary free cortisol collections. ACTH is 3 pg/mL. What is the most appropriate next step?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: A — CT of the adrenal glands
Confirmed hypercortisolism with a suppressed ACTH = ACTH-independent = adrenal source. Image the adrenals; an adenoma → unilateral adrenalectomy with perioperative and tapering glucocorticoids (the contralateral gland is suppressed).
Why the other choices are wrong
  • MRI of the pituitary — Pituitary imaging is for ACTH-dependent disease.
  • Inferior petrosal sinus sampling — IPSS distinguishes pituitary from ectopic — both are ACTH-dependent.
  • High-dose dexamethasone suppression test — High-dose DST is likewise for ACTH-dependent disease.
  • Chest CT for an ectopic source — Ectopic ACTH would raise ACTH, not suppress it.
Board pearlACTH low → look at the adrenals. ACTH high → pituitary vs ectopic.
Covered under Topic A-2
Integrated caseQ5 of 5 · Hard · Integrated 5 · SIADH vs its mimics
A 71-year-old man with small cell lung cancer is admitted with Na 118, confusion, and one brief seizure. Serum osm 248, urine osm 480, urine Na 60, euvolemic. TSH and cortisol normal. Which management sequence is correct?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: E — 3% saline bolus now for the seizure, then fluid restriction, with total correction limited to ≤8 mEq/L in 24 hours
Severe symptomatic hyponatremia (seizure) requires hypertonic saline immediately — a 100–150 mL bolus, repeated to raise sodium 4–6 mEq/L — regardless of etiology. Afterward, SIADH is treated with fluid restriction (± salt tabs/urea, tolvaptan) and the rate of rise is capped at ~8 mEq/L per 24 h to prevent osmotic demyelination.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Fluid restriction to 800 mL/day alone, with a recheck of sodium in 12 hours and 3% saline only if it has not risen — Fluid restriction alone is too slow for an actively seizing patient.
  • Normal saline at 150 mL/h until the sodium normalizes, since isotonic fluid corrects hyponatremia without risk of overcorrection — Isotonic saline can worsen SIADH hyponatremia — the kidney excretes the salt and keeps the water.
  • Tolvaptan 15 mg as initial therapy, targeting a normal sodium by the following morning to prevent further seizures — Vaptans are not for acute symptomatic hyponatremia and risk overcorrection.
  • Desmopressin 2 µg IV to reduce urine output and free-water losses, with fluid restriction and a recheck in 6 hours — Desmopressin raises ADH activity — the opposite of what is needed (it is used only to relower sodium after overcorrection).
Board pearlSeizing + Na 118 → 3% saline now. Then slow down: 8 in 24.
Covered under Topic P-4
Cumulative · Mixed · Untimed
The Endocrine Gauntlet — 25 Questions
Every domain, shuffled, written the way the PANCE writes them. Each explanation names the strongest distractor and why it fails.
GauntletThe Endocrine Gauntlet25 questions
Answer these twenty-five before you read the topics. Getting them wrong is expected and useful — attempting a question first is what makes the material below stick. Each explanation unlocks only after you submit.
GauntletQ1 of 25 · Gauntlet · Diabetes
A1c 8.1   EF 35%   eGFR 48
A 54-year-old man with type 2 diabetes (A1c 8.1%) on metformin has heart failure with reduced ejection fraction and eGFR 48. Which of the following is the most appropriate second agent?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: C — Empagliflozin
Heart failure or CKD makes an SGLT2 inhibitor the second agent regardless of A1c, for hospitalization and progression benefit independent of glucose lowering.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Glipizide — Strongest distractor: a GLP-1 RA would also be reasonable for ASCVD/obesity, but is not offered; pioglitazone is contraindicated in HF because of fluid retention
  • Pioglitazone — Sulfonylureas add hypoglycemia and no cardiorenal benefit
  • Sitagliptin — DPP-4 inhibitors are neutral (saxagliptin increases HF hospitalization)
  • Basal insulin — Insulin is for A1c >10% or catabolic symptoms
Board pearlHF or CKD → SGLT2i. ASCVD or obesity → GLP-1 RA. Pioglitazone never in HF.
Covered under Covered below under Topic DM-2
GauntletQ2 of 25 · Gauntlet · Thyroid
A 70-year-old woman with atrial fibrillation started amiodarone 8 months ago. TSH is 9.8 and free T4 is 0.7. She is mildly fatigued. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: B — Levothyroxine; continue amiodarone
Amiodarone-induced hypothyroidism is common and does not require stopping a drug that controls her arrhythmia; replace thyroid hormone and continue amiodarone.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Stop amiodarone and recheck thyroid function in 3 months — Strongest distractor: stopping amiodarone — unnecessary for hypothyroidism (unlike type 1 thyrotoxicosis where it is considered) and risks arrhythmia
  • Methimazole 10 mg daily — Methimazole treats hyperthyroidism
  • Prednisone 40 mg daily — Prednisone treats type 2 amiodarone thyrotoxicosis
  • Radioactive iodine uptake scan — Uptake is uninformative after an iodine load
Board pearlAmiodarone hypothyroidism: levothyroxine, keep the amiodarone.
Covered under Covered below under Topic T-1
GauntletQ3 of 25 · Gauntlet · Emergency
Glucose 1,040   osm 358   pH 7.35
A 61-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes is found obtunded. Glucose 1,040, sodium 152, serum osmolality 358, pH 7.35, bicarbonate 21, ketones trace. Which of the following is the most important initial intervention?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: D — Isotonic saline 15–20 mL/kg over the first hour
Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state has a water deficit of 8–12 L; aggressive isotonic fluid restores perfusion, lowers glucose, and reduces osmolality before insulin is needed at lower doses than DKA.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Insulin infusion 0.1 U/kg/h after a 0.1 U/kg bolus — Strongest distractor: insulin first — fluids drop glucose substantially on their own; insulin before volume worsens intravascular depletion
  • Potassium chloride 40 mEq in the first liter of fluid — Potassium is replaced after the level and urine output are known
  • Sodium bicarbonate — No acidosis to treat
  • Hypotonic saline to correct the sodium — Isotonic saline is hypotonic relative to her serum; hypotonic fluid initially risks cerebral edema
Board pearlHHS: fluids are the treatment; insulin is the adjunct.
Covered under Covered below under Topic DK-1
GauntletQ4 of 25 · Gauntlet · Adrenal
K 3.1   aldo 28   renin 0.2   ARR 140
A 42-year-old woman with resistant hypertension has potassium 3.1. Plasma aldosterone is 28 ng/dL with renin 0.2 ng/mL/h. Saline infusion fails to suppress aldosterone. CT shows a 1.4 cm left adrenal nodule. She wants surgery. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: A — Adrenal vein sampling
CT cannot distinguish a functioning adenoma from an incidental nodule with contralateral or bilateral hyperplasia (which occurs in a third of patients over 35); adrenal vein sampling lateralizes before surgery.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Left adrenalectomy — Strongest distractor: proceeding to adrenalectomy on CT alone — removes the wrong gland in a substantial minority
  • Spironolactone and follow-up imaging in 6 months — Medical therapy is right for bilateral disease or non-surgical candidates, but she is a surgical candidate needing lateralization
  • Repeat CT with contrast washout — Washout evaluates malignancy, not function
  • Overnight dexamethasone suppression test — DST screens for cortisol co-secretion but does not lateralize aldosterone
Board pearlAldosteronism + surgery planned = adrenal vein sampling before the knife (unless <35 with a clear adenoma).
Covered under Covered below under Topic A-3
GauntletQ5 of 25 · Gauntlet · Calcium
Ca 7.1   albumin 3.9   QTc 490
A 49-year-old woman has tingling around her mouth and carpal spasm 12 hours after total thyroidectomy. Calcium is 7.1 mg/dL (albumin 3.9); QTc is 490 ms. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: E — IV calcium gluconate, then oral calcium and calcitriol
Symptomatic hypocalcemia (perioral paresthesia, Trousseau/carpal spasm, prolonged QT) after parathyroid injury needs IV calcium gluconate followed by oral calcium and calcitriol (fast-acting, since PTH-dependent 1-hydroxylation is lost); check magnesium.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Oral calcium carbonate and calcitriol — Strongest distractor: oral therapy alone — correct for asymptomatic mild hypocalcemia, too slow with tetany and a long QT
  • Observation; post-surgical hypocalcemia is transient — Symptomatic hypocalcemia is never observed
  • Vitamin D 50,000 units orally weekly for 8 weeks — Cholecalciferol takes weeks to act
  • Magnesium sulfate alone with cardiac monitoring — Magnesium is checked and replaced but is not the primary therapy
Board pearlTetany or QT prolongation = IV calcium; hypoparathyroidism needs calcitriol, not just vitamin D.
Covered under Covered below under Topic C-2
GauntletQ6 of 25 · Gauntlet · Pituitary
Prolactin 186   1.6 cm adenoma
A 26-year-old woman has amenorrhea and galactorrhea. Pregnancy test is negative, TSH is normal, and she takes no medications. Prolactin is 186 ng/mL; MRI shows a 1.6 cm pituitary adenoma abutting the optic chiasm without visual field loss. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: B — Cabergoline
Prolactinomas — including macroadenomas near the chiasm — are treated medically first with a dopamine agonist, which shrinks the tumor in most patients within weeks. Surgery is for dopamine-agonist failure or intolerance, or acute visual compromise unresponsive to medication.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Transsphenoidal resection — Strongest distractor: surgery — the rule for every other functioning adenoma, but prolactinoma is the exception
  • Radiation therapy — Radiation is third-line
  • Combined oral contraceptives — OCPs restore menses but leave the tumor untreated
  • Observation with repeat MRI in 12 months — A macroadenoma near the chiasm is not observed
Board pearlProlactinoma = cabergoline first, even when it is big.
Covered under Covered below under Topic P-1
GauntletQ7 of 25 · Gauntlet · Hypoglycemia
Glucose 38   insulin 42   C-peptide 0.1
A 47-year-old nurse without diabetes has recurrent confusion and sweating relieved by eating. During an episode: glucose 38, insulin 42 µU/mL (high), C-peptide 0.1 ng/mL (low), sulfonylurea screen negative. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: D — Exogenous insulin administration
Endogenous insulin is secreted with C-peptide in equal amounts; high insulin with a suppressed C-peptide can only mean injected insulin.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Insulinoma — Strongest distractor: insulinoma — also high insulin, but C-peptide would be high because the insulin is endogenous
  • Surreptitious sulfonylurea use — Sulfonylureas raise both insulin and C-peptide, and the screen is negative
  • Adrenal insufficiency — Adrenal insufficiency causes hypoglycemia with low insulin
  • Non-islet cell tumor hypoglycemia — IGF-2-secreting tumors suppress both insulin and C-peptide
Board pearlHigh insulin + low C-peptide = the insulin came from a syringe.
Covered under Covered below under Topic DK-2
GauntletQ8 of 25 · Gauntlet · Thyroid
A 44-year-old man has a 2.2 cm thyroid nodule found on a carotid ultrasound. TSH is 1.8. Ultrasound shows a solid hypoechoic nodule with microcalcifications and irregular margins. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: C — Fine-needle aspiration
With a normal TSH, ultrasound features drive the decision: a hypoechoic solid nodule with microcalcifications and irregular margins is high suspicion (TI-RADS 5) and warrants FNA at ≥1 cm.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Radioactive iodine uptake and scan — Strongest distractor: RAIU — useful only when TSH is low to identify a hot nodule; with a normal TSH it adds nothing
  • Repeat ultrasound in 12 months — Surveillance is for low-suspicion small nodules
  • Levothyroxine suppression therapy — Suppression therapy is obsolete
  • Total thyroidectomy — Surgery follows cytology, not imaging alone
Board pearlNormal TSH + suspicious ultrasound + ≥1 cm = FNA. Low TSH = scan first.
Covered under Covered below under Topic T-4
GauntletQ9 of 25 · Gauntlet · Adrenal
A 36-year-old man has episodic headaches, palpitations, and diaphoresis with a BP of 210/120 during an episode. Plasma free metanephrines are four times the upper limit and CT shows a 4 cm right adrenal mass. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step before surgery?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: A — Alpha blockade (phenoxybenzamine or doxazosin) with salt loading for 10–14 days
Pheochromocytoma requires alpha blockade first, with volume expansion, then beta blockade only for reflex tachycardia, then surgery. Unopposed beta blockade leaves alpha-mediated vasoconstriction unchecked and can precipitate hypertensive crisis.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Propranolol to control heart rate and blood pressure before any other agent — Strongest distractor: propranolol — the classic fatal error; beta blockade comes after alpha
  • Immediate laparoscopic adrenalectomy without preoperative preparation — Surgery without preparation risks intraoperative crisis and postoperative hypotension
  • Metyrosine alone — Metyrosine is an adjunct, not a substitute for alpha blockade
  • Nifedipine as monotherapy — Calcium channel blockers are add-ons
Board pearlPheo: alpha, then beta, then surgery. Never beta first.
Covered under Covered below under Topic A-3
GauntletQ10 of 25 · Gauntlet · Diabetes
A 31-year-old woman at 26 weeks of gestation has a 1-hour 50-g glucose challenge of 168 mg/dL and a 3-hour 100-g OGTT with two abnormal values. Diet and exercise fail to control glucose after 2 weeks. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: E — Insulin
Insulin is the first-line pharmacologic therapy for gestational diabetes because it does not cross the placenta; metformin and glyburide are alternatives when insulin is refused or unavailable, with less long-term safety data.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Glyburide — Strongest distractor: metformin — widely used and acceptable, but insulin remains the ADA/ACOG first-line recommendation
  • Metformin — Glyburide crosses the placenta and has more neonatal hypoglycemia
  • Continue diet with delivery at 36 weeks — Untreated GDM causes macrosomia; delivery timing does not substitute for control
  • Sitagliptin — DPP-4 inhibitors are not used in pregnancy
Board pearlGDM failing lifestyle = insulin first. Screen 4–12 weeks postpartum for persistent diabetes.
Covered under Covered below under Topic DM-3
GauntletQ11 of 25 · Gauntlet · Emergency
T 33.2   HR 44   Na 126   TSH 98
A 72-year-old woman with untreated hypothyroidism is brought in unresponsive in January: temperature 33.2 °C, heart rate 44, sodium 126, glucose 58. TSH is 98. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: C — IV levothyroxine plus IV hydrocortisone, passive rewarming
Myxedema coma is treated empirically with IV levothyroxine (oral absorption is unreliable in an ileus-prone gut) and stress-dose hydrocortisone until coexisting adrenal insufficiency is excluded; passive rewarming avoids vasodilatory collapse.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Oral levothyroxine via nasogastric tube — Strongest distractor: active rewarming — causes peripheral vasodilation and cardiovascular collapse
  • Active external rewarming with warming blankets and IV fluids — Enteral absorption is unreliable
  • Intravenous liothyronine alone at high dose — T3 alone risks arrhythmia; it is an adjunct at most
  • Await free T4 confirmation before starting any thyroid hormone — Waiting for confirmation is fatal
Board pearlMyxedema coma: IV T4 + hydrocortisone + passive warming.
Covered under Covered below under Topic T-1
GauntletQ12 of 25 · Gauntlet · Calcium
A 67-year-old woman has a DXA T-score of −2.7 at the femoral neck and a history of a vertebral compression fracture. eGFR is 55. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial therapy?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: B — Alendronate
Osteoporosis with a fragility fracture is treated with an oral bisphosphonate first-line (eGFR ≥35 acceptable), taken upright with water on an empty stomach; consider anabolic therapy (teriparatide) for very high risk, denosumab if bisphosphonates are not tolerated.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Calcium and vitamin D alone — Strongest distractor: calcium/vitamin D alone — necessary adjuncts, insufficient after a fracture
  • Raloxifene — Raloxifene reduces vertebral but not hip fracture and raises VTE risk
  • Calcitonin nasal spray — Calcitonin is weak and reserved for acute fracture pain
  • Estrogen replacement — Estrogen is not first-line for osteoporosis in a 67-year-old
Board pearlT-score ≤−2.5 or fragility fracture = bisphosphonate; hold if eGFR <30–35 (denosumab instead).
Covered under Covered below under Topic C-3
GauntletQ13 of 25 · Gauntlet · Pituitary
A 52-year-old man has enlarging hands, coarse facial features, sleep apnea, and new diabetes. Which of the following is the most appropriate screening test?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: D — Serum IGF-1
Growth hormone is pulsatile and unreliable as a single value; IGF-1 integrates GH secretion and is the screening test. Confirmation is failure of GH to suppress during an OGTT, then MRI.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Random growth hormone level — Strongest distractor: OGTT with GH — the confirmatory test, not the screen
  • Pituitary MRI — Imaging comes after biochemical confirmation
  • Oral glucose tolerance test with growth hormone measurement — Random GH is uninterpretable
  • Prolactin — Prolactin is often co-elevated but is not the screen
Board pearlAcromegaly: IGF-1 screens, OGTT confirms, MRI localizes, surgery treats.
Covered under Covered below under Topic P-2
GauntletQ14 of 25 · Gauntlet · Thyroid
A 29-year-old woman at 9 weeks of gestation has Graves disease with TSH <0.01 and free T4 2.9. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: E — Propylthiouracil
PTU in the first trimester (methimazole is teratogenic: aplasia cutis, choanal atresia), then switch to methimazole after 16 weeks because of PTU hepatotoxicity. Radioiodine is absolutely contraindicated in pregnancy.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Methimazole — Strongest distractor: methimazole — the correct drug for everyone except the first trimester
  • Propranolol alone — Beta-blockers alone do not control hormone synthesis
  • Radioactive iodine — Radioiodine crosses the placenta and ablates the fetal thyroid
  • Total thyroidectomy now — Surgery, if needed, is done in the second trimester
Board pearlGraves in pregnancy: PTU first trimester, methimazole after; never RAI.
Covered under Covered below under Topic T-2
GauntletQ15 of 25 · Gauntlet · Adrenal
A 58-year-old woman has a 2.8 cm adrenal mass found incidentally on CT (10 HU, rapid washout). Blood pressure is 142/88. Which of the following is the most appropriate evaluation?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: A — Dexamethasone suppression test, metanephrines, aldosterone/renin ratio
Every incidentaloma gets two questions: is it functioning (cortisol by DST, metanephrines in all, aldosterone/renin if hypertensive or hypokalemic) and could it be malignant (size >4 cm, >10 HU, slow washout). Benign imaging answers only the second.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • No further testing; the imaging characteristics are benign and the mass is under 4 cm — Strongest distractor: no testing — imaging features do not exclude subclinical Cushing or pheochromocytoma
  • Percutaneous adrenal biopsy for tissue diagnosis — Biopsy is contraindicated until pheochromocytoma is excluded and is rarely useful
  • Laparoscopic adrenalectomy — Surgery is for functioning or suspicious masses
  • MIBG scan and PET-CT — MIBG follows a positive metanephrine result
Board pearlIncidentaloma: DST + metanephrines for all; ARR if hypertensive; resect if >4 cm, >10 HU, or functioning.
Covered under Covered below under Topic A-3
GauntletQ16 of 25 · Gauntlet · Diabetes
A 19-year-old man with type 1 diabetes on basal-bolus insulin has fasting glucose values of 240–280 mg/dL. A 3 AM glucose check is 48 mg/dL. Which of the following is the most appropriate adjustment?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: B — Decrease the bedtime basal insulin dose
Nocturnal hypoglycemia with rebound morning hyperglycemia is the Somogyi effect: reduce the evening basal insulin (or move it earlier). The dawn phenomenon (normal or high 3 AM glucose) is treated the opposite way.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Increase the bedtime basal insulin dose — Strongest distractor: increasing basal insulin — correct for dawn phenomenon, but here the 3 AM value is low and more insulin deepens the hypoglycemia
  • Add a bedtime snack and increase basal insulin — A snack alone does not correct the dose error
  • Move the basal insulin injection to the morning and increase it — Moving to morning without reducing perpetuates the overdose
  • Add a correctional dose of rapid-acting insulin at bedtime — A bedtime correction dose worsens nocturnal hypoglycemia
Board pearl3 AM low = Somogyi → less insulin. 3 AM normal/high = dawn → more or later basal.
Covered under Covered below under Topic DM-2
GauntletQ17 of 25 · Gauntlet · Reproductive
A 24-year-old woman has oligomenorrhea, hirsutism, and a BMI of 32. Testosterone is mildly elevated; TSH, prolactin, and 17-hydroxyprogesterone are normal. She does not want to become pregnant. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: C — Combined oral contraceptive
PCOS by Rotterdam criteria, with the goal of cycle control, hirsutism, and endometrial protection: combined hormonal contraception is first-line; spironolactone is added for hirsutism after 6 months (with contraception because it is teratogenic).
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Clomiphene — Strongest distractor: spironolactone alone — effective for hirsutism but teratogenic and does not regulate cycles or protect the endometrium
  • Spironolactone alone for the hirsutism — Clomiphene/letrozole are for ovulation induction when pregnancy is desired
  • Metformin alone for insulin resistance — Metformin is an adjunct for metabolic features, not first-line for symptoms
  • Finasteride 5 mg daily — Finasteride is teratogenic and second-line
Board pearlPCOS not wanting pregnancy = OCP first; wanting pregnancy = letrozole.
Covered under Covered below under Topic R-1
GauntletQ18 of 25 · Gauntlet · Emergency
A 35-year-old woman with a known pituitary macroadenoma develops sudden severe headache, vomiting, diplopia, and a blood pressure of 82/50. Which of the following is the most appropriate immediate action?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: E — IV hydrocortisone, then urgent MRI and neurosurgery
Pituitary apoplexy (hemorrhage into an adenoma) causes acute ACTH deficiency; hydrocortisone is given immediately for hypotension, then imaging and surgical decompression for visual or neurologic compromise.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Urgent MRI, then treatment based on findings — Strongest distractor: MRI first — imaging is urgent, but steroid replacement for adrenal crisis cannot wait for it
  • Transsphenoidal surgery within the hour — Surgery is decided after stabilization and imaging
  • Cabergoline to shrink the adenoma — Dopamine agonists do not treat apoplexy
  • Lumbar puncture to exclude subarachnoid hemorrhage before imaging — LP risks herniation with a mass and delays steroids
Board pearlApoplexy: steroids now, MRI next, surgery for vision.
Covered under Covered below under Topic P-3
GauntletQ19 of 25 · Gauntlet · Thyroid
A 38-year-old woman treated with methimazole for Graves disease develops a fever of 39 °C and a severe sore throat 6 weeks into therapy. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: D — Stop methimazole and obtain a CBC with differential
Agranulocytosis (0.2–0.5%) presents as fever and sore throat in the first 3 months of thionamide therapy. Stop the drug and check the neutrophil count; do not switch to PTU (cross-reactivity); definitive therapy becomes radioiodine or surgery.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Reassure and continue methimazole; viral pharyngitis is likely — Strongest distractor: switching to PTU — agranulocytosis cross-reacts between thionamides
  • Switch to propylthiouracil at an equivalent dose — Dose reduction does not reverse the idiosyncratic reaction
  • Reduce the methimazole dose by half and recheck in one week — Continuing risks fatal sepsis
  • Add amoxicillin and continue methimazole — Antibiotics without stopping the drug miss the cause
Board pearlFever + sore throat on a thionamide = stop and CBC now.
Covered under Covered below under Topic T-2
GauntletQ20 of 25 · Gauntlet · Calcium
Ca 10.8   PTH 52   urine Ca 40 mg/24 h   Ca/Cr clearance 0.005
A 30-year-old man has mild hypercalcemia (10.8 mg/dL) with a PTH of 52 (upper-normal). His father and brother also have mild hypercalcemia. 24-hour urine calcium is 40 mg with a calcium/creatinine clearance ratio of 0.005. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: A — No treatment; this is FHH
Mild lifelong hypercalcemia with a non-suppressed PTH and very low urinary calcium excretion (Ca/Cr clearance <0.01) is FHH, a benign calcium-sensing receptor mutation. Surgery does not correct it and is harmful.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Cinacalcet to normalize the calcium — Cinacalcet is unnecessary for a benign asymptomatic condition
  • Parathyroidectomy after localization — Strongest distractor: parathyroidectomy — the trap; FHH mimics primary hyperparathyroidism but the urine calcium separates them
  • Sestamibi scan to localize an adenoma — Localization imaging is only for surgical planning
  • Bisphosphonate therapy to protect bone — No bone disease to treat
Board pearlPrimary hyperpara look-alike with low urine calcium and family history = FHH = leave the parathyroids alone.
Covered under Covered below under Topic C-1
GauntletQ21 of 25 · Gauntlet · Adrenal
A 45-year-old man with severe asthma treated with prednisone for 8 months stops it abruptly. Two weeks later he has fatigue, nausea, and orthostatic hypotension. Sodium 131, potassium 4.0, glucose 64; skin is not hyperpigmented. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: B — Secondary adrenal insufficiency from steroid withdrawal
Chronic exogenous glucocorticoids suppress CRH/ACTH; abrupt withdrawal leaves the adrenals unable to respond. Normal potassium and no hyperpigmentation mark it as secondary (aldosterone is renin-regulated and intact). Treat with hydrocortisone and a slow taper.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Primary adrenal insufficiency from autoimmune adrenalitis — Strongest distractor: primary AI — would show hyperkalemia and hyperpigmentation from high ACTH
  • Iatrogenic Cushing syndrome — Cushing is the state he was in, not the state he is in now
  • SIADH from pneumonia — SIADH does not cause orthostasis and hypoglycemia
  • Hypothyroidism — Hypothyroidism does not cause this acute picture
Board pearlSteroid withdrawal is the most common cause of adrenal insufficiency: normal K, no pigment.
Covered under Covered below under Topic A-1
GauntletQ22 of 25 · Gauntlet · Diabetes
A 60-year-old man with type 2 diabetes has a foot ulcer over the first metatarsal head. He cannot feel a 10-g monofilament and pedal pulses are strong. Which of the following is the most important next step in management?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: D — Offloading (total-contact cast or boot) and debridement
A neuropathic ulcer with intact perfusion heals when pressure is removed and the wound is debrided; offloading is the intervention most often missed and most responsible for healing. Antibiotics are for clinical infection; imaging for suspected osteomyelitis (probe-to-bone, ESR).
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Ankle-brachial index and arterial duplex — Strongest distractor: ABI — important when pulses are diminished, but strong pulses and neuropathy define this ulcer
  • MRI of the foot to evaluate for osteomyelitis — MRI is for suspected osteomyelitis
  • Empiric oral antibiotics for 2 weeks — No infection described
  • Hyperbaric oxygen — Hyperbaric oxygen is adjunctive for refractory wounds
Board pearlDiabetic foot ulcer: offload, debride, check perfusion, culture only if infected.
Covered under Covered below under Topic DM-3
GauntletQ23 of 25 · Gauntlet · Water
Na 119   U osm 540   U Na 62
A 68-year-old man with small-cell lung cancer has sodium 119, serum osm 246, urine osm 540, urine sodium 62, and normal volume status, TSH, and cortisol. He is mildly confused but has no seizure. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: A — Fluid restriction plus salt tablets and a loop diuretic (or urea)
SIADH from small-cell cancer: with a urine osmolality >500, fluid restriction alone often fails, so salt tablets with a loop diuretic (or urea, or inpatient tolvaptan) are added. Correction is limited to 8 mEq/L per 24 h.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Isotonic saline 2 L over 4 hours — Strongest distractor: isotonic saline — in SIADH the sodium is excreted in concentrated urine and the water is retained, lowering sodium further
  • 3% saline at 100 mL/h until the sodium reaches 135 — Continuous hypertonic saline to normal risks osmotic demyelination; boluses are for seizures
  • Demeclocycline 300 mg twice daily — Demeclocycline is a historical option with nephrotoxicity
  • Desmopressin 2 µg IV — Desmopressin worsens water retention (it is used only to halt overcorrection)
Board pearlSIADH: restrict, then salt + loop or urea; 3% only for severe symptoms; never plain saline.
Covered under Covered below under Topic P-4
GauntletQ24 of 25 · Gauntlet · MEN
A 34-year-old man has a medullary thyroid carcinoma. His mother died of a thyroid cancer and his sister has hypertension with episodic palpitations. Which of the following should be done before his thyroidectomy?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: E — Plasma metanephrines and RET testing
Familial MTC signals MEN 2; a coexisting pheochromocytoma must be excluded and resected before thyroid surgery to avoid an intraoperative hypertensive crisis. RET testing directs family screening and prophylactic thyroidectomy in carriers.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Serum calcium and PTH only — Strongest distractor: calcium/PTH — hyperparathyroidism is part of MEN 2A and should be checked, but it is not the pre-operative safety issue
  • Serum gastrin and pancreatic imaging — Gastrinoma belongs to MEN 1
  • Radioactive iodine uptake scan — MTC arises from C cells and does not take up iodine
  • Bone scan for metastatic disease — Bone scan is not part of MTC staging
Board pearlMTC = MEN 2 until proven otherwise: metanephrines before the operating room; RET for the family.
Covered under Covered below under Topic M-1
GauntletQ25 of 25 · Gauntlet · Thyroid
A 55-year-old woman on levothyroxine 100 µg for Hashimoto thyroiditis reports her TSH has risen from 2.1 to 14 over 6 months without a dose change. She started calcium carbonate and omeprazole for reflux. Which of the following is the most likely explanation?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: C — Reduced absorption from calcium carbonate and acid suppression
Calcium, iron, and proton pump inhibitors impair levothyroxine absorption; separate calcium/iron by 4 hours and take levothyroxine on an empty stomach 30–60 minutes before food. Recheck TSH in 6–8 weeks before raising the dose.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Progression of autoimmune thyroid disease requiring a higher dose — Strongest distractor: nonadherence — the most common cause of a rising TSH overall, but the timing with new interacting drugs points to absorption
  • Development of a TSH-secreting pituitary adenoma — Disease progression is gradual and does not coincide with new medications
  • Biotin interference with the immunoassay — A TSH-oma is exceedingly rare and presents with high FT4
  • Nonadherence to levothyroxine over the past several months — Biotin lowers TSH readings
Board pearlTSH rises on a stable dose: ask about calcium, iron, PPIs, soy, coffee, and adherence before changing the dose.
Covered under Covered below under Topic T-1
Endocrinology on One Page · Screenshot This
The 20 Things to Know Before Your PANCE

The 20 Things to Know Before Your PANCE

Endocrinology · PA Clinical Bootcamp
01Diabetes numbers. A1c ≥6.5 · FPG ≥126 · OGTT ≥200 · random ≥200 + symptoms. Prediabetes 5.7 / 100 / 140. Screen at 35.
02Drug by comorbidity. HF or CKD → SGLT2i. ASCVD or obesity → GLP-1 RA / tirzepatide. A1c >10 or catabolic → insulin. Pioglitazone never in HF.
03DKA order. Fluids → K (hold insulin if <3.3) → insulin → dextrose at ~200–250 → stop the drip only after the gap closes with basal overlap.
04HHS. Glucose >600, osm >320, pH >7.3, obtunded. Fluids are the treatment.
05Morning hyperglycemia. 3 AM low = Somogyi → less insulin. 3 AM normal/high = dawn → more or later basal.
06Hypoglycemia. Rule of 15; glucagon if not swallowing; sulfonylurea → admit + octreotide. High insulin + low C-peptide = injected insulin.
07TSH first. TSH↑ FT4↓ = Hashimoto. TSH↓ FT4↑ = thyrotoxicosis → RAIU/TRAb. Low/normal TSH + low FT4 = central → cortisol before levothyroxine.
08Uptake decides. High uptake = Graves/toxic nodule → thionamide, RAI, surgery. Low uptake = thyroiditis/factitious → NSAID + beta-blocker, no thionamide.
09Thyroid emergencies. Storm: thionamide → iodine 1 h later → propranolol → steroids. Myxedema coma: IV T4 + hydrocortisone + passive warming.
10Thyroid nodule. TSH low → scan (hot = benign). Normal TSH → ultrasound → FNA ≥1 cm if suspicious. MTC = calcitonin, RET, MEN 2.
11Thionamide rules. Methimazole first-line; PTU in the first trimester and storm. Fever + sore throat = stop and CBC. Never RAI in pregnancy.
12Adrenal insufficiency. Unstable: draw cortisol/ACTH, give hydrocortisone and saline NOW. Stable: AM cortisol → cosyntropin. ACTH↑ + K↑ + pigment = primary; steroid withdrawal = most common secondary.
13Cushing algorithm. Exclude exogenous → screen ×2 (1-mg DST, salivary, urine) → ACTH (low = adrenal; high = pituitary/ectopic → high-dose DST/IPSS) → image last.
14Adrenal hypertension. Low K + resistant HTN → aldosterone/renin ratio; AVS before surgery. Paroxysms → metanephrines; alpha before beta before surgery.
15Incidentaloma. Two questions: functioning (DST, metanephrines, ARR) and malignant (>4 cm, >10 HU, slow washout).
16Calcium / PTH. Ca↑ PTH↑ = primary hyperpara (surgery: symptoms, Ca >1 above normal, <50, eGFR <60, T ≤−2.5, stones; low urine Ca = FHH). Ca↑ PTH↓ = cancer/granuloma/vitamin D.
17Severe hypercalcemia. Saline → calcitonin → zoledronate (denosumab if CKD); steroids for lymphoma/granuloma; no thiazides.
18Hypocalcemia & bone. Tetany/QT = IV calcium; hypoparathyroidism needs calcitriol. Osteoporosis: T ≤−2.5 or fragility fracture = bisphosphonate (eGFR ≥35), denosumab if not.
19Pituitary rule. Prolactinoma = cabergoline (even macro). Everything else = transsphenoidal surgery. Acromegaly: IGF-1 → OGTT → MRI. Apoplexy: steroids first.
20Water. DI: dilute urine + high Na; DDAVP response = central. SIADH: urine osm >100, urine Na >30, euvolemic, normal TSH/cortisol; restrict; 3% for seizures; ≤8 in 24 h.
paclinicalbootcamp.comRajiv Choudhary, MD, MPH
⬡ Closing Statement
"Endocrinology on the PANCE is a small number of decisions asked many ways: which test first, which drug for this patient, what must happen before insulin, before iodine, before beta-blockade, before levothyroxine. Learn the sequence and the trap disappears."
— Rajiv Choudhary, MD, MPH