PANCE · PANRE · Board Prep Intensive

Infectious Disease
Bootcamp Syllabus

Complete Infectious Disease Bootcamp Syllabus — a 35-module systematic review covering every organism on the blueprint, followed by 14 trap-focused clinical topics with pre-read vignettes. Now expanded with Module D: Must-Know Differentials (5 high-yield diagnostic frameworks) and Module E: Board Pearls (domain-organized clinical decision points). Board questions available in the companion document.

35Review Modules
9Clinical Topics
5Must-Know Differentials
30Rapid Fire Pearls
10Don't Miss Emergencies
Tier Key:
Tier 1 — Must Know
Tier 2 — Important
Tier 3 — Lower yield
★ = Gap topic added
Part 0 · Systematic ID Review
Systematic Infectious Disease Review — 35 Modules
The full organism-by-organism teaching pass, presented first. Worked in six blocks: sexually transmitted infections, tick-borne disease, opportunistic infections, high-yield comparison tables, screening and prevention, and a 30-point rapid-fire review. Each module runs etiology → presentation → diagnosis → management → board traps. Part 1 onward then drills the same material through pre-read vignettes and trap-focused topic cards.
Section I · Modules 1–11
Sexually Transmitted Infections
Eleven modules covering the bacterial, viral, and protozoal STIs, plus PID, HIV virology, and hepatitis B. CDC 2021 treatment guidelines throughout.
Before you beginChlamydia & Gonorrhea5 questions
Answer these five before you read the topics. Getting them wrong is expected and useful — attempting a question first is what makes the material below stick. Each explanation unlocks only after you submit.
Question 1 of 5 · High Yield · Gonorrhea · The 2021 Regimen Change
A 25-year-old woman is evaluated for vaginal discharge. Cervical NAAT is positive for Neisseria gonorrhoeae and negative for Chlamydia trachomatis. She weighs 65 kg, is not pregnant, and has no drug allergies. There is no pharyngeal or rectal exposure reported. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: C — Ceftriaxone 500 mg IM once
The 2021 CDC STI Treatment Guidelines made two changes to gonorrhea therapy that are now among the most heavily tested facts in the entire STI domain. First, the ceftriaxone dose doubled from 250 mg to 500 mg IM for patients under 150 kg. Second, azithromycin was removed from routine dual therapy, because macrolide resistance in N. gonorrhoeae had climbed to roughly 5% of isolates and the original rationale for dual therapy — slowing cephalosporin resistance — was no longer supported. Dual therapy now exists for one purpose only: covering chlamydia when it has not been excluded. Here chlamydia NAAT is negative, so there is nothing left to cover and ceftriaxone monotherapy is complete treatment.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Cefixime 800 mg orally once + azithromycin 1 g orally once — Incorrect on both components. Cefixime is an alternative reserved for when ceftriaxone is unavailable, achieves lower and less sustained bactericidal levels, and is unreliable at the pharynx. Azithromycin is no longer part of routine therapy.
  • Ceftriaxone 500 mg IM once + doxycycline 100 mg orally BID × 7 days — Incorrect here, though it is the correct answer to a slightly different question. Doxycycline is added only when chlamydia has not been excluded — either because testing is pending or was not performed. This patient has a documented negative chlamydia NAAT, so adding doxycycline treats nothing and exposes her to seven days of unnecessary antibiotic.
  • Ciprofloxacin 500 mg orally once — Incorrect. Fluoroquinolones were abandoned for gonorrhea years ago — roughly a third of US isolates are ciprofloxacin-resistant. A fluoroquinolone is only considered when susceptibility has been confirmed by culture, which is not the situation described.
  • Ceftriaxone 250 mg IM once + azithromycin 1 g orally once — Incorrect, and the single highest-yield distractor on this topic because it is the 2015 regimen. Both halves are now wrong: the dose is too low, and routine azithromycin has been dropped. If you find this option attractive, you are recalling guidelines that were superseded.
Board pearlCeftriaxone 500 mg IM, once, alone — that is uncomplicated gonorrhea when chlamydia is excluded. Add doxycycline 100 mg BID × 7 days only if chlamydia has NOT been excluded. Raise the dose to 1 g IM at 150 kg or above. Azithromycin now appears in exactly one gonorrhea regimen: the cephalosporin-allergy alternative of gentamicin 240 mg IM + azithromycin 2 g orally, and that alternative does not cover the pharynx.
Covered below under Module 2 — Gonorrhea
Question 2 of 5 · Hard · Gonorrhea · Pharyngeal Site with Cephalosporin Allergy
A 30-year-old man who has sex with men is screened at his annual visit and reports a mild sore throat. Pharyngeal NAAT is positive for Neisseria gonorrhoeae; urogenital and rectal NAATs are negative. His chart documents anaphylaxis to cefazolin two years ago. Which of the following is the best next step?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: A — Consult infectious disease and arrange allergy evaluation before treating
This question sits at the intersection of two constraints that eliminate every standard option. Ceftriaxone is the only regimen with reliable efficacy against pharyngeal gonorrhea — the pharynx is a poorly penetrated site with a high spontaneous failure rate, and it is where nearly all reported ceftriaxone failures have occurred. At the same time, this patient has documented anaphylaxis to a cephalosporin, not to penicillin. That distinction matters: penicillin allergy rarely precludes ceftriaxone because the side chains differ, but a prior anaphylactic reaction to another cephalosporin is a genuine contraindication to empiric re-challenge. Because the CDC lists no recommended alternative for pharyngeal infection in a patient who cannot receive cephalosporins, the correct action is specialist input — typically ID consultation with allergy evaluation for possible graded challenge or desensitization, since ceftriaxone may ultimately still be the only effective drug.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Administer ceftriaxone 500 mg IM with close monitoring — Incorrect as an unsupervised empiric step. Monitoring does not prevent anaphylaxis; it only shortens the time to epinephrine. With documented anaphylaxis to cefazolin, re-exposure to a cephalosporin belongs in a setting equipped for formal challenge or desensitization, which is exactly what specialist referral arranges.
  • Administer gentamicin 240 mg IM + azithromycin 2 g orally — Incorrect because of the site. This is the recognized cephalosporin-allergy alternative, but it is validated only for urogenital and rectal infection. It is not recommended for pharyngeal gonorrhea, where cure rates are substantially lower. Choosing it here means you matched the allergy but ignored the anatomy.
  • Administer cefixime 800 mg orally once — Incorrect twice over. Cefixime is itself a cephalosporin, so it does not solve the allergy problem, and it is explicitly unreliable for pharyngeal infection.
  • Administer ciprofloxacin 500 mg orally once — Incorrect. With roughly a third of US isolates ciprofloxacin-resistant, empiric fluoroquinolone therapy is not acceptable. It could only be considered if culture and susceptibility testing confirmed a susceptible isolate.
Board pearlPharyngeal gonorrhea has exactly one recommended drug: ceftriaxone. There is no recommended alternative for the cephalosporin-allergic patient at this site, which makes it one of the few STI scenarios where consultation is the correct answer. Two further pharynx-specific rules: oral agents (cefixime) do not reliably clear the pharynx, and every pharyngeal infection requires a test of cure at 7–14 days. Also separate the allergies — penicillin anaphylaxis usually still permits ceftriaxone; cephalosporin anaphylaxis does not.
Covered below under Module 2 — Gonorrhea
Question 3 of 5 · Hard · Chlamydia · Why Azithromycin Fails
A 22-year-old woman with uncomplicated cervical chlamydia was treated with a single 1 g oral dose of azithromycin. She returns 4 weeks later with a repeat positive chlamydia NAAT. She reports no new or untreated sexual partners and no sexual activity since treatment. She is afebrile with a benign abdominal and pelvic examination. Which of the following best explains this result and represents the best next step?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: B — Microbiologic failure at a concurrent rectal site — treat with doxycycline 100 mg orally BID × 7 days
This is the clinical reasoning behind the 2021 switch to doxycycline as first-line chlamydia therapy. Azithromycin cures urogenital chlamydia well, but its microbiologic cure rate at the rectum is only about 77–83%, versus roughly 97–99% for doxycycline. Concurrent anorectal chlamydia is common in women — frequently present without any reported anal exposure, likely from perineal contamination — so it is not predicted by sexual history. An inadequately treated rectal reservoir then autoinoculates the genital tract, producing exactly this picture: a positive retest without reexposure. The correct response is to retreat with the regimen that actually clears the rectum, doxycycline 100 mg BID for 7 days.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Residual nucleic acid producing a false positive — no further treatment needed — Incorrect because of the timing. NAAT can detect non-viable nucleic acid, which is why retesting is avoided within 3 weeks of therapy. At 4 weeks that window has passed, so this is far more likely a true positive. Dismissing it leaves an untreated infection with real tubal consequences.
  • Progression to pelvic inflammatory disease — ceftriaxone, doxycycline, and metronidazole — Incorrect. PID is a clinical diagnosis requiring pelvic or lower abdominal pain plus cervical motion, uterine, or adnexal tenderness. This patient has none of these. A positive NAAT alone never establishes PID.
  • Azithromycin resistance — switch to levofloxacin 500 mg orally daily × 7 days — Incorrect. True macrolide resistance in C. trachomatis is rare. The problem is site-specific pharmacologic inadequacy, not an acquired resistance mechanism — a distinction worth holding onto, because it explains why the answer is a different drug class rather than an escalation. Levofloxacin is a listed alternative but is not the preferred retreatment.
  • Reinfection from an untreated partner — repeat azithromycin and treat the partner — Incorrect as written. Reinfection is always worth considering and partner treatment is always appropriate, but the patient denies any reexposure, and more importantly the drug is wrong. Repeating a regimen that has already failed — and that underperforms at the likely reservoir — simply repeats the error.
Board pearlDoxycycline 100 mg BID × 7 days is first-line for chlamydia; azithromycin 1 g once is now an alternative, kept as first-line only in pregnancy, where doxycycline is contraindicated. The reason is rectal cure rates. Two related rules: do not retest within 3 weeks of treatment because of residual nucleic acid, and do rescreen everyone at 3 months for reinfection. Rectal chlamydia treated with azithromycin warrants a test of cure.
Covered below under Module 1 — Chlamydia
Question 4 of 5 · Medium · Gonorrhea · Weight-Based Dosing
A 19-year-old man reports dysuria and purulent urethral discharge. NAAT is positive for both Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Chlamydia trachomatis. He weighs 200 kg, has no drug allergies, and takes no medications. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: C — Ceftriaxone 1 g IM once + doxycycline 100 mg orally BID × 7 days
Two decisions are stacked here, and the question is built so that getting only one right still lands you on a wrong answer. Weight: at 150 kg or above the ceftriaxone dose increases to 1 g IM, because the standard 500 mg does not achieve sustained bactericidal concentrations in a larger volume of distribution. At 200 kg this patient needs 1 g. Coverage: chlamydia is confirmed, not excluded, so doxycycline 100 mg BID for 7 days must be added as the preferred chlamydia regimen. Combining both gives ceftriaxone 1 g IM plus doxycycline.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Ceftriaxone 500 mg IM once + doxycycline 100 mg orally BID × 7 days — Incorrect only on the dose, which is what makes it the most dangerous distractor. The chlamydia coverage is right. But 500 mg is the dose for patients under 150 kg; at 200 kg it risks underexposure and treatment failure. Recognizing the weight cutoff is the entire point of the question.
  • Gentamicin 240 mg IM once + azithromycin 2 g orally once — Incorrect. This is the cephalosporin-allergy alternative, not a routine regimen. This patient has no allergies, so there is no reason to substitute a less effective combination for first-line therapy.
  • Ceftriaxone 500 mg IM once + azithromycin 1 g orally once — Incorrect on both counts — the dose is too low for 200 kg, and azithromycin has been displaced by doxycycline for chlamydia because of its poor rectal cure rate.
  • Cefixime 800 mg orally once + azithromycin 1 g orally once — Incorrect on both agents. Cefixime is reserved for when ceftriaxone is unavailable and there is no weight-adjusted oral option, and azithromycin is no longer preferred for chlamydia.
Board pearl150 kg is the ceftriaxone threshold: below it 500 mg IM, at or above it 1 g IM. Then ask separately whether chlamydia was excluded. Excluded → ceftriaxone alone. Confirmed or untested → add doxycycline 100 mg BID × 7 days. Two variables, two independent decisions — board questions routinely change one and leave the other constant to see whether you are reasoning or pattern-matching.
Covered below under Module 2 — Gonorrhea
Question 5 of 5 · Medium · Gonorrhea · Test of Cure vs Rescreening
A 27-year-old man is treated with ceftriaxone 500 mg IM for pharyngeal gonorrhea detected on routine screening. He was asymptomatic at diagnosis and remains asymptomatic. Which of the following is the recommended follow-up?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: A — Test of cure with NAAT or culture 7–14 days after treatment
Pharyngeal gonorrhea is the one site that gets a mandatory test of cure. The 2021 CDC guidelines recommend retesting with NAAT or culture 7–14 days after treatment for every patient treated for pharyngeal infection, because virtually all documented ceftriaxone treatment failures worldwide have involved the pharynx. The pharynx is a difficult site to penetrate and a reservoir where resistance is thought to emerge through recombination with commensal Neisseria species — so confirming eradication is both individual care and resistance surveillance. Note the distinction the question is testing: test of cure at 7–14 days confirms the treatment worked; rescreening at 3 months detects reinfection. They are different tests answering different questions, and pharyngeal infection requires both.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Repeat NAAT at 3 months for rescreening only — Incorrect because it omits the test of cure. Rescreening at 3 months is genuinely recommended for everyone treated for gonorrhea, but it looks for reinfection, not for treatment failure. Waiting three months to discover the original infection was never cleared allows ongoing transmission.
  • Serologic testing for gonococcal antibodies at 6 weeks — Incorrect. Serology has no role in gonorrhea at any point — not for diagnosis, not for follow-up. NAAT and culture are the only appropriate tests.
  • No follow-up testing is needed as long as he remains asymptomatic — Incorrect, and it inverts the logic. This patient was asymptomatic at diagnosis, so symptoms were never the signal and their absence proves nothing. Pharyngeal infection requires a test of cure regardless of symptoms.
  • Repeat culture only if symptoms persist beyond 1 week — Incorrect. A symptom-triggered strategy misses asymptomatic treatment failure, which is the predominant form at this site. The test of cure is performed routinely, not reactively.
Board pearlPharyngeal gonorrhea: test of cure with NAAT or culture at 7–14 days. Keep the two follow-ups separate: test of cure at 7–14 days = did the drug work (pharyngeal gonorrhea, and rectal chlamydia treated with azithromycin); rescreen at 3 months = has he been reinfected (everyone with gonorrhea or chlamydia). Serology never appears in either answer.
Covered below under Module 2 — Gonorrhea
Tier 1
Module 1
Chlamydia (Chlamydia trachomatis)
Doxycycline First-Line 2021 · NAAT Gold Standard · Neonatal Timing · LGV Serovars
★★★ PANCE PriorityMany Traps
Etiology & Pathophysiology
  • Obligate intracellular bacterium. Serovars D–K cause urogenital disease; serovars L1–L3 cause lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV)
  • Most common reportable bacterial STI in the US
  • Infects columnar epithelium of cervix, urethra, rectum, and pharynx
  • Biphasic life cycle: elementary body (infectious, extracellular) → reticulate body (replicative, intracellular)
Clinical Presentation
  • The majority of infections are asymptomatic — this is why screening, not symptoms, drives detection
  • Women: mucopurulent cervicitis, urethritis, dysuria, abnormal discharge → may ascend to PID → tubal factor infertility, ectopic pregnancy
  • Men: urethritis (dysuria, clear-to-white discharge), epididymitis
  • Neonates: conjunctivitis at days 5–14; pneumonia at 1–3 months (afebrile, staccato cough)
  • Reactive arthritis (formerly Reiter): urethritis + conjunctivitis + arthritis — "can't see, can't pee, can't climb a tree"
  • LGV: painless genital ulcer → painful inguinal buboes; proctocolitis in MSM
Diagnosis
  • NAAT is the gold standard — sensitivity and specificity both >97%
  • Women: vaginal swab preferred (endocervical swab, first-catch urine, or liquid Pap acceptable)
  • Men: first-catch urine preferred
  • Extragenital: rectal and pharyngeal NAAT at sites of exposure
  • Test of cure for rectal chlamydia treated with azithromycin; retest all patients at 3 months for reinfection
Management
  • First-line: doxycycline 100 mg PO BID × 7 days (2021 CDC — replaced single-dose azithromycin)
  • Alternatives: azithromycin 1 g PO × 1 (no longer first-line); levofloxacin 500 mg PO daily × 7 days
  • Pregnancy: azithromycin 1 g PO × 1 — doxycycline is contraindicated. Test of cure 3–4 weeks after treatment
  • LGV: doxycycline 100 mg PO BID × 21 days
  • Expedited partner therapy: doxycycline × 7 days or azithromycin 1 g × 1
  • Reportable. Treat all sexual partners from the prior 60 days
⚑ Board Traps — Chlamydia
  • Doxycycline, not azithromycin, is first-line since 2021 — a stem offering single-dose azithromycin for uncomplicated genital chlamydia is testing the old guideline
  • Pregnancy flips the answer back to azithromycin — doxycycline is contraindicated
  • Neonatal conjunctivitis timing is the discriminator: days 2–5 = gonococcal; days 5–14 = chlamydial
  • Erythromycin eye ointment prophylaxis does NOT prevent chlamydial conjunctivitis — it only prevents gonococcal disease
  • LGV needs 21 days, not 7 — duration is the tested variable
★ Memory Trick
"Doxy for 7, Azithro if expecting" Neonatal eye timing: Gonorrhea comes early (days 2–5), Chlamydia comes late (days 5–14) — alphabetical order matches chronological order LGV = "Long Genital Verdict" — 21 days
Tier 1
Module 2
Gonorrhea (Neisseria gonorrhoeae)
Ceftriaxone 500 mg Monotherapy · Azithromycin Dropped · DGI Triad · Pharyngeal Test of Cure
★★★ PANCE PriorityCDC 2021
Etiology & Pathophysiology
  • Gram-negative intracellular diplococcus
  • Infects columnar and transitional epithelium: urethra, cervix, rectum, pharynx, conjunctiva
  • Pili and Opa proteins mediate attachment and immune evasion; antigenic variation permits repeat infection — there is no protective immunity
Clinical Presentation
  • Men: purulent urethral discharge and dysuria — symptomatic in roughly 90%
  • Women: asymptomatic in up to half; cervicitis, discharge, dysuria; may ascend to PID
  • Pharyngeal: usually asymptomatic — an important reservoir and the hardest site to eradicate
  • Rectal: proctitis with discharge, pain, tenesmus; often asymptomatic
  • Disseminated gonococcal infection (DGI): triad of polyarthralgia + tenosynovitis + dermatitis (painless pustular or vesiculopustular lesions); may progress to monoarticular septic arthritis
  • Neonates: ophthalmia neonatorum at days 2–5 — purulent conjunctivitis; prevented by erythromycin ointment
Diagnosis
  • NAAT preferred at all sites — urogenital, pharyngeal, rectal
  • Culture is required when susceptibility testing is needed — treatment failures and suspected resistance
  • Test of cure by NAAT at 7–14 days for ALL pharyngeal infections
  • Grows on Thayer-Martin (chocolate agar + antibiotics) or Martin-Lewis medium
  • Oxidase-positive; ferments glucose only — meningococcus ferments glucose and maltose
Management (2021 CDC)
  • First-line: ceftriaxone 500 mg IM × 1 (1 g if ≥150 kg) — monotherapy when chlamydia has been excluded
  • If chlamydia is not excluded, add doxycycline 100 mg PO BID × 7 days
  • Alternative (non-pharyngeal only): cefixime 800 mg PO × 1 — unreliable for pharyngeal disease
  • Cephalosporin allergy: gentamicin 240 mg IM + azithromycin 2 g PO
  • DGI: ceftriaxone 1 g IV/IM q24h; step down to oral after clinical improvement
  • Expedited partner therapy: cefixime 800 mg PO × 1
⚑ Board Traps — Gonorrhea
  • Azithromycin was REMOVED from dual therapy — ceftriaxone alone is now correct when chlamydia is excluded. Answer choices still offering "ceftriaxone + azithromycin" are testing the obsolete regimen
  • The dose doubled to 500 mg IM — 250 mg is the old answer
  • Cefixime does not clear the pharynx — if the site is pharyngeal, oral therapy is wrong
  • DGI dermatitis is painless — painful lesions point elsewhere
  • Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome = perihepatitis from PID with violin-string adhesions — RUQ pain in a young woman with cervicitis is not cholecystitis
★ Memory Trick
"500 IM, once, alone" — the 2021 gonorrhea regimen in four words Gonococcus ferments Glucose only; Meningococcus adds Maltose DGI triad: joints, tendons, skin — and the skin lesions do not hurt
Before you beginSyphilis & Genital Herpes6 questions
Answer these six before you read the topics. Getting them wrong is expected and useful — attempting a question first is what makes the material below stick. Each explanation unlocks only after you submit.
Question 1 of 6 · High Yield · Syphilis · Interrogating the Penicillin Allergy
A 32-year-old man presents with a painless, indurated ulcer on the penile shaft that appeared 3 weeks ago, with nontender bilateral inguinal lymphadenopathy. RPR is reactive at 1:32 and FTA-ABS is positive. He reports a penicillin allergy consisting of mild nausea after taking amoxicillin as a child. He has no rash and no neurologic, ocular, or otic symptoms. What is the most appropriate treatment?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: D — Benzathine penicillin G 2.4 million units IM as a single dose
This is primary syphilis — a solitary painless indurated chancre with reactive nontreponemal and confirmatory treponemal testing — and the treatment is one dose of benzathine penicillin G 2.4 million units IM. The question turns on whether the reported allergy is real. Nausea is a predictable gastrointestinal side effect, not an IgE-mediated allergy. A true immediate-type reaction produces urticaria, angioedema, bronchospasm, or hypotension within minutes to an hour. Roughly 10% of patients carry a penicillin allergy label but fewer than 1% have genuine IgE-mediated allergy, and childhood labels are the least reliable of all. In a low-risk history like this one, skin testing with oral amoxicillin challenge can confirm tolerance, but the label alone does not justify abandoning first-line therapy. Accepting an unverified allergy is not neutral — it commits the patient to a longer, less proven, adherence-dependent regimen.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Ceftriaxone 1 g IM once daily × 10 days — Incorrect. Ceftriaxone has activity against T. pallidum and appears as a second-line option, but it is not preferred when penicillin can be given, the optimal dose and duration are not well established, and it substitutes ten daily injections for one.
  • Benzathine penicillin G 2.4 million units IM once weekly × 3 doses — Incorrect on duration, not drug — and this pairing is deliberate, because the two benzathine options are identical except for how long you treat. Three weekly doses belong to late latent syphilis or latent syphilis of unknown duration. Primary, secondary, and early latent disease all receive one dose.
  • Doxycycline 100 mg orally twice daily × 14 days — Incorrect here, and the most attractive distractor. Doxycycline is the correct alternative for early syphilis in a genuinely penicillin-allergic non-pregnant patient. But it requires 14 days of twice-daily adherence versus a single observed injection, and the evidence base is far thinner. Choosing it means you accepted the allergy label at face value, which is the error being tested.
  • Azithromycin 2 g orally as a single observed dose — Incorrect. Macrolide resistance in T. pallidum is widespread, driven by a well-described 23S ribosomal RNA point mutation, and documented treatment failures followed. Azithromycin is reserved for settings where nothing else is feasible and should never be chosen when penicillin is available.
Board pearlInterrogate every penicillin allergy before you route around it. Nausea, diarrhea, headache, and vague childhood "reactions" are not IgE-mediated allergy; urticaria, angioedema, bronchospasm, and hypotension are. About 10% of patients are labeled and under 1% truly allergic. This matters most in two syphilis scenarios: pregnancy, where penicillin is the only acceptable drug and desensitization is mandatory, and neurosyphilis, where no alternative is well validated. And keep the duration map straight: one dose for primary, secondary, and early latent; three weekly doses for late latent or unknown duration.
Covered below under Module 3 — Syphilis
Question 2 of 6 · Medium · Genital Herpes · First-Episode Therapy and Testing Pitfalls
A 28-year-old woman presents with painful grouped vesicles on an erythematous base on the vulva, dysuria, and bilateral tender inguinal lymphadenopathy. She has never had similar symptoms. HSV PCR from an unroofed vesicle is positive for HSV-2. Which of the following statements regarding her management is most accurate?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: E — Valacyclovir 1 g orally twice daily × 7–10 days is an appropriate initial regimen
This is a first clinical episode of genital herpes, the most severe presentation, and it warrants the longest course. Acceptable regimens are valacyclovir 1 g BID × 7–10 days, acyclovir 400 mg TID × 7–10 days, or famciclovir 250 mg TID × 7–10 days. Contrast that with recurrent episodes, treated for only 3–5 days — duration is the variable most often manipulated in board stems. The diagnosis here is already secure: PCR of lesion fluid is the test of choice, and it has typed the virus, which carries prognostic weight because HSV-2 recurs far more often than genital HSV-1.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Suppressive antiviral therapy reduces recurrence frequency but has no effect on viral shedding — Incorrect, and the highest-yield factual error in the set. Suppressive therapy reduces both recurrence frequency AND asymptomatic viral shedding — and the shedding effect is precisely why suppression reduces transmission to a partner. Believing otherwise removes the main reason to offer it in a serodiscordant relationship.
  • Topical acyclovir cream applied to the lesions is the recommended first-line therapy — Incorrect. Topical antivirals are substantially less effective than systemic therapy and are not recommended for genital herpes. They do not reach the sacral dorsal root ganglia, do not meaningfully shorten the episode, and do not reduce shedding.
  • A Tzanck smear should be performed to distinguish HSV-1 from HSV-2 infection — Incorrect twice over. A Tzanck smear shows multinucleated giant cells but cannot distinguish HSV from VZV, let alone HSV-1 from HSV-2. It is also redundant here — PCR has already made the diagnosis and typed the virus.
  • IgM serology should be obtained to confirm primary versus recurrent infection — Incorrect, and actively harmful. HSV IgM assays are unreliable: they do not reliably separate HSV-1 from HSV-2, they are frequently falsely positive, and IgM can rise during reactivation, so a positive result does not establish new infection. When serology is genuinely needed, use type-specific glycoprotein G–based IgG.
Board pearlFirst episode = 7–10 days; recurrence = 3–5 days; suppression = daily, indefinitely. Diagnose active lesions with PCR of vesicle fluid, never with IgM and never with Tzanck. Two facts tested as a pair: suppressive therapy reduces asymptomatic shedding as well as recurrences, and Tzanck cannot separate HSV from VZV. Topical antivirals have no role in genital herpes.
Covered below under Module 4 — Genital Herpes
Question 3 of 6 · Hard · Syphilis · Otosyphilis Is Treated as Neurosyphilis
A 45-year-old HIV-negative man presents with progressive bilateral hearing loss, tinnitus, and unsteady gait over 3 months. He was treated for secondary syphilis 4 years ago with a single dose of benzathine penicillin G. Current RPR is reactive at 1:64 and FTA-ABS is positive. What is the most appropriate treatment?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: B — Aqueous crystalline penicillin G 18–24 million units/day IV × 10–14 days
Sensorineural hearing loss, tinnitus, and vestibular dysfunction constitute otosyphilis, and the single most important rule is that ocular and otic syphilis are treated exactly like neurosyphilis — aqueous crystalline penicillin G 18–24 million units per day IV, as 3–4 million units q4h or by continuous infusion, for 10–14 days. The reason is pharmacologic: only high-dose intravenous penicillin achieves treponemicidal concentrations in the CSF and inner ear. Two details confirm active disease rather than a serologic scar: otosyphilis can occur at any stage, and a titer of 1:64 four years after treatment shows failure to achieve the expected fourfold decline. Note also that lumbar puncture is not required to justify treatment when ocular or otic findings are present — the CSF is often normal, and a normal result must not talk you out of IV therapy.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Doxycycline 100 mg orally twice daily × 28 days — Incorrect. Doxycycline is an accepted alternative for early or late latent syphilis in the penicillin-allergic non-pregnant patient, but it is not recommended for neurosyphilis, ocular, or otic disease, where CNS penetration data are inadequate. This patient has no allergy in any case.
  • Benzathine penicillin G 2.4 million units IM weekly × 3 doses — Incorrect, and the most dangerous distractor because it is the right answer to a different question. This is the late latent regimen. Intramuscular benzathine penicillin does not achieve adequate CSF or inner ear concentrations, which is exactly why this patient relapsed after his original single dose. Repeating an inadequate route guarantees progression, and the hearing loss may become permanent.
  • Ceftriaxone 250 mg IM as a single dose — Incorrect on both dose and duration — this is the old gonorrhea dose. Ceftriaxone is considered for neurosyphilis only when penicillin genuinely cannot be used, and then at 1–2 g daily for 10–14 days.
  • Repeat the RPR in 6 months and treat only if the titer fails to decline fourfold — Incorrect, and the option that does the most harm. Sensorineural hearing loss from otosyphilis can become permanent within weeks; it is an emergency, not a titer to monitor. Serologic follow-up belongs after treatment, never instead of it.
Board pearlOcular and otic syphilis are neurosyphilis for treatment purposes: IV aqueous crystalline penicillin G 18–24 million units/day for 10–14 days. Do not require a lumbar puncture first, and do not be reassured by normal CSF. Match route to compartment: IM benzathine for benign stages, IV aqueous when the drug must cross into the CSF or inner ear. Any new visual, auditory, or vestibular symptom in a patient with reactive syphilis serology is an urgent same-day referral to ophthalmology or ENT.
Covered below under Module 3 — Syphilis
Question 4 of 6 · Medium · Genital Herpes · Suppression vs Episodic Therapy
A 35-year-old woman with recurrent genital HSV-2 (6 outbreaks per year) asks about suppressive therapy. She has no drug allergies and normal renal function. She also wants to reduce the risk of transmitting HSV to her HSV-seronegative male partner. Which of the following is the most appropriate recommendation?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: E — Acyclovir 400 mg orally twice daily, taken continuously as daily suppression
Six outbreaks per year meets the threshold for daily suppressive therapy, and suppression is also the correct answer to her transmission concern. Accepted suppressive regimens are acyclovir 400 mg BID, valacyclovir 500 mg to 1 g daily, or famciclovir 250 mg BID. Suppression works on two fronts: it cuts recurrence frequency by roughly 70–80%, and it reduces asymptomatic shedding, which is the mechanism behind most transmission — the majority of partners acquire HSV from someone with no visible lesions. Read the options carefully, because two of them contain pharmacologically valid suppressive doses and two are episodic regimens in disguise. Sort them by strategy first, drug second: is this taken every day, or only when symptoms appear?
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Valacyclovir 500 mg orally once daily, with counseling that suppression does not reduce transmission — Incorrect only because of the counseling clause. Valacyclovir 500 mg daily is a perfectly valid suppressive regimen — in fact it is the regimen with the strongest randomized evidence for reducing transmission in serodiscordant couples. But the claim that suppression does not reduce transmission is false, and an option carrying a false statement cannot be the best answer.
  • Famciclovir 1 g orally every 12 hours for 2 doses, taken only at symptom onset — Incorrect because the strategy is wrong, not the drug. This is an episodic regimen, taken at the onset of a recurrence to shorten it. Episodic therapy does nothing between outbreaks, so it does not reduce asymptomatic shedding and does not reduce transmission — failing both of her stated goals.
  • Condom use alone, which is sufficient to eliminate transmission risk without antiviral therapy — Incorrect. Condoms reduce but do not eliminate HSV transmission, because shedding occurs from perineal, perianal, and upper thigh skin a condom does not cover. The greatest risk reduction comes from combining condoms, daily suppression, and abstinence during prodrome or active lesions.
  • Valacyclovir 1 g orally twice daily × 5 days at the onset of each recurrence — Incorrect — a second episodic regimen, and a plausible one, which is why it is here. A defined 5-day course triggered by symptoms treats the outbreak and then stops. Between outbreaks she sheds virus on no therapy at all, so her partner remains at risk.
Board pearlSix or more recurrences per year, or a serodiscordant partner, means daily suppression. Regimens: acyclovir 400 mg BID, valacyclovir 500 mg–1 g daily, or famciclovir 250 mg BID. Suppression reduces recurrences and asymptomatic shedding, and therefore cuts transmission by roughly half. Episodic therapy shortens an outbreak but does nothing for transmission — if the regimen starts when symptoms start, it is episodic, whatever the drug. Counsel the full package: suppression + condoms + no sex during prodrome or lesions + disclosure, because nothing reduces the risk to zero.
Covered below under Module 4 — Genital Herpes
Question 5 of 6 · High Yield · Syphilis · Jarisch-Herxheimer vs Drug Reaction
A 29-year-old man who has sex with men presents with a diffuse maculopapular rash involving the palms and soles, patchy alopecia, and moist flat lesions in the perianal area. RPR is reactive at 1:128. He was treated 2 weeks ago with benzathine penicillin G for presumed early syphilis. Six hours after that injection he developed fever, rigors, and myalgias that resolved within 24 hours. What best explains the reaction he experienced after treatment?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: A — Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction from spirochete lysis
This is the Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction — fever, rigors, myalgia, headache, and sometimes transient worsening of the rash, beginning within hours of the first effective dose and resolving inside 24 hours. It occurs in roughly 30% of treated patients and is most common in secondary syphilis, which fits this presentation exactly: palm-and-sole rash, patchy "moth-eaten" alopecia, and condylomata lata. The mechanism is release of inflammatory cytokines as spirochetes are lysed — a consequence of the drug working, not an allergy. The clinical consequence is what boards test: treatment continues, the reaction is managed supportively with antipyretics and fluids, and the penicillin allergy label must NOT be added to the chart. Mislabeling it as allergy is the real harm, because it strips the patient of first-line therapy for any future syphilis, including neurosyphilis or a pregnancy exposure.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Serum sickness from benzathine penicillin G — Incorrect on timing. Serum sickness is an immune-complex reaction appearing 7–14 days after exposure, with fever, urticarial rash, arthralgia, and lymphadenopathy. A reaction at 6 hours is far too early.
  • IgE-mediated anaphylactic reaction to penicillin — Incorrect, and the error with the greatest downstream cost. Anaphylaxis presents with urticaria, angioedema, bronchospasm, or hypotension within minutes — not isolated fever and myalgia six hours later. Recording this as anaphylaxis wrongly closes off penicillin for life.
  • Type IV delayed hypersensitivity reaction — Incorrect on both timing and character. Type IV cell-mediated reactions develop over 48–72 hours and produce localized findings such as contact dermatitis or a morbilliform eruption — not an abrupt systemic febrile illness at 6 hours.
  • Reaction to the procaine vehicle rather than to penicillin — Incorrect, though it names a real entity. A procaine reaction (Hoigné syndrome) follows inadvertent intravascular injection and produces immediate agitation, a sense of impending death, hallucinations, or seizures within seconds to minutes — not fever and rigors at six hours. Note also that benzathine penicillin G for syphilis is not the procaine-containing preparation.
Board pearlFever, rigors, and myalgia within hours of treating syphilis = Jarisch-Herxheimer. Continue treatment; do not label the patient penicillin-allergic. Sort reactions by the clock: seconds to minutes = anaphylaxis (IgE) or a procaine reaction; hours = Jarisch-Herxheimer; 48–72 hours = type IV; 7–14 days = serum sickness. Warn every patient in advance so they do not present to an emergency department believing they are allergic. It matters most in pregnancy, where the reaction can trigger contractions and fetal distress and warrants monitoring — but still not discontinuation, because penicillin is the only drug that treats congenital syphilis.
Covered below under Module 3 — Syphilis
Question 6 of 6 · Hard · Syphilis · Dose Intervals and Pregnancy
A 29-year-old woman at 12 weeks' gestation is diagnosed with late latent syphilis (RPR 1:8, TP-PA positive, asymptomatic; her last negative RPR was 3 years ago). She receives her first dose of benzathine penicillin G 2.4 million units IM on day 1. Because of a scheduling error, her second dose is given on day 12 instead of day 7. What is the most appropriate next step?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: C — Restart the entire three-dose regimen from dose 1, at weekly intervals
Late latent syphilis requires three weekly doses of benzathine penicillin G 2.4 million units IM. The target interval is 7 days, and the maximum allowable gap is 9 days. Once any interval exceeds 9 days the course is considered inadequate and the entire three-dose regimen must be restarted from dose 1. The pharmacologic logic is that benzathine penicillin maintains treponemicidal serum levels for only so long after each injection; T. pallidum divides slowly, so continuous exposure across the full interval is what achieves cure. A 12-day gap leaves a window in which the organism replicates unopposed. Pregnancy makes this rule stricter, not looser — some authorities allow a small grace period for non-pregnant patients, but in pregnancy any missed or delayed dose mandates restarting, because the endpoint is prevention of congenital syphilis.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Continue the regimen with the third dose on day 19 as originally planned — Incorrect. A regimen cannot be salvaged by continuing on the original calendar after a gap beyond 9 days — the sequence has already failed and dose 3 on day 19 would not repair it. This is the most commonly chosen wrong answer because it feels like the least disruptive option.
  • No additional doses are needed — one dose suffices for late latent syphilis — Incorrect — this confuses the stages. A single dose treats primary, secondary, and EARLY latent syphilis. Her last negative RPR was 3 years ago, so infection cannot be dated to within a year, which makes this late latent disease requiring three weekly doses.
  • Switch to doxycycline 100 mg orally BID × 28 days to complete the course — Incorrect, and the most dangerous option here. Doxycycline is contraindicated in pregnancy, and more fundamentally no non-penicillin regimen has been shown to prevent congenital syphilis. A pregnant patient who genuinely cannot take penicillin must be desensitized, never substituted.
  • Administer the third dose now and consider the regimen complete — Incorrect. This leaves the patient with two adequately spaced doses at best and an irregular interval in between. Two doses is not a recognized regimen for late latent syphilis at any interval.
Board pearlLate latent syphilis = 3 weekly doses; target interval 7 days, hard ceiling 9 days. Exceed 9 days and you restart from dose 1. In pregnancy the rule is absolute, and a missed dose in pregnancy also mandates restarting. Two further pregnancy rules that get tested together: penicillin is the ONLY acceptable drug — desensitize, never substitute, and expect the Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction, which in the second half of pregnancy can provoke contractions and fetal distress and warrants monitoring but not discontinuation. Also note how staging was decided: a negative RPR 3 years ago means infection cannot be dated to within a year, so it is late latent by default.
Covered below under Module 3 — Syphilis
Tier 1
Module 3
Syphilis (Treponema pallidum)
Stage-Driven Dosing · Nontreponemal vs Treponemal · Neurosyphilis at Any Stage · Pregnancy = Penicillin Only
★★★ PANCE PriorityMany Traps
Etiology & Pathophysiology
  • Spirochete that cannot be cultured in vitro — diagnosis is always serologic or by direct visualization
  • Transmission: sexual contact, transplacental, rarely transfusion
  • Obliterative endarteritis is the hallmark pathology, affecting the vasa vasorum — this explains the aortitis of tertiary disease
The Four Stages
StageTimingKey Features
Primary10–90 daysPainless chancre — clean base, raised indurated border — at the inoculation site; painless regional lymphadenopathy
Secondary4–10 weeksDiffuse maculopapular rash including palms and soles; condylomata lata (moist, flat, gray-white); mucous patches; generalized lymphadenopathy; constitutional symptoms
Early latent< 1 yearPositive serology, no clinical findings
Late latent> 1 yearPositive serology, no clinical findings, or duration unknown
TertiaryYears–decadesGummas; cardiovascular syphilis (aortitis, ascending aortic aneurysm); neurosyphilis

Neurosyphilis is NOT confined to tertiary disease — it can occur at any stage, including primary.

Neurosyphilis, Ocular and Congenital Disease
  • Early neurosyphilis: meningitis, cranial nerve palsies (CN VII and VIII), ocular syphilis (uveitis, optic neuritis), otosyphilis
  • Late neurosyphilis: tabes dorsalis (posterior column degeneration → lightning pains, Charcot joints, Argyll Robertson pupils) and general paresis (dementia, personality change)
  • Argyll Robertson pupil accommodates but does not react to light — small, irregular, bilateral
  • Congenital, early (<2 years): rhinitis ("snuffles"), hepatosplenomegaly, rash, osteochondritis
  • Congenital, late (>2 years): Hutchinson teeth, mulberry molars, interstitial keratitis, saddle nose, saber shins
Diagnosis
  • Traditional algorithm: nontreponemal test (RPR or VDRL) → confirm with treponemal test (FTA-ABS or TP-PA)
  • Reverse algorithm: treponemal EIA/CIA → confirm with nontreponemal → if discordant, TP-PA
  • Nontreponemal tests are quantitative and used to monitor treatment — a 4-fold decline in titer is the response criterion
  • Treponemal tests stay positive for life and can never be used to judge cure
  • Darkfield microscopy of chancre exudate — not valid on oral or rectal lesions (commensal spirochetes)
  • Neurosyphilis: CSF VDRL is specific but insensitive; look also for CSF pleocytosis and elevated protein
  • False-positive nontreponemal tests: SLE, antiphospholipid syndrome, pregnancy, IV drug use, viral illness
Management
  • Primary, secondary, early latent: benzathine penicillin G 2.4 million units IM × 1
  • Late latent or tertiary (non-neuro): benzathine penicillin G 2.4 million units IM weekly × 3
  • Neurosyphilis, ocular, or otic: aqueous crystalline penicillin G 3–4 million units IV q4h × 10–14 days
  • Penicillin allergy, not pregnant: doxycycline 100 mg PO BID × 14 days (early) or × 28 days (late)
  • Pregnancy: penicillin is the ONLY acceptable treatment — desensitize if allergic
  • Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction: fever, myalgia, headache within 24 hours of the first dose — expected endotoxin release, self-limited, not an allergy and not a reason to stop
⚑ Board Traps — Syphilis
  • Treponemal titers cannot monitor cure — if a stem asks how to follow response, the answer is RPR or VDRL
  • Pregnancy plus penicillin allergy = desensitization, never doxycycline (teratogenic) and never azithromycin (resistance and treatment failures)
  • Ocular or otic syphilis is treated as neurosyphilis — IV penicillin, not IM
  • Jarisch-Herxheimer is mistaken for anaphylaxis in the classic distractor. It occurs hours later, involves fever and rigors, and treatment continues
  • A negative darkfield from an oral lesion proves nothing — oral commensal spirochetes make the test invalid there
★ Memory Trick
Benzathine is for Benign stages (primary, secondary, latent, tertiary non-neuro). Aqueous penicillin goes where water goes — into the CSF "1 shot, 3 shots, 14 days" = early → late latent → neuro Lata is flat (syphilis); acuminata is aloft (HPV)
Tier 1
Module 4
Genital Herpes (HSV-1 and HSV-2)
PCR over Tzanck · Episodic vs Suppressive · Sacral Latency · 36-Week Prophylaxis
★★★ PANCE Priority
Etiology & Pathophysiology
  • HSV-2 remains the most common cause of genital herpes; HSV-1 is increasingly implicated, especially in younger patients
  • Double-stranded DNA virus establishing latency in the sacral (S2–S4) dorsal root ganglia
  • Reactivation triggers: stress, immunosuppression, UV exposure, menses
Clinical Presentation
  • Primary outbreak is the most severe: grouped vesicles on an erythematous base → painful shallow ulcers; bilateral tender inguinal lymphadenopathy; fever, malaise, myalgia
  • Recurrences are milder, shorter, and unilateral, with a prodrome of tingling or burning
  • Roughly 70% of infections are asymptomatic — most transmission occurs from unrecognized shedding
  • Complications: aseptic meningitis (Mollaret meningitis with recurrence), urinary retention, sacral radiculopathy
  • Neonatal herpes: acquired at delivery — skin-eye-mouth disease, CNS disease, or disseminated (highest mortality)
  • Variants: herpes gladiatorum (wrestlers), herpetic whitlow (finger), eczema herpeticum (atopic dermatitis)
Diagnosis
  • Active lesions: PCR of vesicle fluid is preferred (viral culture acceptable but less sensitive)
  • No lesions: glycoprotein G–based type-specific IgG serology distinguishes HSV-1 from HSV-2
  • USPSTF recommends AGAINST screening asymptomatic adolescents and adults
  • Tzanck smear shows multinucleated giant cells — fast, insensitive, and cannot distinguish HSV from VZV
Management
  • There is no cure — antivirals shorten episodes and reduce transmission
  • First episode: valacyclovir 1 g PO BID × 7–10 days, or acyclovir 400 mg PO TID × 7–10 days
  • Recurrence: valacyclovir 500 mg PO BID × 3 days, or 1 g PO daily × 5 days
  • Suppression (≥6 outbreaks/year): valacyclovir 500 mg–1 g PO daily — reduces transmission to partners by roughly half
  • Severe or immunocompromised: acyclovir 5–10 mg/kg IV q8h
  • Pregnancy: suppressive acyclovir or valacyclovir from 36 weeks; cesarean delivery if active lesions or prodrome at labor
⚑ Board Traps — HSV
  • Do not order serology to diagnose an active ulcer — PCR of the lesion is the answer
  • Tzanck cannot separate HSV from VZV — if the question hinges on which virus, it must be PCR
  • Suppression starts at 36 weeks, not at diagnosis, and cesarean is driven by lesions at delivery, not by history
  • Recurrent erythema multiforme is most often HSV-driven — treat the herpes, not the rash
  • HSV encephalitis is usually HSV-1 and targets the temporal lobe — a different disease from genital HSV-2
★ Memory Trick
Sacral ganglia for the south end; trigeminal for the face "36 and fix" — suppressive therapy at 36 weeks Primary = bilateral nodes and big symptoms; recurrence = unilateral and underwhelming
Tier 1
Module 5
Human Papillomavirus (HPV)
E6/E7 Oncogenesis · Koilocytes · Gardasil 9 Schedules · Warts vs Dysplasia
★★★ PANCE Priority
Etiology & Pathophysiology
  • Double-stranded DNA virus; more than 200 types
  • Low-risk types 6 and 11: anogenital warts (condylomata acuminata), recurrent respiratory papillomatosis
  • High-risk types 16, 18, 31, 33, 45: cervical, anal, oropharyngeal, vulvar, vaginal, and penile cancer
  • E6 degrades p53; E7 inactivates Rb → loss of both major tumor suppressor pathways → unchecked proliferation
  • Most infections clear spontaneously within 1–2 years
Clinical Presentation
  • Condylomata acuminata: flesh-colored, cauliflower-like papules and plaques on anogenital surfaces
  • Cervical dysplasia: detected on cytology — koilocytes show a perinuclear halo with nuclear enlargement
  • Laryngeal papillomatosis: hoarseness in a child, acquired at vaginal delivery from types 6 or 11
Diagnosis
  • Typical warts are a visual diagnosis — no biopsy needed
  • Cervical screening: cytology with HPV co-testing, or primary HPV testing
  • Biopsy if atypical, pigmented, fixed, ulcerated, or unresponsive to treatment
  • Acetowhite test: acetic acid turns affected epithelium white
Management
  • Patient-applied: imiquimod 5% cream; podofilox 0.5% solution
  • Provider-applied: cryotherapy, trichloroacetic acid 80–90%, surgical excision, electrocautery
  • Cervical dysplasia: LEEP, cone biopsy, or ablation depending on grade
  • Gardasil 9 covers types 6, 11, 16, 18, 31, 33, 45, 52, 58
  • Routine vaccination at age 11–12 (may start at 9); catch-up through 26; shared decision-making 27–45
  • 2-dose schedule if the series starts before age 15; 3-dose if 15 or older or immunocompromised
  • Digital anorectal exam is recommended for anal cancer screening in persons with HIV
⚑ Board Traps — HPV
  • Treating warts does not treat HPV infection or reduce cancer risk — and vaccination is not therapeutic for existing lesions
  • Dose count depends on age at first dose, not on total age — under 15 gets two doses
  • Condylomata acuminata (HPV, raised and cauliflower) vs condylomata lata (syphilis, flat and moist) is a recurring single-best-answer pair
  • Vaccination does not replace cervical screening — screening continues on schedule
  • E6 → p53 and E7 → Rb is asked directly; do not transpose them
★ Memory Trick
E6 → p53 (6 and 53 both have the "5-3" pairing to memorize together); E7 → Rb — "7 wrecks the Retinoblastoma brake" 6 and 11 are the warts; 16 and 18 are the malignancies "Under 15, two shots; 15 and up, three"
Before you beginTrichomoniasis & Bacterial Vaginosis2 questions
Answer these two before you read the topics. Getting them wrong is expected and useful — attempting a question first is what makes the material below stick. Each explanation unlocks only after you submit.
Question 1 of 2 · High Yield · Trichomoniasis · Why HIV Changes the Regimen
A 38-year-old HIV-positive woman presents with frothy, yellow-green vaginal discharge and vulvar irritation. Vaginal pH is 5.5. Wet mount is negative for motile trichomonads, but NAAT of a vaginal swab is positive for Trichomonas vaginalis. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: D — Metronidazole 500 mg orally twice daily × 7 days
Two things are being tested at once. First, the negative wet mount does not overrule the positive NAAT — wet mount sensitivity for T. vaginalis is only about 44–68% because the organism loses motility quickly once the slide cools, whereas NAAT sensitivity is 95–100%. The diagnosis is established; treat it. Second, HIV changes the regimen. For women living with HIV the recommendation is metronidazole 500 mg orally twice daily for 7 days, not a single 2 g dose, because a randomized trial showed the single dose was significantly less effective in this population. Contributing factors include high rates of concurrent bacterial vaginosis, altered vaginal flora, and drug interactions with antiretrovirals. Retest by NAAT at 3 months, and treat her sexual partners.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Metronidazole gel 0.75%, one applicator intravaginally daily × 5 days — Incorrect, and mechanistically impossible. Topical and intravaginal metronidazole does not achieve the systemic levels needed to eradicate T. vaginalis, which also colonizes the urethra and Skene glands beyond the reach of a vaginal gel. Metronidazole gel is a bacterial vaginosis regimen and cures fewer than half of trichomonas infections.
  • Tinidazole 2 g orally as a single dose — Incorrect here. Tinidazole 2 g once is a legitimate alternative — particularly for metronidazole intolerance or suspected resistance — but it is another single-dose strategy, and the multi-dose 7-day metronidazole course is what has proven superior in women with HIV.
  • Repeat the wet mount to confirm the diagnosis before initiating treatment — Incorrect, and it delays care. A negative wet mount cannot refute a positive NAAT when the NAAT is roughly twice as sensitive. Repeating the less sensitive test to "confirm" the more sensitive one inverts the diagnostic hierarchy.
  • Metronidazole 2 g orally as a single dose — Incorrect specifically because she has HIV. Single-dose metronidazole 2 g remains an option for HIV-negative women, but it is inferior in women with HIV and would be the right answer only if you missed the serostatus in the stem.
Board pearlWomen with HIV and trichomoniasis get metronidazole 500 mg BID × 7 days, not the single 2 g dose. Diagnose with NAAT (95–100% sensitive), not wet mount (44–68%) — a negative wet mount never overrules a positive NAAT. Three more rules: topical metronidazole never treats trichomoniasis (it is a BV regimen), treat the partners (trichomoniasis is the one of the three vaginitides that requires it), and retest at 3 months because reinfection is common.
Covered below under Module 6 — Trichomoniasis
Question 2 of 2 · Medium · Vaginitis · Concurrent BV and Trichomoniasis
A 26-year-old woman presents with vaginal discharge and mild irritation. Examination shows a thin, homogeneous discharge. Vaginal pH is 5.2 and a fishy odor develops on addition of KOH. Wet mount shows clue cells AND motile trichomonads with abundant white blood cells. Which statement about her management is most accurate?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: B — A 7-day course of oral metronidazole 500 mg BID treats both conditions
She has both bacterial vaginosis and trichomoniasis, which is far more common than students expect — roughly half of women with trichomoniasis have concurrent BV. Both diagnoses are supported here: clue cells with a positive whiff test and pH above 4.5 for BV, and motile trichomonads for trichomoniasis. Oral metronidazole 500 mg BID for 7 days is first-line for trichomoniasis in women and is simultaneously a recommended BV regimen, so one prescription covers both. The 7-day course also outperforms single-dose metronidazole for trichomoniasis, with substantially fewer positive tests of cure. Note the leukocytes: abundant white cells fit trichomoniasis, since BV alone is characteristically non-inflammatory.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Intravaginal clindamycin cream alone will adequately treat both conditions — Incorrect. Intravaginal clindamycin is a legitimate BV regimen but has no activity against T. vaginalis — only oral nitroimidazoles eradicate the protozoan. This treats half her problem and leaves an untreated STI.
  • A single 2 g oral dose of metronidazole is sufficient for both conditions — Incorrect on both counts, which is what makes it tempting. A single 2 g dose is inferior to the 7-day course for trichomoniasis in women, and single-dose metronidazole is not a recommended BV regimen at all. Same drug, wrong schedule, and it fails both diagnoses.
  • BV needs no treatment; it resolves once the trichomoniasis is treated — Incorrect. BV is a distinct dysbiosis — loss of lactobacilli with anaerobic overgrowth — and it does not resolve as a byproduct of treating trichomoniasis. Concurrent BV may actually reduce the efficacy of trichomoniasis treatment, so it needs its own coverage.
  • Asymptomatic trichomoniasis does not require treatment; treat only the BV — Incorrect, and it inverts the rule. This patient is symptomatic in any case, but the principle matters: asymptomatic trichomoniasis IS treated, because it is a sexually transmitted infection that persists for months to years, raises the risk of HIV and other STI acquisition, and is associated with preterm birth. It is asymptomatic BV that is generally left alone.
Board pearlOral metronidazole 500 mg BID × 7 days is the single regimen that covers both BV and trichomoniasis — and roughly half of women with trichomoniasis have both. Sort the differences that follow: trichomoniasis is treated even when asymptomatic and requires partner treatment; BV is treated only when symptomatic and does not. Topical agents (clindamycin cream, metronidazole gel) treat BV only and never trichomoniasis. Abundant leukocytes point toward trichomoniasis, because BV is non-inflammatory.
Covered below under Modules 6 & 7 — Trichomoniasis and Bacterial Vaginosis
Tier 1
Module 6
Trichomoniasis (Trichomonas vaginalis)
Only Protozoal STI · NAAT over Wet Mount · 7 Days in Women · Safe in Pregnancy
★★ PANCE PriorityCDC 2021
Etiology & Pathophysiology
  • Flagellated protozoan — the most common non-viral STI worldwide and the only protozoal STI
  • Infects squamous epithelium of vagina, urethra, and Skene glands
  • No cyst form — cannot survive in the environment, so transmission requires direct contact
Clinical Presentation
  • Women: malodorous frothy yellow-green discharge, vulvovaginal pruritus and irritation, strawberry cervix (punctate hemorrhages), pH >4.5
  • Men: usually asymptomatic; occasionally urethritis or prostatitis
  • Roughly 70% are asymptomatic
  • Associated with increased HIV transmission, preterm birth, and low birth weight
Diagnosis
  • NAAT has the highest sensitivity and is preferred
  • Wet mount shows motile trichomonads but is only 50–60% sensitive — a negative wet mount does not exclude infection
  • Point-of-care rapid antigen testing is available
  • Culture (InPouch) was the historical gold standard, now superseded by NAAT
Management (2021 CDC)
  • Women: metronidazole 500 mg PO BID × 7 days — superior to single-dose therapy in women
  • Men: metronidazole 2 g PO × 1
  • Pregnancy: metronidazole 500 mg PO BID × 7 days — safe in all trimesters
  • Allergy or resistance: tinidazole 2 g PO × 1
  • Avoid alcohol during therapy and for 72 hours after — disulfiram-like reaction
  • Retest at 3 months given high reinfection rates
⚑ Board Traps — Trichomoniasis
  • The dose differs by sex — 7 days for women, single 2 g dose for men. This changed in 2021 and is heavily tested
  • Metronidazole is safe in pregnancy — the old teratogenicity concern is a distractor
  • A negative wet mount does not rule out trichomoniasis; order NAAT
  • Strawberry cervix is pathognomonic but seen in only about 2% — its absence means nothing
  • Partners are treated, unlike bacterial vaginosis
★ Memory Trick
"Women get a week, men get a wallop" — 7 days vs 2 g once Frothy and flagellated and from a partner
Tier 1
Module 7
Bacterial Vaginosis
Amsel Criteria · Clue Cells · No Inflammation · No Partner Treatment
★★★ PANCE Priority
Etiology & Pathophysiology
  • Polymicrobial dysbiosis — loss of protective Lactobacillus with overgrowth of Gardnerella vaginalis, Atopobium, Mobiluncus, Prevotella, Mycoplasma hominis
  • Not classically an STI, but strongly associated with sexual activity
  • Increases acquisition of STIs including HIV
Clinical Presentation
  • Thin, gray-white, homogeneous discharge with a fishy odor, worse after intercourse
  • Vulvar irritation is uncommon — this absence of inflammation is what separates BV from candidiasis and trichomoniasis
  • Frequently asymptomatic
Diagnosis — Amsel Criteria (3 of 4)
  • Thin, homogeneous gray-white discharge
  • Vaginal pH >4.5
  • Positive whiff test — fishy amine odor on addition of KOH
  • Clue cells on wet mount — epithelial cells studded with adherent bacteria
  • Nugent score (Gram stain) is the research gold standard
Management
  • First-line: metronidazole 500 mg PO BID × 7 days, or metronidazole 0.75% vaginal gel × 5 days
  • Alternative: clindamycin 300 mg PO BID × 7 days, or clindamycin 2% cream × 7 days
  • Pregnancy: treat symptomatic disease with oral metronidazole; do not screen asymptomatic pregnant patients
  • Recurrence: consider suppressive metronidazole gel twice weekly for 4–6 months
  • Partner treatment is not routinely recommended
⚑ Board Traps — Bacterial Vaginosis
  • No vulvar inflammation — itching and erythema push you toward Candida or Trichomonas instead
  • pH is the fastest discriminator: BV and Trichomonas run >4.5; Candida stays <4.5
  • Do not treat the partner — this is the opposite of trichomoniasis
  • Clue cells, not clue symptoms — three of four Amsel criteria are required
  • Asymptomatic pregnant patients are not screened, though symptomatic ones are treated
★ Memory Trick
Clue cells solve the clue-less discharge Whiff = fish BV is a dysbiosis, not an infection of a partner — so no partner therapy
Tier 1
Module 8
Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID)
Minimum Clinical Criteria · Metronidazole Added 2021 · Keep the IUD · Fitz-Hugh-Curtis
★★★ PANCE PriorityMany Traps
Etiology & Pathophysiology
  • Ascending polymicrobial infection from cervix and vagina to endometrium, tubes, ovaries, and peritoneum
  • Most often N. gonorrhoeae and C. trachomatis; also anaerobes, group B streptococcus, enteric Gram-negatives, and M. genitalium
  • The leading preventable cause of infertility and ectopic pregnancy
Clinical Presentation
  • Lower abdominal or pelvic pain, abnormal discharge, abnormal uterine bleeding, dyspareunia
  • Cervical motion tenderness (chandelier sign), uterine tenderness, adnexal tenderness
  • Fever is present in only a minority — its absence does not exclude PID
  • Complications: tubo-ovarian abscess, Fitz-Hugh-Curtis perihepatitis (violin-string adhesions), chronic pelvic pain, ectopic pregnancy, infertility
Diagnosis
  • Clinical diagnosis. Minimum criteria: pelvic or lower abdominal pain PLUS cervical motion, uterine, or adnexal tenderness
  • Supportive: temperature >38.3°C, mucopurulent cervical discharge, abundant WBCs on wet mount, elevated ESR or CRP, positive NAAT for gonorrhea or chlamydia
  • Laparoscopy is the gold standard but is not used routinely
  • Transvaginal ultrasound if tubo-ovarian abscess is suspected
Management (2021 CDC)
  • Outpatient: ceftriaxone 500 mg IM × 1 + doxycycline 100 mg PO BID × 14 days + metronidazole 500 mg PO BID × 14 days
  • Inpatient indications: tubo-ovarian abscess, pregnancy, surgical emergency not excluded, failure of oral therapy, inability to tolerate oral intake
  • Inpatient: cefotetan 2 g IV q12h + doxycycline, or cefoxitin 2 g IV q6h + doxycycline
  • Transition to oral therapy after 24–48 hours of clinical improvement
  • An IUD does NOT need to be removed — it may stay in place with close follow-up
⚑ Board Traps — PID
  • Metronidazole is now routinely included (2021) — regimens without anaerobic coverage are the old answer
  • Do not remove the IUD — this is the single most commonly missed management point
  • Treat on minimum criteria alone. Waiting for fever, leukocytosis, or NAAT results costs fertility
  • RUQ pain in a young woman with cervicitis is Fitz-Hugh-Curtis, not biliary disease
  • A negative pelvic ultrasound does not exclude PID — imaging is for abscess, not for diagnosis
★ Memory Trick
"Ceftriaxone + Doxy + Metro" — the 2021 outpatient triple Chandelier sign: the pain makes her reach for the ceiling Low threshold, high stakes — overtreating costs a course of doxycycline; undertreating costs a fallopian tube
Before you beginHIV — Diagnosis, ART & Prophylaxis5 questions
Answer these five before you read the topic. Getting them wrong is expected and useful — attempting a question first is what makes the material below stick. Each explanation unlocks only after you submit.
Question 1 of 5 · High Yield · HIV · The Diagnostic Algorithm in Acute Infection
A 28-year-old man presents with 5 days of fever, pharyngitis, diffuse maculopapular rash, and lymphadenopathy. He reports unprotected receptive anal intercourse 3 weeks ago. A fourth-generation Ag/Ab combination immunoassay is reactive, but the HIV-1/HIV-2 antibody differentiation assay is nonreactive. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: C — Order an HIV-1 RNA nucleic acid test (NAT) on the same specimen
This is a textbook acute retroviral syndrome — a mononucleosis-like illness roughly 2–4 weeks after a high-risk exposure — and the laboratory pattern is the one the CDC algorithm was designed to resolve. A reactive Ag/Ab screen with a NONreactive antibody differentiation assay is indeterminate, and there are exactly two explanations: the fourth-generation assay is detecting p24 antigen before antibodies have developed (true acute infection), or the screen is a false positive. HIV-1 RNA testing on the same specimen distinguishes them. Detectable RNA confirms acute infection. This matters clinically because viral loads in acute infection are enormous and transmissibility is at its peak, so a diagnosis made now prevents onward transmission and permits immediate ART.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Repeat the fourth-generation Ag/Ab immunoassay in 4 weeks — Incorrect, and it wastes the most consequential four weeks of the illness. Waiting for antibodies to appear does eventually resolve the question, but during that window the patient has a very high viral load and peak infectiousness. When acute HIV is suspected you test for the virus, not for the immune response to it.
  • Obtain a Western blot to confirm the diagnosis of HIV infection — Incorrect. The Western blot has been removed from the CDC algorithm, replaced by the HIV-1/HIV-2 antibody differentiation assay followed by NAT. Beyond being obsolete, it is an antibody test, so it fails for the same reason as any other serologic test this early.
  • Obtain an oral rapid antibody test for confirmation — Incorrect, and the least useful option offered. Oral rapid tests detect antibody only, and oral fluid assays are less sensitive than blood-based ones. In acute infection this would very likely be falsely negative and could wrongly reassure the patient.
  • Diagnose HIV on the reactive Ag/Ab result alone and initiate ART — Incorrect as a diagnosis, even though the clinical suspicion is right. An indeterminate result is not a diagnosis, and false-positive fourth-generation screens do occur — with acute illness, pregnancy, autoimmune disease, and recent vaccination. Committing a patient to lifelong therapy on an unconfirmed result is not acceptable when the confirmatory test takes hours. Note the nuance: once RNA returns positive, starting ART immediately is correct.
Board pearlReactive Ag/Ab + nonreactive differentiation assay = order HIV-1 RNA (NAT). That single line is the most tested step in HIV diagnostics. The fourth-generation assay closes the window to about 2 weeks because it detects p24 antigen before antibody appears — which is exactly why the antibody-based confirmatory test can lag behind it. Western blot is obsolete. Any monospot-negative mononucleosis syndrome should prompt HIV testing, and when acute HIV is suspected the right test is always viral RNA, never a repeat antibody test.
Covered below under Module 9 — HIV / AIDS
Question 2 of 5 · Hard · HIV · Choosing Initial ART with Hepatitis B Coinfection
A 35-year-old treatment-naive woman is newly diagnosed with HIV. Labs: CD4 320 cells/mm³, HIV RNA 85,000 copies/mL, HBsAg POSITIVE, HLA-B*5701 negative. Genotypic resistance testing of reverse transcriptase and protease shows no mutations. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial ART regimen?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: E — Bictegravir / tenofovir alafenamide / emtricitabine (Biktarvy)
Every number in this stem is a distractor except one: HBsAg positive. Hepatitis B coinfection is the decision point, and it imposes a specific requirement — the regimen must contain TWO agents active against HBV. Biktarvy supplies both: tenofovir alafenamide and emtricitabine are each anti-HBV drugs, so the regimen treats both viruses simultaneously and, critically, protects against the hepatitis flare that follows withdrawal of HBV-active therapy. That flare is the reason single-agent HBV coverage is unacceptable: if the one active drug is stopped or fails, HBV rebounds and can cause severe hepatitis or decompensation. Note what does not drive the answer — the CD4 of 320 is irrelevant because ART is indicated at any count, and the negative HLA-B*5701 merely means abacavir would be permissible, not preferable.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Dolutegravir / lamivudine (Dovato) — Incorrect, and this is the trap. Dolutegravir/lamivudine is an excellent two-drug regimen and is genuinely preferred for many treatment-naive patients — but guidelines explicitly exclude HBV coinfection, because lamivudine is its only HBV-active agent. Lamivudine monotherapy for HBV selects resistance rapidly, and discontinuation risks flare.
  • Dolutegravir / abacavir / lamivudine (Triumeq) — Incorrect for the same structural reason, and the negative HLA-B*5701 is there to tempt you. Abacavir has no anti-HBV activity, so this regimen also leaves lamivudine as the sole HBV drug. Guidelines direct you to a tenofovir-containing regimen when HBV is present.
  • Rilpivirine / tenofovir alafenamide / emtricitabine (Odefsey) — Incorrect. Rilpivirine-based regimens are not preferred for initial therapy, and rilpivirine specifically should be avoided when HIV RNA exceeds 100,000 copies/mL or CD4 is below 200 because of higher virologic failure rates. Her viral load of 85,000 sits just under that threshold, which is deliberate — the number is designed to make you check the rule and then still reject the drug on the grounds that it is not first-line.
  • Doravirine / tenofovir disoproxil fumarate / lamivudine (Delstrigo) — Incorrect, though it is the closest wrong answer. It does provide dual HBV coverage (tenofovir DF plus lamivudine), so it is not disqualified on coinfection grounds. It loses on regimen class: NNRTI-based regimens are alternatives, not preferred initial therapy, since INSTI-based regimens offer a higher resistance barrier and better tolerability. TDF also carries more renal and bone toxicity than TAF.
Board pearlHIV with HBV coinfection requires TWO HBV-active drugs — a tenofovir (TAF or TDF) plus emtricitabine or lamivudine. This single rule eliminates dolutegravir/lamivudine (only one HBV drug) and any abacavir-based regimen (abacavir has no HBV activity). The danger being guarded against is HBV flare on withdrawal. Two adjacent facts: check HLA-B*5701 before any abacavir (hypersensitivity), and ART is started at any CD4 count, so a CD4 in the hundreds never changes the answer. Preferred initial regimens are INSTI-based.
Covered below under Module 9 — HIV / AIDS
Question 3 of 5 · Medium · HIV · When to STOP Prophylaxis
A 42-year-old man with HIV has taken bictegravir/tenofovir alafenamide/emtricitabine for 3 years with sustained viral suppression. His most recent CD4 count is 380 cells/mm³, up from a nadir of 90. He remains on TMP-SMX for Pneumocystis prophylaxis. What is the most appropriate management of his prophylaxis?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: B — Discontinue TMP-SMX now, as the CD4 has been above 200 for over 3 months
Prophylaxis is started on a CD4 threshold and stopped on a CD4 threshold plus a duration. For PCP the stop rule is CD4 at or above 200 cells/mm³ for at least 3 months on ART. This patient is at 380 with sustained suppression, so he meets the criterion and prophylaxis should simply be discontinued. The underlying logic is that immune reconstitution, not the drug, is what protects him — once CD4 recovery is durable, continuing TMP-SMX only exposes him to rash, cytopenias, hyperkalemia, renal injury, and sulfa hypersensitivity for no benefit. Worth knowing as a refinement: discontinuation may also be considered at CD4 100–200 when the viral load has been suppressed for 3–6 months, but 200 for 3 months remains the standard answer.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Continue TMP-SMX indefinitely regardless of the CD4 count — Incorrect. Lifelong PCP prophylaxis is not required once immune function recovers. This answer treats prophylaxis as permanent, which both over-treats the patient and misses the central concept that ART is the real prophylaxis.
  • Discontinue TMP-SMX only once the CD4 count exceeds 500 cells/mm³ — Incorrect — the right idea with the wrong number. The threshold is 200, not 500. Holding him on TMP-SMX until 500 adds months or years of unnecessary drug exposure, and many patients never reach 500 despite full suppression.
  • Switch from TMP-SMX to inhaled pentamidine now that the CD4 count is improving — Incorrect. Switching agents answers a different question entirely — inhaled pentamidine is for patients who cannot tolerate TMP-SMX, and it is inferior, being less effective and providing no coverage against Toxoplasma. Here the indication for prophylaxis has resolved, so the correct action is to stop, not substitute.
  • Discontinue only after two consecutive CD4 counts above 200 taken 6 months apart — Incorrect, and it invents a requirement. The guideline asks for CD4 above 200 sustained for at least 3 months — not two separate measurements 6 months apart. This option is built to reward plausible-sounding rigor over the actual rule.
Board pearlPCP and Toxoplasma prophylaxis stop at CD4 >200 for ≥3 months on ART. Keep the start and stop rules paired: start PCP prophylaxis at CD4 <200 (or with oral thrush); start Toxoplasma prophylaxis at CD4 <100 with positive IgG; both stop at >200 for 3 months. MAC and cryptococcal secondary prophylaxis stop at CD4 >100 for 3 months. And remember why TMP-SMX is the backbone: one drug covers both PCP and Toxoplasma, which is precisely what inhaled pentamidine does not do.
Covered below under Module 17 — PCP · and Module 30 — CD4 Thresholds
Question 4 of 5 · High Yield · HIV · Non-Occupational Post-Exposure Prophylaxis
A 22-year-old man presents 18 hours after unprotected receptive anal intercourse with a male partner of unknown HIV status. A point-of-care fourth-generation Ag/Ab test is negative. Renal and hepatic function are normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: A — Start bictegravir/tenofovir alafenamide/emtricitabine for 28 days, then transition to PrEP
Receptive anal intercourse carries the highest per-act transmission risk of any sexual exposure, which makes this a substantial exposure and nPEP clearly indicated. Three parameters define the correct answer. Timing: start as soon as possible, ideally within 24 hours, with an absolute outer limit of 72 hours — at 18 hours he is well within the window. Regimen: a three-drug combination; the preferred option is bictegravir/TAF/emtricitabine, or dolutegravir plus TAF or TDF with emtricitabine or lamivudine. Duration: a full 28 days. Afterward, because his exposure risk is ongoing, he should transition to PrEP — nPEP handles this exposure, PrEP handles the next one. His negative baseline test is exactly what you expect and want; it establishes serostatus before starting, and it does not argue against treatment.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Reassure him and arrange PrEP initiation at an outpatient visit in 2 weeks — Incorrect, and the most harmful option. It converts a treatable exposure into an untreated one by letting the 72-hour window close. Efficacy falls with every hour of delay, so nPEP is an emergency-department decision, not an outpatient referral.
  • Start tenofovir DF/emtricitabine (two-drug PrEP) now, since nPEP is not indicated with a negative test — Incorrect on both counts. Two drugs are insufficient for post-exposure prophylaxis — nPEP requires three. And the reasoning is inverted: a negative baseline test is a prerequisite for starting nPEP, not a reason to withhold it. Starting two-drug PrEP after a high-risk exposure also risks selecting resistance if infection has already been established.
  • Start dolutegravir plus tenofovir alafenamide/emtricitabine for 7 days, then transition to PrEP — Incorrect on duration only, which is what makes it dangerous. The drugs are appropriate, but nPEP must run the full 28 days. Stopping at 7 days can allow an infection that was being suppressed to establish itself.
  • nPEP is not indicated because the source partner's HIV status is unknown — Incorrect. An unknown source status does not preclude nPEP when the exposure itself carries substantial risk. Most real exposures involve a partner whose status cannot be established in time; if unknown status were disqualifying, nPEP would almost never be given. Decide on the exposure type, not on the source.
Board pearlnPEP: start within 72 hours (ideally under 24), three drugs, 28 days. Preferred regimen is bictegravir/TAF/FTC, or dolutegravir plus TAF/TDF with FTC/3TC. Unknown source status is not a reason to withhold it — judge the exposure, and receptive anal intercourse is the highest-risk sexual act. Get a baseline HIV test before starting, then retest at 4–6 weeks and 3 months. Transition to PrEP afterward if risk is ongoing. Do not confuse the two: PrEP is two drugs taken before exposure; nPEP is three drugs taken after.
Covered below under Module 9 — HIV / AIDS
Question 5 of 5 · Hard · HIV · Managing Confirmed Virologic Failure
A 40-year-old man has taken dolutegravir plus tenofovir alafenamide/emtricitabine for 2 years. His HIV RNA was previously undetectable, but two consecutive viral loads now show 1,200 and 1,500 copies/mL. He reports good adherence. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: D — Obtain genotypic resistance testing while he remains on the current regimen
Two measurements above 200 copies/mL establish confirmed virologic failure — the threshold that separates true failure from a transient low-level "blip." The next step is genotypic resistance testing performed while he is still taking the failing regimen, or within 4 weeks of stopping it. The timing is the whole point: resistant variants are only the dominant population while drug pressure is being applied. Remove the drug and wild-type virus rapidly outgrows the mutants, which fall below the assay's detection limit and produce a falsely reassuring result. Note also that his reported adherence should still be probed independently, along with drug interactions and absorption, since non-adherence is the most common cause of failure — but that inquiry runs alongside the genotype rather than replacing it.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Add a protease inhibitor to his current regimen empirically — Incorrect. Adding a drug blindly risks introducing an agent the virus is already resistant to, which amounts to functional monotherapy layered on a failing regimen and accumulates further mutations. Salvage therapy needs at least two fully active drugs, and you cannot know which are active without a genotype.
  • Switch empirically to an NNRTI-based regimen to avoid further INSTI resistance — Incorrect, and it moves in the wrong direction. NNRTIs have a LOW barrier to resistance — a single mutation can abolish the whole class — and transmitted NNRTI resistance is common. Switching from a high-barrier INSTI to a low-barrier class without resistance data invites a second failure.
  • Obtain phenotypic resistance testing as the first-line test in this scenario — Incorrect as a first-line test. Genotypic testing is preferred for first or second regimen failure: it is cheaper, faster, and better at detecting mixed viral populations. Phenotypic testing is reserved for complex, multi-class mutational patterns in heavily treatment-experienced patients.
  • Discontinue all antiretrovirals and repeat the viral load in 4 weeks off therapy — Incorrect, and it destroys the very information you need. Stopping ART removes selective pressure, so resistant variants become undetectable within weeks and the genotype comes back falsely clean. It also risks a viral load rebound, CD4 decline, and clinical progression. Genotyping must be done on therapy or within 4 weeks of stopping.
Board pearlConfirmed virologic failure = two consecutive HIV RNA values above 200 copies/mL. Get a genotype ON the failing regimen (or within 4 weeks of stopping it). Never stop ART to "unmask" resistance — removing drug pressure lets wild-type virus outgrow the mutants and hides them. Genotype first, phenotype only for complex multi-class resistance. Always ask about adherence, drug interactions, and absorption, since non-adherence causes most failures. Build the new regimen around at least two fully active agents — never add a single drug to a failing one.
Covered below under Module 9 — HIV / AIDS
Tier 1
Module 9
HIV / AIDS — Virology, Diagnosis and ART
4th-Generation Testing · Acute Retroviral Syndrome · ART for All · PrEP and PEP
★★★ PANCE PriorityMany Traps
Etiology & Pathophysiology
  • HIV-1 (most common) and HIV-2 — retroviruses carrying reverse transcriptase
  • Targets CD4+ T lymphocytes, macrophages, and dendritic cells via gp120 binding to CD4 plus a coreceptor (CCR5 or CXCR4)
  • Progressive CD4 depletion → immunodeficiency → opportunistic infection and malignancy
  • AIDS is defined by CD4 <200 cells/mm³ OR the presence of an AIDS-defining illness — either one is sufficient
Clinical Presentation
  • Acute retroviral syndrome (2–4 weeks post-exposure): a mononucleosis-like illness — fever, pharyngitis, lymphadenopathy, maculopapular rash, myalgia, oral ulcers
  • Clinical latency lasting years with progressive CD4 decline
  • AIDS-defining illnesses: PCP, cerebral toxoplasmosis, CMV retinitis, Kaposi sarcoma, primary CNS lymphoma, disseminated MAC, cryptococcal meningitis, esophageal candidiasis, PML
Diagnosis
  • Screening: 4th-generation antigen/antibody combination immunoassay detecting HIV-1/2 antibody plus p24 antigen. Screen everyone aged 15–65 at least once
  • Confirmation: HIV-1/HIV-2 differentiation immunoassay
  • Suspected acute HIV: order HIV RNA viral load — p24 antigen and RNA are detectable before antibodies appear
  • CD4 count and viral load are used for staging and monitoring, not for diagnosis
Management
  • ART for every person with HIV regardless of CD4 count, started as soon as possible
  • Preferred initial regimens are INSTI-based: bictegravir/emtricitabine/tenofovir alafenamide, or dolutegravir-based combinations
  • PrEP: emtricitabine/tenofovir DF or emtricitabine/tenofovir alafenamide daily PO; cabotegravir IM every 2 months
  • PEP: start within 72 hours — a 28-day three-drug course
  • Opportunistic infection prophylaxis is CD4-driven — see Module 30
⚑ Board Traps — HIV
  • Suspected acute HIV requires an RNA viral load, not a repeat antibody test — the antibody window is why the 4th-generation assay includes p24
  • Monospot-negative mononucleosis should trigger HIV testing along with CMV and Toxoplasma
  • ART is started regardless of CD4 — there is no longer a threshold to wait for
  • Esophageal candidiasis is AIDS-defining at any CD4 count; oropharyngeal thrush alone is not
  • PEP has a 72-hour window and runs 28 days — both numbers are tested
★ Memory Trick
gp120 grabs CD4; the coreceptor decides the door (CCR5 early, CXCR4 late) 4th generation catches 4 things: HIV-1 Ab, HIV-2 Ab, and p24 antigen — which is why it closes the window to about 2 weeks Treat everyone, test everyone once
Tier 1
Module 10
Hepatitis B (HBV)
Serologic Patterns · Window Period · Immune-Mediated Injury · Universal Adult Screening
★★★ PANCE PriorityMany Traps
Etiology & Pathophysiology
  • Partially double-stranded DNA virus (Hepadnavirus) — the only DNA virus among the hepatitis viruses
  • Transmitted sexually, parenterally, and perinatally
  • Hepatocyte injury is immune-mediated, not directly cytopathic — which is why immunosuppressed patients have less inflammation but more virus
  • May progress to chronic hepatitis → cirrhosis → hepatocellular carcinoma
Clinical Presentation
  • Acute: often asymptomatic; prodrome of fatigue, anorexia, and nausea → jaundice, RUQ pain, hepatomegaly
  • Chronic (HBsAg positive >6 months): usually silent until complications appear
  • Extrahepatic: polyarteritis nodosa, membranous nephropathy, serum sickness–like syndrome
Serologic Markers — What Each One Means
MarkerInterpretation
HBsAgActive infection — acute or chronic
Anti-HBsImmunity — from vaccine or from recovery
Anti-HBc IgMAcute infection — the only marker positive in the window period
Anti-HBc IgGPast or chronic infection — never produced by vaccination
HBeAgHigh replication and high infectivity
Anti-HBeLower replication and lower infectivity
HBV DNAQuantitative viral load — guides treatment

Window period: HBsAg negative, anti-HBs negative, anti-HBc IgM POSITIVE. Vaccinated: anti-HBs only. Recovered: anti-HBs plus anti-HBc IgG.

Management
  • Acute: supportive care — more than 95% of infected adults clear spontaneously
  • Chronic: tenofovir or entecavir are the first-line nucleos(t)ide analogs; pegylated interferon-alfa is an alternative
  • Vaccination: recombinant HBsAg vaccine, 3-dose series or 2-dose Heplisav-B; check post-vaccination titers in high-risk groups
  • Screen all adults at least once (2023 CDC), plus all pregnant patients at the first prenatal visit, persons with HIV, people who inject drugs, and MSM
⚑ Board Traps — Hepatitis B
  • Anti-HBc IgG distinguishes natural infection from vaccination — vaccine gives anti-HBs alone
  • The window period is diagnosed by anti-HBc IgM when both surface markers are negative
  • HBV is the classic cause of polyarteritis nodosa
  • Perinatal infection becomes chronic in about 90% of neonates versus about 5% of adults — the age-dependent inversion is the tested point
  • Immune-mediated damage explains why ALT rises as the immune system attacks, not as the virus replicates
★ Memory Trick
s for safe (anti-HBs = immunity); c for caught it (anti-HBc = real infection) e for extremely infectious (HBeAg) Window = only the core IgM is home
Tier 2
Module 11
Additional High-Yield STIs
M. genitalium · Chancroid · Granuloma Inguinale · Molluscum Contagiosum
★★ PANCE Priority
Mycoplasma genitalium
  • The smallest free-living bacterium and it lacks a cell wall — therefore intrinsically resistant to all beta-lactams
  • Causes persistent or recurrent urethritis and cervicitis; a probable contributor to PID
  • Test by NAAT only in symptomatic patients with persistent urethritis or cervicitis
  • Macrolide-sensitive: doxycycline × 7 days → azithromycin 1 g day 1, then 500 mg daily days 2–4
  • Macrolide-resistant or resistance unknown: doxycycline × 7 days → moxifloxacin 400 mg daily × 7 days
Chancroid (Haemophilus ducreyi)
  • Painful genital ulcer with ragged, undermined borders plus painful inguinal buboes
  • Diagnosis is clinical; culture requires special media and has low sensitivity; PCR where available
  • Treatment: azithromycin 1 g PO × 1, or ceftriaxone 250 mg IM × 1
Granuloma Inguinale / Donovanosis (Klebsiella granulomatis)
  • Painless, slowly progressive, beefy-red highly vascular ulcers that bleed easily
  • Donovan bodies — intracytoplasmic inclusions within macrophages on biopsy — are pathognomonic
  • Regional swelling is from pseudobuboes (subcutaneous granulation), not true lymphadenopathy
  • Treatment: azithromycin 1 g PO weekly or 500 mg PO daily for at least 3 weeks, continued until fully healed
Molluscum Contagiosum
  • Poxvirus producing firm, dome-shaped, umbilicated papules with a central dimple
  • Clinical diagnosis; histology shows Henderson-Patterson (molluscum) bodies
  • Self-limited in immunocompetent patients; cryotherapy or curettage if treatment is desired
  • Widespread or giant lesions signal advanced immunosuppression — in an adult with HIV this warrants CD4 assessment, and the differential includes disseminated Cryptococcus
⚑ Board Traps — The Other Genital Ulcers
  • Painful ulcer plus painful nodes = chancroid. Painless ulcer plus painless nodes = syphilis. This pairing is the single highest-yield discriminator
  • LGV is the exception that breaks the pattern: painless ulcer with painful buboes
  • Beta-lactams cannot treat M. genitalium — no cell wall means no target
  • Pseudobuboes are not lymph nodes — granuloma inguinale spares the nodes
  • Umbilicated papules in advanced HIV are not automatically molluscum — disseminated cryptococcosis looks identical and is lethal
★ Memory Trick
Ducreyi is dubious and painful; pallidum is placid and painless Donovan bodies for Donovanosis No wall → no beta-lactam (Mycoplasma)
Section II · Modules 12–16
Tick-Borne Diseases
Five modules organized by vector and region. The two diseases that do NOT respond to doxycycline are flagged explicitly — that single distinction accounts for most missed questions in this block.
Before you beginTick-Borne Diseases5 questions
Answer these five before you read the modules. Tick-borne illness is tested on three axes at once — geography, the smear, and which drug. Getting them wrong first is what makes the modules below stick. Each explanation unlocks only after you submit.
Question 1 of 5 · High Yield · RMSF · Treat Before You Confirm
A 45-year-old man presents to the emergency department in July with a 3-day history of fever, severe headache, and myalgias. He recently returned from a camping trip in North Carolina. On examination, temperature is 39.4°C, and a diffuse petechial rash is noted on his wrists and ankles. Labs show thrombocytopenia, hyponatremia, and elevated hepatic transaminases. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: B — Start doxycycline 100 mg PO BID immediately
Fever, headache, myalgias, a petechial rash that began on the wrists and ankles, plus the laboratory triad of thrombocytopenia, hyponatremia, and elevated transaminases after outdoor exposure in the southeastern United States is Rocky Mountain spotted fever. Doxycycline is first-line at every age — including children and pregnant patients, which is the exception to the usual tetracycline caution. The tested point is the timing: treat empirically now. Delay beyond about 5 days from symptom onset sharply raises mortality, and therapy must never wait on serology.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Obtain Rickettsia rickettsii serologies and await results before initiating treatment — Incorrect, and this is the option that kills the patient. Serology is frequently negative in the first week because antibodies have not yet developed. RMSF is a clinical diagnosis treated on suspicion; confirmation is retrospective.
  • Start trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole PO BID — Incorrect. TMP-SMX has no activity against Rickettsia and has been associated with worse outcomes in RMSF. It is an actively harmful choice, not merely an ineffective one.
  • Start azithromycin 500 mg PO daily — Incorrect. Azithromycin is not reliable against R. rickettsii. Its tick-borne role is babesiosis, paired with atovaquone.
  • Start ciprofloxacin 500 mg PO BID — Incorrect. Fluoroquinolones treat tularemia, not rickettsial disease, and have no dependable activity against R. rickettsii.
Board pearlDoxycycline for RMSF at any age, started on suspicion. Two traps sit in every version of this question: waiting for serology, and withholding doxycycline from a child or a pregnant patient. Both are wrong. Remember the rash direction — wrists and ankles first, then centrally — and that roughly 10% of cases never develop a rash at all.
Covered below under Module 13 — Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever
Question 2 of 5 · High Yield · Babesiosis · The Maltese Cross
A 58-year-old woman from Connecticut presents in June with fatigue, fever, dark urine, and jaundice. She had a splenectomy 10 years ago for ITP. CBC reveals hemoglobin 8.2 g/dL, platelet count 89,000/µL, and elevated indirect bilirubin. A peripheral blood smear shows intraerythrocytic ring forms with occasional “Maltese cross” (tetrad) formations. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: E — Atovaquone 750 mg PO q12h plus azithromycin 500 mg PO day 1, then 250 mg daily for 7–10 days
Intraerythrocytic ring forms with Maltese cross tetrads are the smear finding for Babesia microti, endemic to the northeastern United States. The clinical picture is hemolysis — dark urine, jaundice, indirect hyperbilirubinemia, anemia — which distinguishes it from the other tick-borne illnesses. Mild-to-moderate disease is treated with atovaquone plus azithromycin for 7–10 days. Her asplenia is the detail that raises the stakes: asplenic patients are at high risk of severe, high-parasitemia disease, so monitor closely and consider exchange transfusion if parasitemia exceeds 10%.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Doxycycline 100 mg PO BID for 10 days — Incorrect — and the most tempting wrong answer, because doxycycline covers the other three big tick-borne illnesses (RMSF, ehrlichiosis, anaplasmosis). Babesia is a protozoan, not a bacterium, and does not respond to it.
  • Chloroquine phosphate 600 mg base PO, then 300 mg at 6, 24, and 48 hours — Incorrect. Chloroquine treats Plasmodium vivax and ovale malaria. The ring forms genuinely resemble malaria, which is the trap — but the tetrad forms, the New England exposure, and the absence of travel point to Babesia.
  • Metronidazole 500 mg PO TID for 10 days — Incorrect. Metronidazole covers luminal protozoa such as Giardia and Entamoeba. It has no activity against intraerythrocytic parasites.
  • Ceftriaxone 2 g IV daily for 14 days — Incorrect. IV ceftriaxone is for disseminated Lyme disease — meningitis or high-grade carditis — not babesiosis, even though the two are transmitted by the same Ixodes tick and can co-infect.
Board pearlMaltese cross on the smear plus hemolysis equals babesiosis, and the drug pair is atovaquone plus azithromycin. Ask about asplenia, immunosuppression, and age over 50 — these mark severe disease and trigger consideration of exchange transfusion above 10% parasitemia. Babesiosis is the one tick-borne illness where doxycycline is the wrong answer.
Covered below under Module 15 — Babesiosis
Question 3 of 5 · High Yield · Erythema Migrans · The Allergy Distractor
A 34-year-old man from Minnesota presents in August with a 10-day history of an expanding annular erythematous skin lesion on his left thigh. He recalls removing a tick approximately 2 weeks ago. He has no neurologic or cardiac symptoms. He has a documented anaphylactic allergy to penicillin. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: D — Doxycycline 100 mg PO BID for 10 days
An expanding annular lesion at the site of a tick bite in an endemic state is erythema migrans — early localized Lyme disease. This is a clinical diagnosis; serology is not required and is often still negative at this stage. First-line options are doxycycline, amoxicillin, or cefuroxime axetil. The penicillin allergy is placed there to make you hesitate, and the point is that it changes nothing: doxycycline is not a beta-lactam, so it is both safe here and the preferred agent — it also covers possible Anaplasma co-infection, which amoxicillin does not.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Azithromycin 500 mg PO daily for 7 days — Incorrect. Macrolides are second-line for Lyme disease with inferior efficacy, reserved for patients who can take neither doxycycline nor a beta-lactam. This patient can take doxycycline.
  • Ceftriaxone 2 g IV daily for 14 days — Incorrect — wrong stage and wrong route. IV ceftriaxone is for disseminated disease with meningitis or high-grade carditis. Early localized disease is treated orally, and note that most penicillin-allergic patients tolerate cephalosporins anyway.
  • Ciprofloxacin 500 mg PO BID for 14 days — Incorrect. Fluoroquinolones have no established role against Borrelia burgdorferi.
  • Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole DS PO BID for 14 days — Incorrect. TMP-SMX is not effective against B. burgdorferi and is not part of any Lyme regimen.
Board pearlErythema migrans is treated on sight — do not order serology first, because antibodies frequently have not formed yet and a negative result would mislead you. Doxycycline, amoxicillin, and cefuroxime are all first-line for early localized disease; a penicillin allergy does not exclude doxycycline, which is a tetracycline. Reserve IV ceftriaxone for neurologic or high-grade cardiac involvement.
Covered below under Module 12 — Lyme Disease
Question 4 of 5 · High Yield · Ehrlichiosis vs Anaplasmosis · Which Cell
A 7-year-old boy from Arkansas presents in May with a 4-day history of high fever, headache, myalgias, and nausea. His mother does not recall a tick bite. CBC shows WBC 2,800/µL, platelet count 72,000/µL, and AST/ALT are elevated. A peripheral blood smear demonstrates morulae (dark-staining inclusion bodies) within monocytes. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: C — Human monocytic ehrlichiosis
The triad of leukopenia, thrombocytopenia, and elevated transaminases in a febrile patient from the south-central United States, with morulae inside monocytes, is human monocytic ehrlichiosis from Ehrlichia chaffeensis. The vector is the lone star tick (Amblyomma americanum), common across the southeastern and south-central states. Note two useful features: most patients do not recall a tick bite, and unlike RMSF, rash is uncommon — this is sometimes called “spotless” rickettsiosis. Treatment is doxycycline at all ages.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Rocky Mountain spotted fever — Incorrect. RMSF shares the lab triad but produces a petechial rash beginning at the wrists and ankles and does not produce morulae. Note that treatment would be the same drug — the question is asking you to name the organism, not pick therapy.
  • Human granulocytic anaplasmosis — Incorrect — and this is the discriminating distractor. Anaplasmosis puts morulae in granulocytes (neutrophils), not monocytes, and clusters in the upper Midwest and Northeast via Ixodes. Cell type plus geography separates the two.
  • Babesiosis — Incorrect. Babesia produces intraerythrocytic ring forms and Maltese crosses inside red cells, with hemolytic anemia rather than leukopenia.
  • Tularemia — Incorrect. Francisella tularensis classically causes ulceroglandular disease — a skin ulcer with regional lymphadenopathy — and produces no morulae.
Board pearlMorulae in monocytes = Ehrlichia (south-central, lone star tick). Morulae in granulocytes = Anaplasma (upper Midwest and Northeast, Ixodes). Both give leukopenia, thrombocytopenia, and raised transaminases, and both are treated with doxycycline regardless of age. Rash is the separator from RMSF: usually absent in ehrlichiosis, expected in RMSF.
Covered below under Module 14 — Ehrlichiosis and Anaplasmosis
Question 5 of 5 · High Yield · Lyme Arthritis · Oral First
A 52-year-old man from Pennsylvania presents with 3 weeks of intermittent right knee swelling and pain. He recalls a “bull’s-eye rash” on his leg approximately 4 months ago that resolved without treatment. Arthrocentesis reveals inflammatory synovial fluid. Two-tiered serologic testing (ELISA followed by Western blot) is positive for Lyme IgG antibodies. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: D — Doxycycline 100 mg PO BID for 28 days
A monoarticular effusion of the knee months after untreated erythema migrans, with positive two-tiered serology, is Lyme arthritis — a late manifestation. Unlike early disease, serology here is appropriate and will be positive, because IgG has had months to develop. Initial therapy is oral antibiotics for 28 days: doxycycline 100 mg BID, amoxicillin 500 mg TID, or cefuroxime axetil 500 mg BID. The knee is by far the most commonly involved joint.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Ceftriaxone 2 g IV daily for 14 days — Incorrect as initial therapy, though it has a role later. IV ceftriaxone is for patients who fail a first oral course, or who have concurrent neurologic involvement. Starting IV here escalates without cause.
  • Intra-articular corticosteroid injection — Incorrect, and potentially harmful before antibiotics. Steroid injection into an actively infected joint suppresses inflammation while the organism persists. Treat the infection first.
  • Methotrexate 15 mg PO weekly — Incorrect at this point. Methotrexate is considered only for antibiotic-refractory Lyme arthritis, which is a post-infectious immune-mediated synovitis — a diagnosis you can only reach after adequate antibiotic therapy has failed.
  • Hydroxychloroquine 200 mg PO BID — Incorrect. Hydroxychloroquine is used in systemic lupus erythematosus and rheumatoid arthritis. It has no role in Lyme arthritis.
Board pearlLyme arthritis: 28 days of oral antibiotics first — doxycycline, amoxicillin, or cefuroxime. IV ceftriaxone is reserved for oral failure or neurologic disease, and immunosuppression (steroids, methotrexate) only for genuinely antibiotic-refractory synovitis. Note the diagnostic asymmetry: serology is unnecessary in erythema migrans but required in Lyme arthritis.
Covered below under Module 12 — Lyme Disease
Tier 1
Module 12
Lyme Disease (Borrelia burgdorferi)
EM Needs No Serology · Bilateral CN VII · PR Prolongation and AV Block · 36-Hour Rule · Coinfections
★★★ PANCE PriorityMany Traps
Etiology & Pathophysiology
  • Spirochete transmitted by Ixodes scapularis (deer tick / black-legged tick)
  • Endemic in the Northeast and upper Midwest, plus Europe and Asia
  • The tick must be attached 36–48 hours to transmit — this single fact drives the prophylaxis decision
  • The most common tick-borne disease in the United States
Clinical Presentation by Stage
  • Early localized (days to weeks): erythema migrans — expanding annular lesion with central clearing ("bull's-eye"); present in 70–80%; favors groin, axilla, and popliteal fossa
  • Early disseminated (weeks to months): multiple EM lesions; facial nerve palsy, classically bilateral; Lyme carditis with AV block ranging from first-degree to complete heart block; meningitis; radiculopathy
  • Late disseminated (months to years): migratory oligoarthritis of large joints, especially the knee; encephalopathy; peripheral neuropathy
Diagnosis
  • Erythema migrans in an endemic area is a clinical diagnosis — do NOT order serology. Antibodies have not developed yet, so a negative test is falsely reassuring
  • All other stages: two-tier serologic testing — step 1 ELISA (sensitive), step 2 Western blot (IgM early, IgG late) or a second ELISA
  • Neuroborreliosis CSF: lymphocytic pleocytosis, elevated protein, intrathecal antibody production
  • Do not test the tick the patient brings in
Management
  • Early localized or early disseminated without neurologic or cardiac involvement: doxycycline 100 mg PO BID × 10–21 days — preferred because it also covers Anaplasma co-infection
  • Alternatives: amoxicillin 500 mg PO TID or cefuroxime 500 mg PO BID × 14–21 days
  • High-degree AV block or neuroborreliosis: ceftriaxone 2 g IV daily × 14–28 days
  • Lyme arthritis: oral doxycycline or amoxicillin × 28 days; ceftriaxone IV if refractory
  • Prophylaxis — single dose doxycycline 200 mg only if ALL four are met: Ixodes tick, attached ≥36 hours, within 72 hours of removal, endemic area
⚑ Board Traps — Lyme Disease
  • Ordering serology for erythema migrans is the classic wrong answer — treat on sight in an endemic area
  • Bilateral facial nerve palsy in summer is Lyme until proven otherwise
  • Post-treatment serology stays positive — it is not a test of cure and a positive titer does not mean active infection
  • "Chronic Lyme disease" treated with prolonged antibiotics is not evidence-based — prolonged IV therapy causes real harm
  • Prophylaxis requires all four criteria. A tick attached 12 hours does not qualify, and neither does an unidentified tick
★ Memory Trick
Doxy covers two ticks at once — Lyme and Anaplasma ride the same Ixodes 36 hours to transmit, 72 hours to prevent Heart block or brain → go IV (ceftriaxone)
Stage Details, Prophylaxis and Prevention
  • Erythema migrans size: the lesion must reach ≥5 cm to meet the surveillance definition — a small red papule at the bite site within 24–48 hours is a hypersensitivity reaction, not EM
  • Lyme carditis: PR prolongation is the cardiac hallmark, progressing through first-, second-, and third-degree block. Third-degree block needs temporary pacing plus IV ceftriaxone — and it resolves completely with treatment, so a permanent pacemaker is not indicated
  • Doxycycline is contraindicated in pregnancy and in children under 8 — use amoxicillin 500 mg TID instead. Cefuroxime 500 mg BID is the second alternative
  • Post-treatment Lyme disease syndrome: fatigue, arthralgia, and cognitive complaints persisting beyond 6 months after adequate therapy. Serology stays positive for years — this is not ongoing infection, and extended antibiotics do not help
  • Antibiotic-refractory Lyme arthritis: a swollen knee that persists after a full oral course plus IV ceftriaxone is immune-mediated, not persistent infection. Manage with NSAIDs, intra-articular steroids, or a DMARD such as hydroxychloroquine or methotrexate — not more antibiotics
  • Prevention: DEET repellent, permethrin-treated clothing, daily tick checks, and prompt removal — the 36-hour transmission window is what makes daily checks effective
Common Coinfections (Same Ixodes Tick)
  • Babesiosis: Hemolytic anemia; "Maltese cross" (tetrad) on blood smear; treat with atovaquone + azithromycin
  • Anaplasmosis (HGA): Fever, leukopenia, thrombocytopenia, elevated LFTs; treat with doxycycline
  • Ehrlichiosis (HME): Similar to anaplasmosis; treat with doxycycline
Tier 1
Module 13
Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever (Rickettsia rickettsii)
Centripetal Rash · Treat Before Confirming · Doxycycline at Every Age · Spotless Variant
★★★ PANCE PriorityMany Traps
Etiology & Pathophysiology
  • Obligate intracellular bacterium transmitted by Dermacentor variabilis (dog tick) and D. andersoni (wood tick)
  • Tropism for vascular endothelium → vasculitis → increased permeability → petechiae, edema, and end-organ damage
  • The most lethal tick-borne disease in the United States
  • Despite the name, most cases occur in the southeastern and south-central US — North Carolina, Oklahoma, Arkansas, Tennessee, Missouri
Clinical Presentation
  • Classic triad: fever, headache, rash
  • Rash appears day 3–5, starting on wrists, forearms, and ankles, then spreading centrally to the trunk; macular → petechial → may become purpuric
  • Progression to DIC, shock, renal failure, encephalitis, and pulmonary edema
  • "Rocky Mountain spotless fever" — the rash is absent early in many patients and never appears in about 10%. Waiting for it is fatal
Diagnosis
  • Clinical suspicion is the diagnosis. Treat empirically.
  • Serology by indirect immunofluorescence is the confirmatory gold standard, but antibodies do not appear until week 2 — too late to guide therapy
  • Skin biopsy of a petechial lesion with immunofluorescence can confirm early
  • Supporting labs: thrombocytopenia, hyponatremia, elevated transaminases
Management
  • Doxycycline 100 mg PO or IV BID — the treatment of choice at ALL ages, including young children and pregnant patients
  • Duration: minimum 3 days after defervescence, typically 7–14 days total
  • Do NOT wait for confirmatory serology. Empiric treatment drops mortality from 20–25% to under 5%
  • Chloramphenicol is the historical alternative but performs worse and carries marrow toxicity
⚑ Board Traps — RMSF
  • Withholding doxycycline from a child is the most dangerous distractor on this topic. Short courses do not stain teeth, and RMSF kills
  • The rash moves centripetally — inward from wrists and ankles to the trunk — the opposite direction of most exanthems
  • Do not delay treatment for serology; antibodies lag the illness by two weeks
  • Absence of rash does not exclude RMSF
  • Hyponatremia plus thrombocytopenia plus fever after outdoor exposure is the lab triad that should trigger empiric therapy
★ Memory Trick
Centripetal = toward the center: wrists and ankles first, trunk second Treat first, confirm later — the only tick-borne disease where hesitation is measured in mortality Rocky Mountain is a misnomer — think Carolina, not Colorado
Tier 2
Module 14
Ehrlichiosis and Anaplasmosis
Morulae in Monocytes vs Granulocytes · Same Labs · Doxycycline for Both
★★ PANCE Priority
The Two Diseases Side by Side
FeatureEhrlichiosisAnaplasmosis
OrganismEhrlichia chaffeensisAnaplasma phagocytophilum
VectorLone Star tick (Amblyomma americanum)Ixodes scapularis — the same tick as Lyme
RegionSoutheastern, south-central, mid-AtlanticNortheastern and upper Midwest
Target cellMonocytesGranulocytes / neutrophils
RashUp to 30%, more common in childrenRare
Co-infectionUncommonLyme and babesiosis — shared Ixodes vector
TreatmentDoxycycline 100 mg PO BIDDoxycycline 100 mg PO BID
Clinical Presentation
  • Fever, headache, myalgia, and malaise — a nonspecific febrile illness after outdoor exposure
  • The lab signature is shared: leukopenia + thrombocytopenia + elevated transaminases
  • Anaplasmosis is rash-rare; if a rash is present with anaplasmosis, suspect concurrent Lyme
Diagnosis
  • Peripheral smear for morulae — mulberry-like intracytoplasmic inclusions; monocytes in ehrlichiosis, granulocytes in anaplasmosis
  • PCR is the most sensitive acute test
  • Serology by IFA confirms retrospectively with paired titers
  • Smear sensitivity is low — a negative smear does not exclude either disease
Management
  • Doxycycline 100 mg PO BID for both, continued at least 3 days after fever resolves
  • Treat empirically on clinical suspicion — the same principle as RMSF
  • Rifampin is the alternative in true doxycycline intolerance or pregnancy for anaplasmosis
⚑ Board Traps — Ehrlichia and Anaplasma
  • The cell type is the whole question. Monocytes point to Ehrlichia; granulocytes point to Anaplasma
  • Fever with leukopenia and thrombocytopenia after a tick bite is not viral — this triad should prompt doxycycline
  • Anaplasmosis shares the Lyme tick, so a patient with erythema migrans plus cytopenias may have both
  • A rash argues against anaplasmosis and toward RMSF, ehrlichiosis, or concurrent Lyme
★ Memory Trick
Ehrlichia → Monocytes ("Ehrlichia Meets Monos") Anaplasma → grAnulocytes — the A carries through Same tick as Lyme → same drug as Lyme (doxycycline)
Tier 2
Module 15
Babesiosis (Babesia microti)
Maltese Cross · Hemolytic Anemia · Asplenia Risk · Not Doxycycline
★★ PANCE PriorityMany Traps
Etiology & Pathophysiology
  • Intraerythrocytic protozoan transmitted by Ixodes scapularis
  • Also transmitted by blood transfusion — the most common transfusion-transmitted parasitic infection in the US
  • Endemic in the Northeast and upper Midwest
  • Severe disease in asplenic, elderly, and immunocompromised patients — the spleen is the primary clearance organ
Clinical Presentation
  • Mild: flu-like illness with fever, fatigue, myalgia, and chills
  • Severe: hemolytic anemia — jaundice, dark urine, elevated LDH and indirect bilirubin, low haptoglobin — plus hepatosplenomegaly, ARDS, and renal failure
  • Rash is uncommon. If a rash is present, look for Lyme co-infection
Diagnosis
  • Peripheral smear: intraerythrocytic ring forms and the pathognomonic "Maltese cross" tetrad — this is what separates Babesia from Plasmodium
  • PCR is highly sensitive and useful at low parasitemia
  • Serology by IFA for B. microti may miss other species
  • Quantify percent parasitemia — it drives the treatment decision
Management
  • Mild to moderate: atovaquone 750 mg PO BID + azithromycin 500–1000 mg on day 1, then 250 mg daily × 7–10 days
  • Severe (parasitemia >10%, significant hemolysis, or organ failure): clindamycin IV + quinine PO × 7–10 days
  • Consider exchange transfusion for parasitemia >10% or severe hemolysis
  • Asplenic or immunocompromised: treat at least 6 weeks, including 2 weeks after parasite clearance
⚑ Board Traps — Babesiosis
  • Doxycycline does NOT treat babesiosis. This is the exception to the "all tick-borne disease gets doxycycline" rule
  • Maltese cross distinguishes Babesia from malaria — Plasmodium does not form tetrads, and no travel history is needed for Babesia
  • Asplenia converts a mild illness into a fatal one — splenectomy history changes the whole management arc
  • Same tick as Lyme, so a patient failing doxycycline for presumed Lyme with worsening anemia may have babesiosis
  • Hemolytic anemia is the tell — no other Ixodes-borne disease produces it
★ Memory Trick
Babesia = Babesia Bursts Blood cells (hemolysis) Maltese cross for the Malaria Mimic Atovaquone + Azithromycin = the two A's for the one exception to doxycycline
Tier 2
Module 16
Other Tick-Borne Diseases
Tularemia · Colorado Tick Fever · Tick Paralysis · Powassan Virus
★ PANCE Priority
Tularemia (Francisella tularensis)
  • Transmitted by Dermacentor ticks and by direct contact with rabbits or rodents
  • Ulceroglandular form is most common: an ulcer at the bite site with painful regional lymphadenopathy
  • Pneumonic form is a recognized bioterrorism concern
  • Diagnosis is serologic; culture requires biosafety level 3 — alert the laboratory before sending specimens
  • Treatment: streptomycin or gentamicin first-line; doxycycline or ciprofloxacin are alternatives with higher relapse rates
Colorado Tick Fever
  • Coltivirus transmitted by Dermacentor andersoni (wood tick)
  • Western US mountain regions above 4,000 feet
  • "Saddleback" biphasic fever — fever, brief defervescence, then fever again
  • Diagnosis by RT-PCR; viral inclusions can be seen within erythrocytes
  • Treatment is supportive. Defer blood donation for 6 months given prolonged viremia in RBCs
Tick Paralysis
  • Not an infection — a neurotoxin in tick saliva blocks presynaptic acetylcholine release
  • Ascending flaccid paralysis that mimics Guillain-Barré syndrome, often with normal CSF
  • Finding and removing the tick produces rapid resolution — this is both the diagnosis and the cure
  • Classically a child with a tick hidden in the scalp or behind an ear
Powassan Virus
  • Ixodes-transmitted flavivirus of the northeastern US and Great Lakes
  • Meningoencephalitis with seizures and focal deficits
  • Transmission can occur within 15 minutes of attachment — unlike the 36-hour requirement for Lyme, so prophylaxis timing rules do not apply
  • Treatment is supportive; roughly 10% mortality with frequent neurologic sequelae
⚑ Board Traps — The Remaining Tick-Borne Diseases
  • Tularemia is the second exception to doxycycline — aminoglycosides are first-line
  • Always examine the scalp in a child with ascending paralysis. Tick paralysis is reversible; Guillain-Barré is not, and the CSF distinguishes them
  • Powassan transmits in minutes, not hours — a short attachment time does not reassure you here
  • Notify the lab when tularemia is suspected — unwarned culture handling has caused laboratory-acquired infection
  • Biphasic fever after a mountain hiking trip points to Colorado tick fever, not relapsing malaria
★ Memory Trick
Tularemia = Tubes of aminoglycoside (not doxy) Saddleback fever rides up, down, and up again Paralysis? Part the hair.
Section III · Modules 17–28
Opportunistic Infections in Advanced HIV
Twelve modules ordered by the CD4 threshold at which each becomes possible. Read alongside the CD4 ladder in Module 30 — nearly every board question in this domain is anchored to a count.
Tier 1
Module 17
Pneumocystis Pneumonia (PCP)
CD4 <200 · Ground-Glass + LDH · Steroid Threshold · Check G6PD
★★★ PANCE PriorityMany Traps
Etiology & Pathophysiology
  • Pneumocystis jirovecii — an atypical fungus, previously misclassified as a protozoan (which is why it still responds to TMP-SMX rather than to standard antifungals)
  • Risk begins at CD4 <200 cells/mm³; also immunosuppressive therapy, especially corticosteroids, and transplant recipients
  • Airborne acquisition or reactivation of latent infection
Clinical Presentation
  • Gradual onset over weeks — progressive dyspnea, dry nonproductive cough, fever
  • Hypoxemia out of proportion to examination and imaging; desaturation with exertion is an early sign
  • Bilateral diffuse interstitial or ground-glass opacities; the chest radiograph may be normal early, so CT is more sensitive
  • Pneumothorax is a recognized complication, arising from subpleural cysts
Diagnosis
  • Induced sputum or bronchoalveolar lavage with silver (GMS) stain or direct fluorescent antibody
  • Elevated serum LDH — nonspecific but tracks severity
  • Elevated serum (1→3) beta-D-glucan — sensitive for fungi but not specific
  • Respiratory PCR is highly sensitive but may detect colonization rather than disease
Management
  • First-line: TMP-SMX, trimethoprim 15–20 mg/kg/day in 3–4 divided doses — 21 days in HIV, 14 days in non-HIV
  • Adjunctive corticosteroids if PaO₂ <70 mmHg or A-a gradient ≥35: prednisone 40 mg BID × 5 days → 40 mg daily × 5 days → 20 mg daily × 11 days. Start within 72 hours of antimicrobial therapy
  • Alternatives: IV pentamidine; atovaquone (mild disease); dapsone plus trimethoprim; clindamycin plus primaquine
  • Prophylaxis: TMP-SMX DS daily or three times weekly, started when CD4 <200 or with oropharyngeal candidiasis
  • Discontinue prophylaxis when CD4 >200 for at least 3 months on ART
⚑ Board Traps — PCP
  • Steroids go in only for moderate-severe disease (PaO₂ <70 or A-a gradient ≥35). Giving them to a well-oxygenated patient is wrong, and withholding them from a hypoxic one increases mortality
  • Steroids are started with or before antibiotics, not after clinical decline
  • A normal chest radiograph does not exclude PCP — get the CT
  • Check G6PD before dapsone or primaquine — hemolytic anemia is the consequence of skipping it
  • Aerosolized pentamidine does not cover Toxoplasma, so a sulfa-allergic patient on it still needs toxoplasmosis consideration
  • The most common AIDS-defining opportunistic infection — if the stem gives CD4 <200 with dyspnea, start here
★ Memory Trick
Ground-glass + high LDH + CD4 under 200 = PCP, every time 70 and 35 are the steroid numbers — PaO₂ below 70, gradient above 35 Dapsone and primaquine both need a G6PD check first
Tier 1
Module 18
Toxoplasmosis (Toxoplasma gondii)
CD4 <100 · Multiple Ring-Enhancing Lesions · Empiric Therapy · Leucovorin Rescue
★★★ PANCE Priority
Etiology & Pathophysiology
  • Obligate intracellular protozoan; the cat is the definitive host
  • Acquired by ingesting oocysts (cat feces, contaminated food or water) or tissue cysts (undercooked meat), or transplacentally
  • Reactivation risk at CD4 <100 cells/mm³ — cerebral disease in AIDS is nearly always reactivation of latent infection, which is why IgG serostatus matters
Clinical Presentation
  • Immunocompetent: usually asymptomatic; may cause cervical lymphadenopathy or a mononucleosis-like illness
  • Cerebral toxoplasmosis in AIDS: headache, confusion, fever, focal neurologic deficits, seizures
  • Imaging: MULTIPLE ring-enhancing lesions favoring the basal ganglia and corticomedullary junction
  • Congenital triad: chorioretinitis, hydrocephalus, and diffuse intracranial calcifications
  • Ocular disease is the most common cause of posterior uveitis in immunocompetent adults
Diagnosis
  • Cerebral disease is diagnosed presumptively: compatible imaging + positive Toxoplasma IgG → treat empirically and reassess in 2 weeks
  • Brain biopsy is reserved for non-responders
  • Serology: IgG indicates prior exposure (and therefore reactivation risk); IgM suggests acute infection
  • CSF PCR is supportive when lumbar puncture is safe
Management
  • Pyrimethamine + sulfadiazine + leucovorin for a minimum of 6 weeks
  • Leucovorin (folinic acid) prevents pyrimethamine-induced marrow suppression — it is not optional and it does not reduce efficacy
  • Alternatives: TMP-SMX; pyrimethamine plus clindamycin (for sulfa allergy)
  • Prophylaxis: TMP-SMX DS daily when CD4 <100 AND Toxoplasma IgG positive
  • Discontinue when CD4 >200 for at least 3 months on ART
  • Congenital: pyrimethamine + sulfadiazine + leucovorin for 12 months
Ring-Enhancing Lesions in AIDS — The Discriminator
FeatureCerebral ToxoplasmosisPrimary CNS Lymphoma
NumberMultipleSingle
LocationBasal ganglia, corticomedullary junctionPeriventricular
Serology / CSFToxoplasma IgG positiveCSF EBV DNA positive
Empiric therapyResponds within 2 weeksNo response → proceed to biopsy
CD4< 100< 50
⚑ Board Traps — Toxoplasmosis
  • Do not biopsy first. The correct next step for multiple ring-enhancing lesions with positive IgG is empiric therapy
  • Omitting leucovorin is the classic pharmacology error — pyrimethamine is a dihydrofolate reductase inhibitor
  • Negative Toxoplasma IgG makes cerebral toxoplasmosis very unlikely and should redirect you to lymphoma
  • TMP-SMX covers both PCP and Toxoplasma — one drug, two prophylaxis indications
  • Prophylaxis requires BOTH criteria: CD4 <100 and positive IgG
★ Memory Trick
Toxo = Two or more; Lymphoma = Lone lesion Leucovorin rescues the marrow, not the parasite Cats, cysts, and CD4 under 100
Tier 1
Module 19
Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
CD4 <50 · Pizza-Pie Retina · Owl's Eye Inclusions · Most Common Congenital Infection
★★★ PANCE Priority
Etiology & Pathophysiology
  • Herpesvirus HHV-5, double-stranded DNA; establishes lifelong latency
  • Transmitted in saliva, urine, sexual contact, breast milk, blood, and transplanted organs
  • Disease risk at CD4 <50 cells/mm³, and in transplant recipients
Clinical Presentation
  • Immunocompetent: a heterophile-NEGATIVE mononucleosis syndrome, self-limited
  • CMV retinitis (most common in AIDS): painless progressive vision loss and floaters; fundoscopy shows the "pizza pie" appearance — hemorrhages plus yellow-white exudates
  • CMV colitis: diarrhea, abdominal pain, bloody stools; "punched-out" ulcers on colonoscopy
  • CMV esophagitis: large, shallow, linear ulcers — versus Candida (white plaques) and HSV (small deep ulcers)
  • CMV encephalitis and polyradiculopathy also occur
  • Congenital CMV is the most common congenital infection. Sensorineural hearing loss is the most common sequela; also periventricular calcifications, petechial "blueberry muffin" rash, hepatosplenomegaly, microcephaly, chorioretinitis
Diagnosis
  • CMV retinitis is a clinical diagnosis by dilated fundoscopic examination — do not delay for laboratory confirmation
  • Tissue disease: biopsy showing "owl's eye" intranuclear inclusion bodies is pathognomonic
  • Quantitative CMV DNA PCR on serum or CSF
  • pp65 antigenemia assay; serology distinguishes prior exposure from acute infection
Management
  • First-line: ganciclovir IV (induction 5 mg/kg BID × 14–21 days, then maintenance) or oral valganciclovir
  • Retinitis: intravitreal ganciclovir or foscarnet injection plus systemic therapy
  • Alternatives: foscarnet (ganciclovir resistance or marrow suppression); cidofovir
  • Toxicities: ganciclovir causes myelosuppression and neutropenia; foscarnet causes nephrotoxicity with hypocalcemia and hypomagnesemia
  • No routine primary prophylaxis — the intervention is ART to raise CD4 above 100
⚑ Board Traps — CMV
  • Monospot-negative mononucleosis is CMV, acute HIV, or Toxoplasma — not EBV
  • Owl's eye = CMV; Cowdry type A = HSV or VZV. Do not swap them
  • Congenital CMV gives PERIVENTRICULAR calcifications; congenital toxoplasmosis gives DIFFUSE scattered calcifications
  • Vision loss in a patient with CD4 <50 is an ophthalmologic emergency — examine the retina rather than ordering serology
  • Match the toxicity to the drug: marrow for ganciclovir, kidney and electrolytes for foscarnet
★ Memory Trick
CMV = See My Vision at CD4 under 50 Pizza pie retina: cheese (exudate) and tomato sauce (hemorrhage) Ganciclovir hits the margan — marrow; Foscarnet hits the nephros — kidney
Tier 2
Module 20
Mycobacterium avium Complex (MAC / MAI)
CD4 <50 · Fever + Anemia + Alk Phos · AFB Blood Cultures · Rifabutin over Rifampin
★★ PANCE PriorityProphylaxis Updated
Etiology & Pathophysiology
  • Nontuberculous mycobacteria — M. avium and M. intracellulare — ubiquitous in water and soil
  • NOT transmitted person to person, so no isolation is required. This is the key contrast with M. tuberculosis
  • Disseminated disease risk at CD4 <50 cells/mm³ — the lowest threshold of any opportunistic infection
Clinical Presentation
  • Disseminated MAC: high fevers, drenching night sweats, weight loss, chronic diarrhea, abdominal pain
  • Hepatosplenomegaly and diffuse lymphadenopathy
  • Labs: severe anemia, elevated alkaline phosphatase, elevated LDH — this triad in advanced HIV is the classic board signature
  • Pulmonary MAC in the immunocompetent host is a different disease and is now taught in Pulmonary Module 19 — Nontuberculous Mycobacteria. Disseminated MAC below, at CD4 <50, is the HIV illness
Diagnosis
  • Mycobacterial (AFB) blood cultures are the gold standard for disseminated disease — routine blood cultures will not grow it, so the test must be requested specifically
  • Bone marrow biopsy: noncaseating granulomas containing acid-fast bacilli
  • Sputum culture for pulmonary disease, with repeated positive samples required to distinguish disease from colonization
Management
  • Disseminated disease: clarithromycin 500 mg PO BID (or azithromycin 500 mg daily) + ethambutol 15 mg/kg/day, with or without rifabutin
  • Rifabutin is preferred over rifampin in HIV — substantially fewer interactions with antiretrovirals, though it remains a CYP3A4 substrate and inducer
  • Rule out active tuberculosis before starting rifabutin — adding a single rifamycin to undiagnosed TB selects for resistance
  • Monitor for ethambutol optic neuritis — baseline and periodic visual acuity and color vision testing
  • Primary prophylaxis is no longer routinely recommended when ART is started promptly. Where ART will be delayed, azithromycin 1200 mg weekly at CD4 <50 remains the historical regimen
  • Discontinue secondary prophylaxis when CD4 >100 for at least 3 months on ART with treated disease
⚑ Board Traps — MAC
  • Routine MAC prophylaxis has been dropped for patients starting ART immediately — a stem offering weekly azithromycin to a newly diagnosed patient going straight onto ART is testing the obsolete recommendation
  • MAC is not contagious. Airborne isolation is the wrong answer
  • Order AFB blood cultures specifically — standard cultures will be reported as no growth
  • Rifabutin, not rifampin, in a patient on ART
  • Ethambutol is the eye drug in both MAC and TB regimens — a new visual complaint means stop it
  • Disseminated MAC and pulmonary MAC are separate illnesses. Disseminated disease belongs to advanced HIV at CD4 <50; the nodular bronchiectatic and fibrocavitary pulmonary forms occur in immunocompetent hosts and are covered in the Pulmonary syllabus.
★ Memory Trick
MAC at 50 — the lowest CD4 threshold, sharing the floor with CMV Fever + anemia + alk phos in advanced HIV = MAC Rifa-BUT-in — use it but only after excluding TB
Tier 1
Module 21
Cryptococcal Meningitis (Cryptococcus neoformans)
CD4 <100 · CrAg · Opening Pressure · Delay ART for IRIS
★★★ PANCE PriorityMany Traps
Etiology & Pathophysiology
  • Encapsulated yeast found in soil and pigeon droppings
  • Inhaled → pulmonary infection → hematogenous dissemination to the CNS
  • Risk at CD4 <100 cells/mm³; also transplant recipients and patients on high-dose corticosteroids
  • The polysaccharide capsule is the major virulence factor — it inhibits phagocytosis and it is what the antigen test detects
Clinical Presentation
  • Subacute meningitis: headache is the most common symptom, with fever, altered mental status, and often subtle or absent neck stiffness
  • Elevated intracranial pressure: papilledema, cranial nerve palsies, nausea and vomiting
  • Disseminated disease: umbilicated skin papules resembling molluscum contagiosum
  • Pulmonary disease: cough, dyspnea, nodules or infiltrates
  • The presentation is indolent, so patients often present after weeks of headache
Diagnosis
  • Serum and CSF cryptococcal antigen (CrAg): sensitivity and specificity both above 95% — the single best test
  • ALWAYS measure the CSF opening pressure, often above 25 cm H₂O
  • CSF: lymphocytic pleocytosis (which may be minimal in AIDS because there are few lymphocytes to recruit), low glucose, elevated protein
  • India ink: encapsulated yeast with narrow-based budding — roughly 60–80% sensitive
  • Culture on Sabouraud agar, growing in 3–7 days
Management
  • Induction: liposomal amphotericin B + flucytosine IV for at least 2 weeks
  • Consolidation: fluconazole 400 mg PO daily × 8 weeks
  • Maintenance: fluconazole 200 mg PO daily for at least 12 months; discontinue when CD4 >100 for 3 months with an undetectable viral load
  • Elevated intracranial pressure is managed with SERIAL therapeutic lumbar punctures, targeting an opening pressure below 20 cm H₂O; ventriculoperitoneal shunt if refractory
  • Delay ART initiation by 4–6 weeks to reduce the risk of immune reconstitution inflammatory syndrome
⚑ Board Traps — Cryptococcal Meningitis
  • Elevated intracranial pressure, not the fungus, is the leading cause of death. The correct intervention is serial lumbar puncture — not mannitol, not steroids, not acetazolamide
  • Do NOT start ART immediately. This is the one opportunistic infection where ART is deliberately deferred, and "start ART today" is the trap
  • Minimal CSF pleocytosis does not exclude the diagnosis in advanced AIDS
  • Neck stiffness is frequently absent — a normal neck examination does not rule this out
  • Narrow-based budding is Cryptococcus; broad-based budding is Blastomyces
  • Umbilicated papules in advanced HIV may be disseminated Cryptococcus, not molluscum
★ Memory Trick
Crypto = Cap and Pressure — the capsule makes the diagnosis, the pressure kills the patient Tap it, tap it again — serial LPs Narrow-based = Neoformans; Broad-based = Blastomyces
Tier 1
Module 22
Candidiasis (Candida species)
Thrush vs Esophagitis · AIDS-Defining at Any CD4 · pH <4.5 · Echinocandins for Invasive Candidiasis
★★★ PANCE Priority
Etiology & Pathophysiology
  • C. albicans is most common; also C. glabrata, C. tropicalis, C. krusei, and the emerging multidrug-resistant C. auris
  • A normal commensal of the gastrointestinal tract, oral mucosa, and vagina — disease reflects host change, not new acquisition
  • Risk factors: HIV, diabetes, antibiotics, corticosteroids, and other immunosuppression
Clinical Presentation
  • Oropharyngeal (thrush): white curd-like plaques on buccal mucosa, palate, and tongue that scrape off leaving an erythematous base; may be the first sign of HIV
  • Esophageal candidiasis is AIDS-defining: odynophagia, dysphagia, retrosternal chest pain; endoscopy shows white plaques and exudates
  • Vulvovaginal: thick white "cottage cheese" discharge, vulvar pruritus, erythema, dysuria, vaginal pH below 4.5
  • Invasive candidiasis: candidemia, endocarditis, and endophthalmitis — in ICU patients with central lines, total parenteral nutrition, and broad-spectrum antibiotics
Diagnosis
  • Oropharyngeal: clinical; KOH preparation shows pseudohyphae and budding yeast if confirmation is needed
  • Esophageal: in a patient with HIV, thrush plus odynophagia is treated empirically with fluconazole. Endoscopy is reserved for non-responders
  • Vulvovaginal: KOH with pseudohyphae plus pH below 4.5 — the normal pH is what separates it from bacterial vaginosis and trichomoniasis
  • Invasive: blood cultures, (1→3) beta-D-glucan, T2Candida panel. Every patient with candidemia needs a dilated ophthalmologic examination
Management
  • Oropharyngeal: fluconazole 200 mg PO once, then 100 mg daily × 7–14 days; topical nystatin or clotrimazole troches for mild disease
  • Esophageal: fluconazole 200–400 mg PO or IV daily × 14–21 days — systemic therapy is required, never topical
  • Vulvovaginal, uncomplicated: fluconazole 150 mg PO × 1, or a topical azole × 3–7 days
  • Vulvovaginal, recurrent (≥4 per year): fluconazole 150 mg PO weekly × 6 months
  • Invasive: an echinocandin (micafungin, caspofungin, anidulafungin) is first-line, with step-down to fluconazole once susceptibility is known and the patient is stable
  • C. auris: often pan-resistant — echinocandins preferred, with strict contact precautions
⚑ Board Traps — Candidiasis
  • Esophageal candidiasis is AIDS-defining regardless of CD4 count. Oropharyngeal thrush alone is not
  • Topical therapy cannot treat esophageal disease — nystatin swish-and-swallow is the wrong answer
  • Do not scope first. In HIV with thrush and odynophagia, treat empirically and scope only if there is no response
  • Vaginal candidiasis has a NORMAL pH below 4.5 — an elevated pH points to bacterial vaginosis or trichomoniasis
  • C. krusei is intrinsically fluconazole-resistant, so fluconazole step-down requires species identification
  • Candidemia is never a contaminant. It requires treatment, line removal, and an eye examination
★ Memory Trick
Plaques that scrape = Candida; plaques that do not scrape = oral hairy leukoplakia (EBV) Esophagus = AIDS-defining; mouth = not Candida keeps the pH normal — it is the only one of the three vaginitides that does
Invasive Fungal Infection — Pattern Recognition Beyond Candida

Invasive candidiasis alongside the moulds and endemic mycoses, with the imaging sign, antigen test, and first-line antifungal for each. Invasive aspergillosis appears only here — it is the one invasive fungal infection without its own module.

High-Yield Pattern Recognition
OrganismEpidemiologyClassic PresentationDxTreatment
Candida (mucosal)Antibiotics, corticosteroids, DM, dentures, immunocompromisedOral thrush: white plaques (scrape off → raw surface). Esophageal: odynophagia + dysphagia.Clinical (oral); EGD (esophageal)Oral: nystatin. Esophageal: fluconazole × 14–21d.
Invasive CandidiasisICU, TPN, broad-spectrum ABx, central venous catheter, abdominal surgeryFever unresponsive to antibiotics in ICU. Can cause endophthalmitis.Blood cultures (50% sensitive). β-D-glucan. Fundoscopic exam mandatory in ALL candidemic patients.Echinocandin FIRST-LINE (caspofungin, micafungin). Fluconazole if stable + susceptible. Remove CVC.
CoccidioidomycosisSouthwest US (AZ, CA, TX). Soil/dust exposure.Primary "Valley Fever": flu-like + cough + erythema nodosum/multiforme. Disseminated (immunocompromised): meningitis, bone/joint.Serology (IgM early, IgG late). Sputum culture.Mild: fluconazole. Severe: amphotericin B → fluconazole. Meningitis: LIFELONG fluconazole (100% relapse if stopped).
HistoplasmosisOhio/Mississippi river valleys; bird/bat droppings; caves. CD4 <150 = prophylaxis with itraconazole.Mimics TB. Progressive disseminated (immunocompromised): fever, weight loss, hepatosplenomegaly, oral ulcers, pancytopenia.Urine histoplasma antigen (BEST for acute disseminated). Serology.Mild: itraconazole. Moderate-severe: amphotericin B → itraconazole.
Antifungal Drug Selection — Quick Reference
  • Azoles (fluconazole, voriconazole, itraconazole, posaconazole): Broad fungistatic activity. Multiple CYP drug interactions (tacrolimus, warfarin, statins).
  • Amphotericin B (liposomal preferred): Broadest spectrum — reserved for severe/refractory. Major toxicities: nephrotoxicity, infusion reactions, hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia.
⚑ Board Traps — Fungal Infections
  • Echinocandin first-line for invasive candidiasis — not fluconazole empirically (Candida resistance concerns)
  • CT "halo sign" = early invasive aspergillosis in neutropenic patient — start voriconazole empirically
  • Coccidioidomycosis meningitis = LIFELONG fluconazole — 100% relapse rate if stopped
  • Histoplasma urine antigen is best for acute disseminated disease — more sensitive than serology in acute illness
  • Fundoscopic exam mandatory in ALL candidemic patients — Candida endophthalmitis causes blindness
  • Azoles are potent CYP inhibitors — check all drug interactions before prescribing

📚 Invasive aspergillosis and ABPA are taught in the Pulmonary syllabus — see Pulmonary Module 18 — Pulmonary Fungal Infections for the halo sign, galactomannan, and voriconazole.

Tier 1
Module 23
Tuberculosis in HIV — What Changes
TST ≥5 mm in HIV · Atypical Radiograph · ART Timing · Rifabutin Substitution · IRIS
★★★ PANCE PriorityMany Traps

📚 Tuberculosis is now taught in full in the Pulmonary syllabus. The organism, TST and IGRA cutoffs, latent-versus-active decision-making, RIPE therapy, drug toxicities, extrapulmonary forms, and public health reporting are all worked in Pulmonary Module 8 — Tuberculosis. This module keeps only what is specific to the patient with HIV.

TB in the Patient with HIV — What Changes
  • HIV is the single strongest risk factor for progression from latent infection to active disease — roughly a 10% annual risk versus a 10% lifetime risk in the immunocompetent host
  • The TST cutoff drops to ≥5 mm in HIV, because the most immunosuppressed patients mount the weakest reaction. Screen every patient with HIV at diagnosis, by TST or IGRA, at any CD4 count
  • A negative TST or IGRA does not exclude active TB — anergy causes false negatives in up to a quarter of active cases, and the rate is higher at low CD4
  • The chest radiograph misleads in advanced HIV: lower lobe disease, absent cavitation, miliary pattern, or a normal film. Extrapulmonary and disseminated TB are far more common
  • ART timing: start antiretrovirals within 2 weeks if CD4 <50, and within 8 weeks if CD4 ≥50 — earlier than that raises IRIS risk, later raises mortality
  • Watch for IRIS — paradoxical worsening of TB after ART begins. Continue both treatments; add corticosteroids for severe cases
  • Substitute rifabutin for rifampin with most antiretroviral regimens. Rifampin is a potent CYP450 inducer and collapses antiretroviral levels
  • Latent TB is treated at any CD4 count — it is the one prophylaxis indication with no threshold. Exclude active disease first
⚑ Board Traps — TB with HIV
  • 5 mm is the cutoff in HIV — applying the 10 or 15 mm threshold to a patient with HIV is the classic false negative.
  • A normal chest film does not exclude TB in advanced HIV. If the suspicion is real, get sputum for AFB smear, culture, and NAAT.
  • Rifabutin, not rifampin, in a patient on antiretrovirals.
  • Do not delay ART to finish TB therapy — the windows are 2 weeks and 8 weeks by CD4, not "after TB treatment completes."
  • Worsening after starting ART is usually IRIS, not treatment failure — do not stop either regimen.
★ Memory Trick
"Five for HIV" — the smallest cutoff for the weakest immune response "Two and eight" — ART within 2 weeks if CD4 under 50, within 8 weeks if 50 or above Rifa-BUT-in — use it when the patient is on ART Worse after ART = IRIS, not failure
Tier 1
Module 24
Herpes Zoster and Varicella in the Immunocompromised
Hutchinson Sign · Ramsay Hunt · Dissemination Criteria · Shingrix
★★★ PANCE PriorityMany Traps
Etiology & Pathophysiology
  • Varicella-zoster virus (HHV-3) establishes latency in the dorsal root and cranial nerve ganglia
  • Reactivation produces herpes zoster in a dermatomal distribution
  • Both incidence and severity rise with immunosuppression — HIV, transplantation, chemotherapy, and advancing age
Clinical Presentation
  • Classic zoster: painful grouped vesicles in a single dermatome that does NOT cross the midline; thoracic dermatomes are most common
  • Prodrome of pain, burning, or itching precedes the rash by days — and can mimic angina, cholecystitis, or renal colic depending on the dermatome
  • Herpes zoster ophthalmicus: V1 involvement. Hutchinson sign — vesicles on the tip or side of the nose, indicating nasociliary nerve involvement and high risk of ocular disease. Urgent ophthalmology referral.
  • Ramsay Hunt syndrome (herpes zoster oticus): reactivation in the geniculate ganglion of the facial nerve → vesicles in the external auditory canal or on the auricle + ipsilateral facial nerve palsy, often with CN VIII involvement causing sensorineural hearing loss and vertigo
  • Immunocompromised: multidermatomal or disseminated disease (more than 20 vesicles outside the primary and adjacent dermatomes), plus visceral involvement — pneumonia, hepatitis, encephalitis
  • Post-herpetic neuralgia: pain persisting beyond 90 days; risk rises sharply with age
Diagnosis
  • Typical dermatomal zoster is a clinical diagnosis
  • PCR of vesicle fluid is the preferred confirmatory test when the presentation is atypical or disseminated
  • Direct fluorescent antibody or viral culture are alternatives
  • Tzanck smear shows multinucleated giant cells but cannot distinguish VZV from HSV
Management
  • Immunocompetent: valacyclovir 1 g PO TID × 7 days, ideally started within 72 hours of rash onset; or acyclovir 800 mg PO five times daily × 7 days
  • Immunocompromised, disseminated, or visceral disease: acyclovir 10 mg/kg IV q8h
  • Post-herpetic neuralgia: gabapentin, pregabalin, tricyclic antidepressants, capsaicin, lidocaine patches
  • Prevention: Shingrix, recombinant adjuvanted vaccine, 2 doses — recommended at age 50 and above, and for immunocompromised adults 19 and above. Efficacy above 90%
⚑ Board Traps — VZV
  • Hutchinson sign is an ophthalmologic emergency — nose-tip vesicles mean the eye is at risk even before visual symptoms appear
  • Ramsay Hunt is a facial nerve (CN VII) syndrome from the geniculate ganglion — ear vesicles plus facial palsy. It is not a trigeminal syndrome, and it is distinguished from Bell palsy by the vesicles
  • Immunocompromised patients get IV acyclovir, not oral valacyclovir
  • The 72-hour window is a target, not a cutoff — still treat immunocompromised or ophthalmic disease presenting later
  • Shingrix is a recombinant, non-live vaccine, so it is safe in immunocompromised patients; live Zostavax is no longer available in the US
  • Disseminated zoster in an immunocompromised patient looks like varicella — and warrants airborne plus contact precautions
★ Memory Trick
Hutchinson's nose → call the eye doctor Ramsay Hunt: ear vesicles + facial droop — Bell palsy with a rash is never Bell palsy Over 20 vesicles off-dermatome = disseminated
Tier 2
Module 25
Histoplasmosis (Histoplasma capsulatum)
Ohio and Mississippi Valleys · Intracellular Yeast · Urine Antigen · Mimics TB
★★ PANCE Priority
Etiology & Pathophysiology
  • Dimorphic fungus: mold in the environment at 25°C, yeast at body temperature
  • Endemic to the Ohio and Mississippi River valleys; associated with bird and bat droppings — caves, chicken coops, demolition sites
  • Inhaled → phagocytosed by macrophages → survives and replicates intracellularly → may disseminate
  • Disseminated disease risk at CD4 <150 cells/mm³
Clinical Presentation
  • Acute pulmonary: flu-like illness, self-limited in immunocompetent hosts
  • Chronic pulmonary: mimics tuberculosis with upper lobe cavitary disease
  • Disseminated histoplasmosis is AIDS-defining: fever, weight loss, hepatosplenomegaly, pancytopenia, mucocutaneous ulcers of the palate and tongue, and adrenal insufficiency
  • Mediastinal lymphadenopathy, with mediastinal fibrosis as a late complication
Diagnosis
  • Urine and serum Histoplasma antigen is the most sensitive test for disseminated disease — note that it cross-reacts with Blastomyces
  • Peripheral smear or bone marrow biopsy: small yeast INSIDE macrophages
  • Serology by complement fixation and immunodiffusion (H and M bands) — less useful in immunosuppression
  • Culture is definitive but slow at 2–4 weeks and requires biosafety level 3
  • Methenamine silver or PAS staining on tissue
Management
  • Mild to moderate: itraconazole 200 mg PO TID × 3 days, then BID × 12 months
  • Severe or disseminated: liposomal amphotericin B × 1–2 weeks, then step down to itraconazole × 12 months
  • Prophylaxis: itraconazole 200 mg daily if CD4 <150 in an endemic area — less commonly needed now that ART is started promptly
  • Monitor itraconazole levels — absorption is erratic and requires gastric acid
⚑ Board Traps — Histoplasmosis
  • Small yeast inside macrophages is Histoplasma; large encapsulated extracellular yeast is Cryptococcus
  • Pancytopenia plus hepatosplenomegaly plus oral ulcers in advanced HIV is disseminated histoplasmosis, not lymphoma
  • Adrenal insufficiency is a classic and easily missed complication — check for hyponatremia and hyperkalemia
  • The urine antigen cross-reacts with Blastomyces, so geography and morphology still matter
  • Itraconazole needs an acidic stomach — proton pump inhibitors cause treatment failure
★ Memory Trick
Histo hides Inside macrophages Ohio and Mississippi, birds and bats Mimics TB on film, mimics lymphoma on labs

📚 The chronic cavitary pulmonary form of histoplasmosis is taught in Pulmonary Module 18 — Pulmonary Fungal Infections. This module covers it as an opportunistic infection, anchored to the CD4 threshold.

Tier 2
Module 26
Coccidioidomycosis (Coccidioides immitis / posadasii)
Valley Fever · Spherules with Endospores · Erythema Nodosum · Lifelong Fluconazole for Meningitis
★★ PANCE Priority
Etiology & Pathophysiology
  • Dimorphic fungus: mold in soil producing arthroconidia that are inhaled and convert to spherules containing endospores in tissue
  • Endemic to the southwestern US — Arizona and California's San Joaquin Valley — and northern Mexico. Hence "Valley Fever"
  • Higher risk of dissemination: immunocompromise, pregnancy (especially third trimester), and patients of Filipino and African ancestry; also diabetes
Clinical Presentation
  • Acute pulmonary Valley Fever: flu-like illness with cough, chest pain, and fever — often mistaken for community-acquired pneumonia that fails antibiotics
  • Erythema nodosum or erythema multiforme ("desert rheumatism") indicates a robust immune response and therefore a BETTER prognosis
  • Chronic pulmonary: thin-walled cavities
  • Disseminated disease: verrucous skin lesions and ulcers, bone and joint involvement, and basilar meningitis with CSF eosinophilia
Diagnosis
  • Serology: IgM by tube precipitin for acute disease; IgG by complement fixation, where TITERS CORRELATE WITH DISEASE SEVERITY and are followed serially
  • Tissue biopsy showing spherules filled with endospores is pathognomonic
  • Culture grows on Sabouraud agar but is highly infectious to laboratory staff — biosafety level 3, and the laboratory must be warned
  • CSF: complement-fixing antibodies plus eosinophilic pleocytosis
Management
  • Mild pulmonary disease in an immunocompetent host: observation — most cases resolve without antifungals
  • Moderate to severe pulmonary: fluconazole or itraconazole
  • Disseminated, non-meningeal: amphotericin B, then step down to an azole
  • Meningeal disease: high-dose fluconazole, LIFELONG — azoles penetrate CSF and relapse is the rule if therapy stops
  • Pregnancy: amphotericin B, because azoles are teratogenic
⚑ Board Traps — Coccidioidomycosis
  • Erythema nodosum is a GOOD prognostic sign here — students reflexively read rash as severity
  • Coccidioidal meningitis requires lifelong fluconazole; stopping therapy causes relapse. There is no "complete the course" answer
  • Pregnancy flips the drug to amphotericin B — fluconazole is teratogenic
  • Eosinophils in the CSF should make you think fungal, specifically Coccidioides
  • Most mild pulmonary disease needs no antifungal — treating everyone is a distractor
  • Warn the microbiology laboratory — the mold form is a genuine occupational hazard
★ Memory Trick
Spherules with endospores — a fungal ball packed with seeds Rash = good news in Valley Fever Meningitis = fluconazole forever

📚 The pulmonary presentation of coccidioidomycosis is taught in Pulmonary Module 18 — Pulmonary Fungal Infections. This module covers it as an opportunistic infection, anchored to the CD4 threshold.

Tier 2
Module 27
Progressive Multifocal Leukoencephalopathy (PML)
JC Virus · Non-Enhancing White Matter · No Mass Effect · Natalizumab Warning
★★ PANCE Priority
Etiology & Pathophysiology
  • JC virus, a polyomavirus, is ubiquitous — most adults are already seropositive, so PML reflects reactivation, not acquisition
  • Reactivation with severe immunosuppression: CD4 <200, and with natalizumab or rituximab
  • Lytic infection of oligodendrocytes → demyelination of white matter — which explains the absence of inflammation, enhancement, and mass effect
Clinical Presentation
  • Subacute, progressive, focal neurologic deficits: hemiparesis, visual field loss (homonymous hemianopia), cognitive decline, aphasia, ataxia
  • NO fever, NO mass effect, NO contrast enhancement — the negatives are the diagnosis
  • Rapidly progressive and often fatal without immune reconstitution
Diagnosis
  • MRI: asymmetric, NON-enhancing white matter lesions without mass effect or edema; T2/FLAIR hyperintense, typically subcortical
  • CSF JC virus PCR — roughly 70–90% sensitive and highly specific
  • Brain biopsy is definitive: demyelination with bizarre astrocytes and intranuclear inclusions within oligodendrocytes
Management
  • There is no specific antiviral for JC virus
  • The treatment is immune reconstitution — initiate or optimize ART
  • Natalizumab-associated PML: stop the drug and use plasma exchange to remove it
  • Watch for IRIS — paradoxical worsening after ART initiation, which may require corticosteroids
  • Prognosis remains poor; median survival is roughly 6 months without immune recovery
⚑ Board Traps — PML
  • Non-enhancing lesions without mass effect separate PML from toxoplasmosis and lymphoma, both of which enhance
  • There is no antiviral to give. A stem offering ganciclovir, acyclovir, or cidofovir is testing whether you know the answer is ART
  • Natalizumab carries an FDA boxed warning for PML — new neurologic deficits in a multiple sclerosis patient on natalizumab is the classic non-HIV presentation
  • Afebrile is the rule — fever should redirect you toward an infectious mass lesion
  • Worsening after starting ART may be IRIS, not treatment failure
★ Memory Trick
PML = Plain, Motionless Lesions — no enhancement, no mass effect, no fever JC virus, Just CD4 — the only therapy is raising the CD4 Natalizumab → watch the white matter
Tier 2
Module 28
Kaposi Sarcoma
HHV-8 · Violaceous Lesions · Visceral Involvement · ART as Cornerstone
★★ PANCE Priority
Etiology & Pathophysiology
  • Human herpesvirus 8 (HHV-8, also called KSHV) is a necessary cause of every form of Kaposi sarcoma
  • A vascular neoplasm of endothelial origin
  • Four epidemiologic types: AIDS-related (most common), classic (elderly men of Mediterranean or Ashkenazi descent), endemic (sub-Saharan Africa), and iatrogenic (post-transplant)
Clinical Presentation
  • Skin: violaceous, purple-red, NON-blanching macules, papules, plaques, or nodules, typically painless and anywhere on the body
  • Oral involvement, especially the palate, is common and may be the presenting site
  • Visceral disease: gastrointestinal tract (bleeding, obstruction) and pulmonary involvement (nodules, effusions, respiratory failure)
  • Lymphedema from lymphatic obstruction
Diagnosis
  • Skin biopsy: spindle-shaped cells with vascular slits, extravasated erythrocytes, and HHV-8 immunostaining (LANA-1)
  • Chest radiography or CT if pulmonary involvement is suspected
  • Endoscopy for gastrointestinal symptoms — lesions bleed, so biopsy is often deferred
Management
  • ART initiation or optimization is the cornerstone of AIDS-related disease — many lesions regress with immune recovery alone
  • Limited cutaneous disease: intralesional vinblastine, radiation, cryotherapy, or topical alitretinoin
  • Disseminated or visceral disease: liposomal doxorubicin is first-line; paclitaxel is an alternative
  • Monitor for KS-IRIS — paradoxical worsening after ART initiation
⚑ Board Traps — Kaposi Sarcoma
  • Violaceous, non-blanching lesions in a patient with HIV are Kaposi sarcoma until proven otherwise — bacillary angiomatosis is the main mimic and is treated with erythromycin or doxycycline
  • ART alone can produce regression; chemotherapy is not the first answer for limited cutaneous disease
  • HHV-8 causes all four types, not only the AIDS-related form
  • HHV-8 also causes primary effusion lymphoma and multicentric Castleman disease
  • Kaposi sarcoma is not strictly CD4-dependent — it can appear at relatively preserved counts
★ Memory Trick
8 is for Kaposi — HHV-8 Purple, painless, non-blanching Start ART; the lesions may leave on their own
Section IV · Modules 29–33
High-Yield Comparison Tables
Five side-by-side tables for the differentials that generate the most single-best-answer questions: genital ulcers, the CD4 ladder, tick-borne disease, vaginal discharge, and esophageal lesions in HIV.
Tier 1
Module 29
STI Comparison Tables — Ulcers, Discharge and CDC 2021 Treatment
Genital Ulcers · Urethral & Vaginal Discharge · CDC 2021 First-Line Treatment · The LGV Exception
★★★ PANCE PriorityMany Traps
How This Table Is Tested

Nearly every genital ulcer question resolves on two variables: is the ulcer painful, and are the nodes painful? Learn the pairing first, then the exceptions. Syphilis is painless-painless. Chancroid is painful-painful. LGV breaks the pattern with a painless ulcer and painful buboes.

The Five Genital Ulcers
DiseasePathogenUlcerPainLymphadenopathyDiagnosisTreatment
Syphilis (primary)T. pallidumClean base, indurated borderPainlessPainless, bilateralDarkfield; RPR/VDRL then FTA-ABSBenzathine penicillin G IM
HerpesHSV-1, HSV-2Grouped vesicles → shallow ulcersPainfulPainful, bilateralPCR of vesicle fluidValacyclovir or acyclovir
ChancroidH. ducreyiRagged, undermined edgesPainfulPainful, unilateral buboesClinical; culture on special mediaAzithromycin or ceftriaxone
LGVC. trachomatis L1–L3Small, transient papule or ulcerPainlessPainful, unilateral buboesSerology; NAATDoxycycline × 21 days
Granuloma inguinaleK. granulomatisBeefy-red, highly vascularPainlessPseudobuboes — not true nodesDonovan bodies on biopsyAzithromycin × 3+ weeks
⚑ Board Traps — Genital Ulcers
  • Penicillin is the ONLY acceptable syphilis treatment in pregnancy — doxycycline is contraindicated and a penicillin-allergic pregnant patient must be desensitized, never switched.
  • Nontreponemal titers (RPR/VDRL) monitor treatment; treponemal tests (FTA-ABS, TP-PA) stay positive for life and can never judge cure. A fourfold decline defines response.
  • LGV is the pattern-breaker — painless ulcer, painful nodes. It is the single most useful exception to memorize
  • Chancroid buboes are unilateral; syphilitic nodes are bilateral
  • Granuloma inguinale spares the lymph nodes entirely — the swelling is subcutaneous granulation tissue
  • Darkfield is invalid on oral and rectal lesions because of commensal spirochetes
  • Ulcers frequently coexist. A patient with any genital ulcer needs testing for syphilis, HSV, and HIV
★ Memory Trick
Painful ulcer + painful node = chancroid (Ducreyi is dubious) Painless + painless = syphilis (pallidum is placid) LGV = Lymph nodes Go Very tender while the ulcer stays quiet
CDC 2021 Treatment Summary
STIFirst-Line TreatmentKey Change / Board Trap
ChlamydiaDoxycycline 100mg BID × 7 daysDoxy NOW PREFERRED over azithromycin — better efficacy, especially rectal chlamydia
GonorrheaCeftriaxone 500mg IM × 1 (1g if ≥150kg)Azithromycin co-treatment NO LONGER recommended — ceftriaxone MONOTHERAPY
Syphilis — Primary/Secondary/Early LatentBenzathine penicillin G 2.4 MU IM × 1Penicillin ONLY in pregnancy — if allergic, desensitize
Syphilis — Late Latent/Unknown DurationBenzathine penicillin G 2.4 MU IM weekly × 3 (total 7.2 MU)3 weekly doses
NeurosyphilisIV aqueous crystalline penicillin G × 10–14 daysCan occur at ANY stage — evaluate for ocular/otic/neuro symptoms in all syphilis
PIDCeftriaxone 500mg IM + doxycycline × 14d + metronidazole × 14dMetro NOW routinely added for anaerobic coverage (2021 update)
TrichomoniasisWomen: Metro 500mg BID × 7d | Men: 2g × 17-day course preferred for women
Genital herpes (1st episode)Acyclovir 400mg TID × 7–10dValacyclovir 1g BID is an alternative
Urethral & Vaginal Discharge — Full Organism Differential

Gonorrhea vs chlamydia vs non-gonococcal urethritis vs trichomoniasis — presentation, diagnosis, CDC 2021 treatment, and partner management side by side.

STI Presentation and Treatment Comparison
OrganismPresentationDiagnosisTreatment (CDC 2021)Board Key
Neisseria gonorrhoeaePurulent urethral/cervical discharge, dysuria. Men: purulent green/yellow discharge. Women: often asymptomatic.NAAT (most sensitive). Gram stain: intracellular diplococci.Ceftriaxone 500mg IM × 1 (1g if ≥150kg). MONOTHERAPY — no azithromycin added.No fluoroquinolones (widespread resistance). Always test + treat for chlamydia co-infection if not excluded by NAAT.
Chlamydia trachomatisOften asymptomatic (#1 reported STI in US). Mucopurulent discharge, dysuria, cervicitis, PID.NAAT.Doxycycline 100mg BID × 7 days (preferred over azithromycin — lower recurrence rate per 2021 update).Doxycycline now preferred over azithromycin for chlamydia. Major CDC 2021 update boards test directly.
Non-gonococcal urethritis (NGU)Mild discharge, dysuria, usually less purulent than GCNAAT negative for GC/chlamydia. May be Mycoplasma genitalium, Ureaplasma.Doxycycline 100mg BID × 7 days.If recurrent/persistent NGU: test for Mycoplasma genitalium → treat with moxifloxacin if positive.
Trichomonas vaginalisWomen: frothy yellow-green vaginal discharge + "strawberry cervix" + pruritus. Men: often asymptomatic.NAAT or wet prep (motile trichomonads).Metronidazole 2g PO × 1 (or 500mg BID × 7d for recurrent). Treat BOTH partners simultaneously.Concurrent treatment of sex partner is mandatory — very high re-infection rate without partner treatment.
Bacterial Vaginosis (BV)Thin gray-white discharge + fishy odor (worse after sex). Clue cells on wet prep. Whiff test positive.Amsel criteria (3 of 4) or Nugent score.Metronidazole 500mg BID × 7 days OR vaginal metronidazole gel × 5 days.BV is NOT an STI — it's a disruption of normal flora. Male partner treatment does NOT reduce recurrence (unlike trichomonas).
⚑ Board Traps — STIs
  • Gonorrhea: ceftriaxone MONOTHERAPY (no azithromycin co-treatment) — CDC 2021 changed from dual therapy. Azithromycin-resistant gonorrhea has increased. Monotherapy is now standard. If chlamydia cannot be excluded, add doxycycline separately.
  • Chlamydia: doxycycline now preferred over azithromycin — CDC 2021 update. Azithromycin has lower cure rates for rectal chlamydia and more treatment failures.
  • Syphilis in pregnancy: penicillin ONLY, no exceptions — doxycycline is contraindicated in pregnancy. Azithromycin has ~30% failure rate. Even with penicillin allergy, desensitization is mandatory.
  • BV partner treatment does NOT help — unlike trichomonas, treating the male partner does not reduce BV recurrence. This is the opposite of trichomonas management.
  • Disseminated gonococcal infection (DGI): Young sexually active adult + migratory polyarthralgia + tenosynovitis + skin lesions (pustular on erythematous base) = DGI. NAAT and cultures of all sites. IV ceftriaxone × 7 days.
Tier 1
Module 30
Opportunistic Infections by CD4 Count
The Master Threshold Table · Prophylaxis Triggers · Stop Rules
★★★ PANCE PriorityMany Traps
Why This Is the Highest-Yield Table in the Chapter

HIV questions on the PANCE are frequently CD4-anchored: the stem gives a count and a syndrome, and the answer follows from the threshold. Learn the descending ladder as a single sequence rather than as isolated facts.

The CD4 Ladder — What Becomes Possible at Each Threshold
CD4 (cells/mm³)Infections and Malignancies That Become LikelyProphylaxis
< 500Kaposi sarcoma, oral hairy leukoplakia, recurrent bacterial pneumonia, tuberculosis reactivationART — started at any CD4
< 200PCP, coccidioidomycosisTMP-SMX DS daily
< 150Disseminated histoplasmosisItraconazole, endemic areas only
< 100Cerebral toxoplasmosis, cryptococcosisTMP-SMX (only if Toxoplasma IgG positive); no routine cryptococcal prophylaxis
< 50MAC, CMV retinitis, PML, primary CNS lymphomaNone routinely if ART starts promptly

Discontinue PCP and Toxoplasma prophylaxis when CD4 stays above 200 for at least 3 months on ART.

The Stop Rules — Equally Testable
  • PCP prophylaxis: stop when CD4 >200 for ≥3 months on ART
  • Toxoplasma prophylaxis: stop when CD4 >200 for ≥3 months on ART
  • MAC and cryptococcal secondary prophylaxis: stop when CD4 >100 for ≥3 months with treated disease
  • CMV: no primary prophylaxis exists — the intervention is ART
  • Latent TB is screened and treated at ANY CD4 count — it is the one indication with no threshold
⚑ Board Traps — CD4 Thresholds
  • Routine MAC prophylaxis has been dropped for patients starting ART promptly. Weekly azithromycin is the historical answer, not the current one
  • Toxoplasma prophylaxis requires positive IgG in addition to CD4 <100 — a seronegative patient does not need it
  • TMP-SMX covers PCP and Toxoplasma simultaneously — one drug clears two indications, which is why it is the single most important prophylactic agent in HIV care
  • Esophageal candidiasis and tuberculosis are AIDS-defining at ANY CD4, so a normal count does not exclude AIDS
  • Prophylaxis is stopped on sustained CD4 recovery, not on viral suppression alone
★ Memory Trick
Descending ladder: 200 PCP → 150 Histo → 100 Toxo and Crypto → 50 MAC, CMV, PML, Lymphoma One drug, two bugs: TMP-SMX for PCP and Toxoplasma Everything stops at 200 for 3 months except MAC and Crypto, which stop at 100 for 3 months
Tier 1
Module 31
Tick-Borne Disease — Side-by-Side Comparison
Vector · Region · Smear Finding · The Two Non-Doxycycline Exceptions
★★★ PANCE Priority
The Six Tick-Borne Diseases
DiseasePathogenVectorRegionKey FindingRashTreatment
LymeB. burgdorferiIxodes scapularisNortheast, upper MidwestErythema migransBull's-eyeDoxycycline
RMSFR. rickettsiiDermacentorSoutheast, south-centralVasculitis; hyponatremiaWrists/ankles → trunkDoxycycline
EhrlichiosisE. chaffeensisLone Star tickSoutheast, south-centralMorulae in monocytesUp to 30%Doxycycline
AnaplasmosisA. phagocytophilumIxodes scapularisNortheast, upper MidwestMorulae in granulocytesRareDoxycycline
BabesiosisB. microtiIxodes scapularisNortheast, upper MidwestMaltese cross; hemolysisNoneAtovaquone + azithromycin
TularemiaF. tularensisDermacentor; rabbitsWidespreadUlceroglandularVariableStreptomycin or gentamicin
⚑ Board Traps — Tick-Borne Disease
  • Doxycycline treats every tick-borne disease in this table EXCEPT babesiosis and tularemia. The commonly repeated "doxycycline for all tick-borne illness" shortcut has two exceptions, not one
  • The Ixodes tick carries three diseases — Lyme, anaplasmosis, and babesiosis — so co-infection is expected and a patient failing doxycycline may have babesiosis
  • Rash direction distinguishes RMSF: centripetal, from wrists and ankles inward
  • Morulae cell type is the whole question: monocytes for Ehrlichia, granulocytes for Anaplasma
  • Hemolytic anemia points only to babesiosis among the Ixodes-borne infections
★ Memory Trick
One tick, three diseases: Ixodes = Lyme, Anaplasma, Babesia ("LAB") Two exceptions to doxycycline: Babesia and Tularemia Dermacentor carries the Deadly one (RMSF)
Tier 1
Module 32
Vaginal Discharge — Side-by-Side Comparison
pH as the First Discriminator · Wet Mount Findings · Partner Treatment
★★★ PANCE Priority
The Three Vaginitides
FeatureBacterial VaginosisVulvovaginal CandidiasisTrichomoniasis
DischargeThin, gray-white, homogeneousThick, white, cottage-cheeseFrothy, yellow-green
OdorFishy — whiff test positiveNoneMalodorous
pH> 4.5< 4.5 — normal> 4.5
Wet mountClue cellsKOH: pseudohyphae and budding yeastMotile trichomonads
InflammationMinimal — no vulvar irritationProminent pruritus and erythemaVariable; strawberry cervix
TreatmentMetronidazoleFluconazole or topical azoleMetronidazole
Treat partner?NoNoYes
⚑ Board Traps — Vaginal Discharge
  • Candidiasis is the only one with a normal pH. If the stem gives pH <4.5, yeast is the answer
  • Only trichomoniasis requires partner treatment — it is the only true STI of the three
  • Absence of vulvar inflammation points to bacterial vaginosis
  • Metronidazole is safe in pregnancy for both bacterial vaginosis and trichomoniasis
  • Trichomoniasis dosing differs by sex: 7 days for women, single 2 g dose for men
★ Memory Trick
Check the pH first — it splits the three in one step Clue cells, Cottage cheese, Corkscrew swimmers — BV, Candida, Trichomonas Only Trich brings a partner
Tier 1
Module 33
Esophageal Ulcer and Lesion Differential in HIV
Plaques vs Large Shallow vs Small Deep · Inclusion Bodies · When to Scope
★★ PANCE Priority
Four Causes, Four Appearances
PathogenEndoscopic AppearanceDiagnosisTreatment
CandidaWhite plaques and pseudomembranesClinical in HIV; endoscopy only if refractoryFluconazole
CMVLarge, shallow, linear ulcersBiopsy: owl's eye inclusionsGanciclovir or valganciclovir
HSVSmall, deep, well-circumscribed ulcersBiopsy: Cowdry type A inclusions, multinucleated giant cellsAcyclovir or valacyclovir
Aphthous (idiopathic)Large, deep ulcers of the mid-to-distal esophagusDiagnosis of exclusionCorticosteroids; thalidomide
The Diagnostic Sequence
  • Step 1: thrush plus odynophagia in a patient with HIV → treat empirically with fluconazole. Do not scope first
  • Step 2: no response after 3–7 days → upper endoscopy with biopsy to look for CMV, HSV, or aphthous ulceration
  • Step 3: match the inclusion body — owl's eye is CMV, Cowdry type A is HSV
  • Fluconazole-refractory candidiasis also raises the possibility of a non-albicans species such as C. krusei
⚑ Board Traps — Esophageal Disease in HIV
  • Endoscopy is not the first step when thrush and odynophagia coexist — empiric fluconazole is
  • Large and shallow is CMV; small and deep is HSV. The size-depth pairing is the discriminator and it is asked directly
  • Owl's eye is CMV; Cowdry type A is HSV or VZV
  • Esophageal candidiasis is AIDS-defining; oropharyngeal thrush is not
  • Topical antifungals never treat esophageal disease
★ Memory Trick
CMV = Crater, wide and shallow; HSV = Hole, small and deep Owl's eye watches for CMV; Cowdry for HSV Treat, then scope
Section V · Modules 34–35
Screening and Prevention
Who to screen, how often, and which vaccine at which age — including the 2023 shift to universal adult hepatitis B screening and the HPV dose count that depends on age at first dose.
Tier 1
Module 34
STI and Viral Hepatitis Screening Recommendations
USPSTF and CDC · Who, When, How Often · Universal Adult Hepatitis Screening
★★★ PANCE PriorityUpdated 2023
Bacterial STIs
  • Chlamydia and gonorrhea: all sexually active women under 25 annually; older women with risk factors; MSM at all sites of contact at least annually; all persons with HIV annually
  • Syphilis: all pregnant patients at the first prenatal visit; MSM at least annually; anyone at increased risk. Repeat in the third trimester and at delivery in high-prevalence settings
HIV
  • All persons aged 15–65 at least once, regardless of risk
  • All pregnant patients, with repeat testing in the third trimester if at high risk
  • At least annually in persons at ongoing risk; every 3 months for patients on PrEP
Viral Hepatitis
  • Hepatitis B: universal screening of all adults at least once (2023 CDC), plus all pregnant patients, persons with HIV, people who inject drugs, MSM, and persons from endemic regions
  • Hepatitis C: all adults aged 18–79 at least once (USPSTF), and all pregnant patients with every pregnancy
HPV and Cervical Cancer Screening
  • Ages 21–29: cytology alone every 3 years
  • Ages 30–65: cytology plus HPV co-testing every 5 years, primary HPV testing every 5 years, or cytology alone every 3 years
  • Persons with HIV: more frequent cervical screening, plus digital anorectal examination for anal cancer
⚑ Board Traps — Screening
  • HIV screening is universal, not risk-based — everyone 15 to 65 at least once
  • Hepatitis B screening became universal for adults in 2023; risk-based-only screening is the outdated answer
  • Hepatitis C is screened every pregnancy, not once per lifetime, in pregnant patients
  • Extragenital screening in MSM requires swabbing the sites of exposure — urine NAAT alone misses pharyngeal and rectal infection
  • Screening does not stop after HPV vaccination
★ Memory Trick
25 for chlamydia, 15–65 for HIV, 18–79 for hepatitis C Every pregnancy: HIV, syphilis, hepatitis B, hepatitis C MSM: annually, and at every site of contact
Tier 1
Module 35
Immunization Summary for Infectious Disease
HPV · Hepatitis A and B · Shingrix · Meningococcal · Mpox
★★★ PANCE Priority
Vaccines Most Often Tested on the PANCE
VaccineWho and WhenBoard Key
HPV (Gardasil 9)Routine at 11–12 (may start at 9); catch-up through 26; shared decision 27–452 doses if started before 15; 3 doses if 15 or older or immunocompromised
Hepatitis BUniversal infant series; all unvaccinated adults through 59; age 60+ with risk factors3-dose series, or 2-dose Heplisav-B
Hepatitis A2-dose series — MSM, people who inject drugs, chronic liver disease, travel to endemic areasAlso given for post-exposure prophylaxis
Zoster (Shingrix)2 doses at age 50 and above; immunocompromised adults 19 and aboveRecombinant, not live — safe in immunocompromised patients. Efficacy above 90%
MeningococcalMenACWY at 11–12 with a booster at 16; MenB at 16–23 by shared decision or in outbreaksAsplenia, complement deficiency, and college dormitories raise priority
Mpox (JYNNEOS)At-risk populations including MSM and persons with HIVNon-replicating; safe in immunocompromised patients
⚑ Board Traps — Immunization
  • HPV dose count depends on age at the FIRST dose, not current age — under 15 gets two doses
  • Shingrix is recombinant and therefore safe in immunocompromised patients. Live Zostavax is no longer available in the US and is the outdated answer
  • Hepatitis B vaccination is now recommended for all adults through 59 regardless of risk
  • Vaccination is not therapeutic — giving HPV vaccine does not treat existing warts or dysplasia
  • Live vaccines are contraindicated at CD4 <200; Shingrix, hepatitis B, and JYNNEOS are not live and remain acceptable
★ Memory Trick
Under 15 → 2 shots; 15 and up → 3 shots (HPV) Shingrix is recombinant — the x marks "not live" 50 for the general population, 19 if immunocompromised (zoster)
Section VI · Fast Review
30 Rapid-Fire Pearls — Systematic Review
One-line discriminators drawn from all 35 modules above. Use these as a final pass, not as a first pass.
Part 1 · The Core Six
Core PANCE Infectious Disease Topics
The six topics that carry the most weight on the PANCE and PANRE. Work these first, in this order — each opens with pre-read questions, then the full topic card.
Before you beginUTI — Cystitis & Pyelonephritis3 questions
Answer this one before you read the topic. Getting it wrong is expected and useful — attempting a question first is what makes the material below stick. The explanation unlocks only after you submit.
Question 1 of 3 · Medium · Uncomplicated Cystitis Treatment
A 24-year-old healthy, afebrile woman has 2 days of dysuria, frequency, and urgency. Urinalysis shows positive leukocyte esterase, positive nitrites, and 30-50 WBC/hpf. Her first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin. In which clinical scenario would nitrofurantoin be an inappropriate choice, requiring a different antibiotic?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: A — If pyelonephritis were present instead
This patient has uncomplicated cystitis (afebrile, no flank pain, classic lower UTI symptoms), for which nitrofurantoin x5 days or TMP-SMX x3 days are first-line options. However, nitrofurantoin is specifically inappropriate for pyelonephritis (upper UTI) because it does not achieve adequate tissue concentrations in the renal parenchyma — it only concentrates effectively in the bladder/urine, making it ineffective for treating kidney parenchymal infection. A fluoroquinolone or other agent with adequate tissue penetration is needed for pyelonephritis.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • If she had no known allergy to sulfonamide antibiotics — Incorrect. Absence of drug allergies is not a reason to avoid nitrofurantoin — this describes a scenario favoring its use, not contraindicating it.
  • If local nitrofurantoin resistance rates were below 20% — Incorrect. — this describes conditions favorable to nitrofurantoin use (low local resistance supports empiric use), not a contraindication. The 20% resistance threshold concept actually applies to TMP-SMX selection guidance, not as a reason to avoid nitrofurantoin specifically.
  • If her creatinine clearance were normal at above 60 mL/min — Incorrect. — this describes a scenario where nitrofurantoin IS appropriate, not where it should be avoided. Nitrofurantoin should be avoided in significant renal impairment (CrCl <30), not in patients with normal renal function.
  • If she were not pregnant at the time of treatment — Incorrect. Nitrofurantoin is actually considered safe in most stages of pregnancy (with caution near term due to theoretical risk of hemolytic anemia in the newborn) — non-pregnancy status does not contraindicate its use; if anything, pregnancy requires more caution, not less.
Board pearlNitrofurantoin concentrates in urine, not renal tissue, so it treats cystitis and fails pyelonephritis — the single most testable UTI distinction. First-line for uncomplicated cystitis is nitrofurantoin for 5 days, TMP-SMX for 3 days where resistance is under 20%, or fosfomycin as a single dose; fluoroquinolones are held back for pyelonephritis and complicated disease. Fever or flank pain moves the patient out of the cystitis pathway entirely.
Covered below under Topic 1 — UTI, Cystitis & Pyelonephritis
Question 2 of 3 · High Yield · Recurrent UTI — Prevention
A 45-year-old woman reports her third UTI in 5 months. She is otherwise healthy and not pregnant. Urine culture from the current episode grows E. coli susceptible to all tested antibiotics. After treating the acute episode, which of the following is the most appropriate initial step for prevention of recurrence?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: C — Behavioral modification and discussion of nonantibiotic strategies
First, confirm this actually is recurrent UTI: the definition is two or more infections in 6 months, or three or more in 12 months. She meets it. The AUA/CUA/SUFU guideline then puts prevention in a deliberate order — start with behavioral modification (adequate hydration, voiding habits, avoiding spermicides) and a shared decision-making conversation about nonantibiotic options: cranberry products, vaginal estrogen in postmenopausal women, and methenamine hippurate. Antibiotic prophylaxis is a legitimate step, but it comes after that conversation, not instead of it. The exam is testing sequence, not whether prophylaxis exists.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Long-term daily ciprofloxacin prophylaxis — Incorrect, and the worst option here. Fluoroquinolones carry tendinopathy, aortic, and neuropathy risks plus real resistance pressure, so they are not a first-line prophylactic agent in an otherwise healthy woman whose organism is pan-susceptible.
  • CT urogram to evaluate for anatomical abnormalities — Incorrect. Imaging is not routine for recurrent uncomplicated cystitis in women. It earns its place only with red flags — persistent hematuria, obstructive symptoms, stones, or failure to respond to appropriate therapy.
  • Daily nitrofurantoin prophylaxis without further discussion — Incorrect — and this is the strongest distractor, because nitrofurantoin is an appropriate prophylactic agent. What makes it wrong is the phrase without further discussion: continuous antibiotic prophylaxis follows behavioral measures and shared decision-making, and the patient should understand the trade-offs before committing to daily antibiotics.
  • Cystoscopy — Incorrect. Cystoscopy is not recommended for recurrent uncomplicated UTI without concerning features such as persistent hematuria, suspected fistula, or a foreign body.
Board pearlRecurrent UTI is ≥2 in 6 months or ≥3 in 12 months, and the tested point is almost always sequence: behavior and nonantibiotic strategies first, antibiotic prophylaxis second, imaging and cystoscopy only for red flags. When two options are both pharmacologically reasonable, read the qualifier — “without further discussion” is what makes an otherwise correct drug the wrong answer.
Covered below under Topic 1 — UTI, Cystitis & Pyelonephritis
Question 3 of 3 · High Yield · Asymptomatic Bacteriuria
A 70-year-old woman in a nursing facility has a urine culture sent during a routine evaluation. She is afebrile, has no urinary symptoms, and her mental status is at baseline. Culture grows more than 100,000 CFU/mL of E. coli. What is the most appropriate management?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: D — No treatment
A positive culture without symptoms is asymptomatic bacteriuria, and the colony count does not change that — afebrile, asymptomatic, mental status at baseline is the whole answer. Treating ASB does not reduce morbidity or mortality; it drives resistance, C. difficile, and drug adverse effects. There are only two groups you treat: pregnant patients and patients before an invasive urologic procedure with anticipated mucosal bleeding. She is neither. Note also what the exam is baiting: elderly plus positive culture is a classic prompt to reach for antibiotics, and confusion alone in an otherwise stable resident is not sufficient grounds.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Treat with nitrofurantoin for 5 days — Incorrect. Nitrofurantoin is a fine drug for symptomatic cystitis, but there is no infection to treat here. The agent is not the problem; the decision to treat is.
  • Treat with ciprofloxacin for 3 days — Incorrect, and worse than the option above. Beyond being unnecessary, fluoroquinolones in an elderly patient add falls, tendinopathy, QT prolongation, and delirium risk for no benefit.
  • Repeat urine culture in 1 week — Incorrect. Repeating the test cannot change management, because the result itself does not call for action. It also invites treating a second positive culture out of momentum.
  • Obtain renal ultrasound — Incorrect. Imaging has no role in an asymptomatic patient with bacteriuria. Reserve it for suspected obstruction, stones, or a poor response to treatment of genuine infection.
Board pearlDo not culture, and do not treat, asymptomatic bacteriuria — the only exceptions are pregnancy and pre-invasive urologic procedures. Colony count, pyuria, and advancing age are all distractors; the presence or absence of symptoms is the whole decision. Pyuria on urinalysis does not convert ASB into a UTI.
Covered below under Topic 1 — UTI, Cystitis & Pyelonephritis
Tier 1
Topic 1
UTI — Cystitis & Pyelonephritis
2025 IDSA Reclassification · Nitrofurantoin Limitation · ASB Rules · Duration of Therapy · Pregnancy
2025 IDSA Reclassification — What "Complicated" Actually Means

The 2025 IDSA guidelines changed how UTI is classified. Diabetes, immunocompromise, and benign prostatic hyperplasia alone do NOT make a UTI "complicated" if the infection appears confined to the bladder — both men and women can now have uncomplicated UTI.

  • Complicated UTI = infection extending beyond the bladder: pyelonephritis, febrile/bacteremic UTI, or CAUTI
  • Signs of complicated UTI: fever, chills, rigors, hemodynamic instability, flank pain, CVA tenderness

🚨 Classic Trap: A diabetic woman with isolated dysuria and no systemic signs has UNCOMPLICATED cystitis under the 2025 reclassification — don't reflexively label her "complicated" based on her diabetes alone.

Microbiology
OrganismFrequencyKey Notes
E. coli75–90%Most common cause of both uncomplicated and complicated UTI
Klebsiella pneumoniae6–8%Second most common Gram-negative
S. saprophyticus5–6%#2 cause in young sexually active women — classic board question
Proteus mirabilis2–5%Urease-producing → alkaline urine → struvite (staghorn) stones
Enterococcus~5%Intrinsically resistant to cephalosporins
Pseudomonas<5%More common in catheterized/healthcare-associated UTI

🩺 PANCE Pearl: S. saprophyticus is coagulase-negative and novobiocin-RESISTANT — this distinguishes it from S. epidermidis, which is novobiocin-sensitive. A classic board differentiator.

Cystitis vs Pyelonephritis
CystitisPyelonephritis
SymptomsDysuria, frequency, urgency, suprapubic pain. NO fever.Cystitis symptoms + fever, rigors, CVA tenderness, N/V
Culture required?NOT mandatory in non-pregnant women with typical symptomsALWAYS obtain — confirmatory test is ≥10,000 CFU/mL of a uropathogen
First-line RxNitrofurantoin, TMP-SMX, fosfomycin, or pivmecillinamFluoroquinolone (outpatient) or IV ceftriaxone/cefepime/pip-tazo (inpatient)
Nitrofurantoin OK?YES — high urine concentrationNO — inadequate renal tissue levels

🩺 PANCE Pearl: Urine culture is recommended for recurrent UTI, treatment failure, atypical presentation, men, and age ≥65 — even in suspected cystitis.

Urinalysis Interpretation
  • Nitrites: high specificity (~95%) but low sensitivity (~50%) — only produced by Gram-negative Enterobacteriaceae. NOT produced by Enterococcus, Staphylococcus, or Pseudomonas
  • Leukocyte esterase: sensitive but less specific
  • Pyuria alone ≠ UTI — common in elderly with incontinence and in catheterized patients
  • A negative dipstick does NOT rule out UTI in a patient with high pretest probability

🚨 Classic Trap: Sterile pyuria differential — TB of the urinary tract, interstitial nephritis, nephrolithiasis, urethritis (Chlamydia), recently treated UTI, bladder cancer. Don't assume "no growth + WBCs" means lab error.

Imaging — When (and When NOT) to Order It

Uncomplicated pyelonephritis responding to therapy does NOT need imaging. Order CT abdomen/pelvis only for:

  • Sepsis or septic shock
  • Known or suspected urolithiasis
  • Urine pH ≥7.0 (suggests urease-producing organism/obstruction)
  • New GFR decrease to ≤40 mL/min (suggests obstruction)
  • Failure to improve after 48–72 hours of appropriate therapy

CT with contrast detects abscess/gas; CT without contrast detects stones; ultrasound is preferred in pregnancy and is more sensitive for hydronephrosis.

🚨 Classic Trap: Do NOT order imaging for uncomplicated pyelonephritis that is improving on therapy — this is a frequently tested unnecessary-testing trap.

Treatment — Uncomplicated Cystitis (First-Line)
AgentDoseDurationKey Notes
Nitrofurantoin100mg BID5 daysTake with food; avoid if CrCl <30 (label says <60); NEVER for pyelonephritis
TMP-SMX160/800mg BID3 daysOnly if local resistance <20%; avoid if recent use
Fosfomycin3g1 doseConvenient but may be less effective than multi-day regimens
Pivmecillinam400mg TID3 daysRecently FDA-approved in the US for uncomplicated UTI in women

🚨 Classic Trap: Do NOT use amoxicillin or ampicillin empirically — E. coli resistance rates exceed 40%. Fluoroquinolones are NOT first-line for uncomplicated cystitis (reserved for pyelonephritis/invasive infection).

Treatment — Acute Pyelonephritis
  • Outpatient (uncomplicated): Ciprofloxacin 500mg BID × 5–7d, or levofloxacin 750mg daily × 5d, or TMP-SMX × 7–14d (ONLY if susceptibility confirmed)
  • If local fluoroquinolone resistance >10%: give one dose of long-acting parenteral antibiotic (ceftriaxone 1g IV/IM or an aminoglycoside) BEFORE starting oral therapy
  • Inpatient, no sepsis: ceftriaxone, cefepime, piperacillin-tazobactam, or a fluoroquinolone
  • Inpatient with sepsis or ESBL/MDR risk: carbapenems (meropenem, ertapenem), novel beta-lactam/beta-lactamase inhibitors, or cefiderocol

🚨 Classic Trap: TMP-SMX should NOT be used empirically for pyelonephritis — resistance rates approach 20% in many US regions. Use only after susceptibility is confirmed.

Duration of Therapy — 2025 IDSA
SyndromeDuration
Uncomplicated cystitis (women)3–5 days (agent-dependent)
Uncomplicated cystitis (men)7 days
Pyelonephritis (fluoroquinolone)5–7 days
Pyelonephritis (non-fluoroquinolone)7 days
Gram-negative bacteremia, urinary source7 days if afebrile/stable/source controlled
CAUTI7 days (up to 10–14 if slow response)

🩺 PANCE Pearl: Shorter courses (5–7 days) are as effective as longer courses (10–14 days) per meta-analysis — this is a major 2025 update. Men with complicated UTI may still benefit from 10–14 days given occult prostatitis risk.

Special Populations
  • Pregnancy: screen ALL patients with urine culture early in prenatal care; treat ASB if ≥10⁵ CFU/mL. Safe: nitrofurantoin, cephalexin, amoxicillin-clavulanate, fosfomycin. AVOID amoxicillin/ampicillin alone (resistance) and fluoroquinolones (teratogenic). Nitrofurantoin contraindicated at term (38–42 wks — neonatal hemolytic anemia); TMP-SMX avoided in 1st trimester (neural tube defects) and last 8 weeks (kernicterus). Pyelonephritis in pregnancy → ADMIT for IV antibiotics.
  • CAUTI: bacteriuria ≥10³ CFU/mL + symptoms + catheter within 48h. Do NOT treat asymptomatic bacteriuria or obtain cultures in asymptomatic catheterized patients. Management = remove/exchange catheter + systemic antibiotics.
  • Men: UTI is uncommon before age 60 — always obtain culture. Consider occult prostatitis in febrile UTI without flank pain.
⚑ Asymptomatic Bacteriuria — Treat ONLY These Two
  • Pregnancy — reduces risk of pyelonephritis, preterm birth, low birth weight
  • Before endourological procedures with mucosal trauma (TURP, cystoscopy with biopsy)
  • Do NOT treat ASB in: elderly, diabetics, catheterized patients, spinal cord injury, pre-op (non-urologic), renal transplant >1 month post-transplant, or delirium alone without urinary/systemic symptoms

🚨 Classic Trap: Treating ASB in the elderly does NOT reduce mortality, does NOT prevent symptomatic UTI, and INCREASES C. diff risk and antimicrobial resistance. Delirium alone in an elderly patient with bacteriuria should prompt evaluation for OTHER causes of delirium — not reflexive antibiotics.

Recurrent UTI & Prevention

Defined as ≥3 UTIs/year or ≥2 in 6 months. Evidence-based preventive measures:

  • Adequate fluid intake (≥1.5 L/day)
  • Cranberry products (modest benefit)
  • Methenamine hippurate (effective for prevention)
  • Vaginal estrogen in postmenopausal women
  • Antibiotic prophylaxis (continuous low-dose or post-coital) for refractory cases

🩺 PANCE Pearl: "Honeymoon cystitis" — UTI associated with intercourse — responds well to post-coital prophylaxis with a single dose of TMP-SMX or nitrofurantoin.

High-Yield Severe Pyelonephritis Variants
  • Emphysematous pyelonephritis: gas-forming infection, most common in diabetics. CT shows gas in renal parenchyma. Medical emergency — IV antibiotics ± drainage ± nephrectomy.
  • Xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis: chronic destructive granulomatous process, often with Proteus or E. coli and staghorn calculi. CT shows "bear paw sign." Treatment = nephrectomy.
  • Renal cortical abscess (carbuncle): usually hematogenous spread of S. aureus. Perinephric abscess: usually ascending UTI with Gram-negatives. Both may require drainage.
⚑ Board Traps — UTI Summary
  • Nitrofurantoin = CYSTITIS ONLY — does not penetrate renal tissue. Never for pyelonephritis.
  • Fosfomycin = CYSTITIS ONLY — same limitation
  • Fluoroquinolones = FIRST-LINE for pyelonephritis — but NOT for uncomplicated cystitis
  • TMP-SMX resistance >20% in many US regions — do NOT use empirically for pyelo
  • CAUTI: Most represent ASB — treat only if symptomatic. Remove catheter if possible.
  • Proteus mirabilis → urease → alkaline urine (pH >7) → struvite (staghorn) stones
  • Do NOT treat cloudy or malodorous urine in the absence of symptoms
★ Memory Trick
Nitrofurantoin: "Stays in the URINE — perfect for cystitis, NEVER for pyelo (can't reach kidneys)" FQs: "Tissue penetration = pyelo drug" ASB: "Treat only the PREGNANT and PRE-PROCEDURAL — no one else" Nitrofurantoin long-term: can cause pulmonary fibrosis (chronic use) or acute hypersensitivity pneumonitis, plus hepatotoxicity and peripheral neuropathy.
Clinical Vignette
A 28-year-old pregnant woman at 14 weeks has a urine culture showing 100,000 CFU/mL E. coli. She has no dysuria or fever. What is the most appropriate management?
Answer: Treat — asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnancy is one of only two indications to treat ASB. Use nitrofurantoin 100mg BID × 5 days or cephalexin. Avoid nitrofurantoin near term (38–42 weeks) due to neonatal hemolytic anemia risk.
Before you beginHIV/AIDS & Opportunistic Infections3 questions
Answer these three before you read the topic. Getting them wrong is expected and useful — attempting a question first is what makes the material below stick. Each explanation unlocks only after you submit.
Question 1 of 3 · High Yield · HIV · PCP Corticosteroids
A 44-year-old with HIV (CD4 58) has PCP confirmed on BAL. PaO₂ is 55 mmHg on room air. Which is MOST appropriate in addition to TMP-SMX?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: B — Add adjunctive prednisone alongside TMP-SMX
Adjunctive corticosteroids are standard of care for moderate-to-severe PCP when PaO₂ <70 mmHg or A-a gradient >35. Reduces mortality ~50%. Regimen: prednisone 40mg BID × 5d → 40mg daily × 5d → 20mg daily × 11d. Start within 72 hours of TMP-SMX.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Immediate intubation, deferring adjunctive therapy — Incorrect. A PaO₂ of 55 is significant hypoxemia but does not itself mandate intubation in a patient who can be supported with oxygen and steroids. Premature intubation adds ventilator-associated risk.
  • No adjunctive therapy — TMP-SMX alone suffices — Incorrect. Antimicrobial therapy alone misses a major mortality benefit. TMP-SMX causes organism lysis with a resulting inflammatory surge that can transiently worsen oxygenation — steroids blunt this.
  • Add fluconazole for empiric fungal coverage — Incorrect. Although Pneumocystis is taxonomically a fungus, it lacks ergosterol in its membrane and is not susceptible to azoles. Fluconazole has no activity against it.
  • Add rifampin for empiric mycobacterial coverage — Incorrect. There is nothing to suggest mycobacterial disease, and PCP has been confirmed on bronchoalveolar lavage. Rifampin also induces CYP enzymes and interacts extensively with antiretrovirals.
Board pearlAdd prednisone to TMP-SMX when PaO₂ is under 70 mmHg or the A-a gradient exceeds 35 — it roughly halves mortality in moderate-to-severe PCP, and it should start within 72 hours rather than being held in reserve. The mechanism is the same one behind dexamethasone in meningitis: killing the organism releases inflammation that itself injures the lung. Anchor the CD4 thresholds too — PCP prophylaxis below 200, toxoplasmosis below 100, MAC below 50.
Covered below under Topic 2 — HIV/AIDS & Opportunistic Infections · PCP
Question 2 of 3 · High Yield · Cryptococcal Meningitis — Therapeutic LP
A 32-year-old man newly diagnosed with HIV (CD4 68, HIV RNA 240,000) has a 2-week history of headache, fever, and neck stiffness. Cryptococcal meningitis is diagnosed. What urgent procedure must be performed immediately, regardless of antifungal treatment, and why?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: A — Urgent therapeutic lumbar puncture to lower intracranial pressure
In cryptococcal meningitis, elevated intracranial pressure is the primary cause of morbidity and mortality, often more so than the infection itself — many cryptococcal meningitis deaths result from uncontrolled ICP rather than the fungal infection per se. Therapeutic lumbar puncture, performed to lower opening pressure to a target of less than 20 cmH2O, is an urgent and essential intervention that must be performed in addition to (not instead of) antifungal therapy. Treatment includes liposomal amphotericin B plus flucytosine for induction therapy, but ICP management via repeated therapeutic LPs (or other CSF diversion procedures if LPs are insufficient) is equally critical.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Urgent neurosurgical shunt before any antifungal therapy — Incorrect. While shunt placement may eventually be needed in refractory cases of elevated ICP not controlled by repeated therapeutic LPs, it is not the immediate first step — therapeutic LP is the initial urgent intervention, performed alongside (not instead of) starting antifungal therapy.
  • No urgent procedure; liposomal amphotericin plus flucytosine alone — Incorrect. This misses the critical and frequently overlooked concept that ICP management via therapeutic LP is an essential PARALLEL intervention, not something that can be omitted if antifungals are started — failure to address elevated ICP is a leading cause of death even when antifungal therapy is appropriately administered.
  • CT-guided brain biopsy to confirm the diagnosis first — Incorrect. Cryptococcal meningitis diagnosis relies on CSF analysis (cryptococcal antigen testing, India ink staining, fungal culture), not brain biopsy — biopsy is not a standard or necessary diagnostic step and would unnecessarily delay urgent treatment.
  • Urgent dexamethasone, as in bacterial meningitis — Incorrect. Unlike bacterial meningitis, corticosteroids are NOT routinely recommended in cryptococcal meningitis and may even be harmful in some contexts — the priority intervention for elevated ICP in cryptococcal meningitis is therapeutic LP, not steroids.
Board pearlIn cryptococcal meningitis the pressure kills before the fungus does, so a therapeutic lumbar puncture to bring the opening pressure below 20 cmH₂O is urgent, and repeated taps are often needed. Induction is amphotericin B plus flucytosine, then fluconazole consolidation. The counterintuitive part: delay antiretroviral therapy by roughly 4 to 6 weeks, because starting it early risks immune reconstitution inflammatory syndrome in a closed cranial space. Diagnose with CSF cryptococcal antigen, which outperforms India ink.
Covered below under Topic 2 — HIV/AIDS & Opportunistic Infections · CNS infection
Question 3 of 3 · High Yield · HIV · CD4 Thresholds for OI Prophylaxis
A 34-year-old man is newly diagnosed with HIV. His CD4 count is 150 cells/µL and his viral load is 62,000 copies/mL. He is asymptomatic, has a normal chest radiograph, and has no drug allergies. Antiretroviral therapy is being started today. Which opportunistic infection prophylaxis should be initiated at this CD4 count?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: D — TMP-SMX one DS tablet daily for Pneumocystis jirovecii
Primary prophylaxis against Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia is indicated once the CD4 count falls below 200 cells/µL — or when the CD4 percentage is under 14%, or oropharyngeal candidiasis is present regardless of count. At 150 cells/µL this patient is squarely within that window. TMP-SMX one double-strength tablet daily is the agent of choice, and it carries a second advantage worth knowing: the same drug also provides prophylaxis against Toxoplasma gondii, which becomes relevant below 100 cells/µL. Alternatives for sulfa intolerance are dapsone (check G6PD first), atovaquone, or aerosolized pentamidine — and note that pentamidine offers no toxoplasmosis coverage. Prophylaxis may be discontinued once ART has raised the CD4 count above 200 cells/µL and held it there for at least 3 months.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • No prophylaxis — ART alone suffices at this CD4 count — Incorrect, and the clinically dangerous choice. Starting ART immediately is absolutely correct and should happen regardless of CD4 count — but CD4 recovery takes months, and the patient remains at risk for PCP throughout that interval. ART and prophylaxis are started together; one does not substitute for the other.
  • Azithromycin 1200 mg weekly for Mycobacterium avium complex — Incorrect on two levels. The MAC threshold is CD4 <50 cells/µL, not 150, so this patient is nowhere near it. Beyond the number, current guidance no longer routinely recommends MAC prophylaxis at all in patients who are starting effective ART immediately, since prompt viral suppression raises the CD4 count faster than MAC risk accrues.
  • Fluconazole 200 mg daily for cryptococcal prophylaxis — Incorrect. Routine primary antifungal prophylaxis against Cryptococcus is not recommended in the United States. The incidence does not justify the cost, the drug interactions, or the azole resistance pressure. Cryptococcal disease is managed by recognizing and treating it, not by prophylaxing everyone below a threshold.
  • Valganciclovir 900 mg daily for cytomegalovirus prophylaxis — Incorrect. No routine primary CMV prophylaxis is given. CMV end-organ disease (classically retinitis) is a concern below CD4 <50, and the strategy there is dilated fundoscopic screening and preemptive treatment — not universal antiviral prophylaxis, which carries significant marrow toxicity.
Board pearlCommit the three thresholds to memory: CD4 <200 → PCP prophylaxis with TMP-SMX. CD4 <100 → Toxoplasma also covered (same TMP-SMX, no new drug). CD4 <50 → CMV and MAC territory. TMP-SMX covering two organisms at once is the single most efficient fact in HIV pharmacology. Two further points boards lean on: ART is started in every HIV-positive patient regardless of CD4 count, as soon as possible after diagnosis — there is no CD4 threshold for treatment, only for prophylaxis — and prophylaxis is stopped only after the CD4 stays above 200 for 3 months on suppressive therapy. If the stem gives you a sulfa allergy, reach for dapsone after checking G6PD, and remember that aerosolized pentamidine leaves Toxoplasma uncovered.
Covered below under Topic 2 — HIV/AIDS & Opportunistic Infections
Tier 1
Topic 2
HIV/AIDS & Opportunistic Infections
👁 Free Preview
CD4 Thresholds · PCP / Toxo / Crypto / CMV / MAC · IRIS · TMP-SMX Dual Coverage
Diagnosis & Screening
  • USPSTF: Screen all persons aged 15–65 at least once; all pregnant persons every pregnancy
  • Diagnostic algorithm: 4th-gen Ag/Ab combo → confirmatory HIV-1/HIV-2 differentiation immunoassay → if indeterminate → HIV-1 RNA (NAT)
  • Acute HIV: p24 antigen positive before antibodies → mononucleosis-like illness 2–4 weeks post-exposure
OI Prophylaxis by CD4 Count
CD4 Count (cells/mm³)Opportunistic InfectionProphylaxisBoard Key
< 200PCP (Pneumocystis jirovecii)TMP-SMX DS daily — FIRST-LINEThe single most important OI prophylaxis drug
< 150HistoplasmosisItraconazole 200 mg dailyEndemic areas only — Ohio and Mississippi River valleys
< 100Toxoplasma (if IgG seropositive)TMP-SMX DS daily — covers BOTH PCP and ToxoplasmaOne drug, two OIs covered
< 100Cryptococcus (if serum CrAg+)Fluconazole 200 mg dailyScreen with serum CrAg in high-prevalence settings
< 50MACNone if ART is started promptlyRoutine MAC prophylaxis is no longer recommended when ART begins immediately
Any countLatent TB (LTBI)3HP or 4R preferred; 9H is the alternative — always add pyridoxine with INHScreen every HIV patient with TST or IGRA at diagnosis
OI Presentations — High-Yield Patterns
OICD4 (cells/mm³)Classic PresentationKey DxTreatment
PCP< 200Bilateral diffuse GGO on CT; elevated LDH; hypoxia worsens with exertion; dry cough; CXR may be NORMAL earlySputum or BAL silver stain/DFATMP-SMX high dose × 21d. Add prednisone if PaO₂ <70 or A-a gradient >35.
Toxoplasmosis< 100Multiple ring-enhancing lesions on MRI; headache; focal deficitsMRI + toxo serology. Empiric treatment.Pyrimethamine + sulfadiazine + leucovorin
Crypto meningitis< 100Headache, fever, elevated opening pressure on LP; India ink positiveALWAYS measure opening pressure. CrAg serum + CSF.Amphotericin B + flucytosine (induction × 2wk) → fluconazole maintenance
CMV retinitis< 50"Pizza pie" fundoscopy (hemorrhages + exudates). Vision loss.Ophthalmologic examValganciclovir PO or ganciclovir IV
MAC< 50Fever, night sweats, weight loss, diarrhea, elevated alk phosMycobacterial blood culturesAzithromycin + ethambutol
CNS Lymphoma< 50SINGLE ring-enhancing lesion; EBV-associatedCSF EBV DNA; biopsy if no toxo responseRadiation ± chemo; poor prognosis
⚑ Board Traps — HIV/OIs
  • TMP-SMX = DUAL prophylaxis for PCP AND Toxoplasma — below CD4 <100, one drug covers both OIs
  • Single ring-enhancing = CNS lymphoma (EBV). Multiple = Toxoplasmosis.
  • PCP: CXR may be NORMAL early — CT is more sensitive. Elevated LDH + bilateral GGO = classic.
  • Crypto meningitis: ALWAYS measure opening pressure — elevated ICP (>25 cm H₂O) causes vision loss and death. Therapeutic LPs mandatory.
  • IRIS: Paradoxical worsening of OI symptoms weeks after starting ART — recovering immune system attacks existing infection.
  • MAC prophylaxis NO LONGER routinely recommended if ART started immediately (2024)
  • PCP corticosteroids: Required if PaO₂ <70 or A-a gradient >35 — reduces mortality ~50%
★ Memory Trick
CD4 <200: PCP → TMP-SMX CD4 <100: Add Toxo (TMP-SMX covers both) → "two-for-one" CD4 <50: CMV + MAC + CNS lymphoma → "the deadly fifty" "Single ring = Lymphoma (EBV). Multiple rings = Toxo." "Crypto: ALWAYS check the pressure — elevated ICP kills faster than the fungus"
Before you beginSexually Transmitted Infections1 question
Answer this one before you read the topic. Getting it wrong is expected and useful — attempting a question first is what makes the material below stick. The explanation unlocks only after you submit.
Question 1 of 1 · High Yield · Syphilis · Staging Drives Duration
A 30-year-old woman presents with a single painless, firm, indurated genital ulcer with a clean base that she first noticed about 3 weeks ago. There is mild non-tender inguinal adenopathy. She has no rash, no mucous patches, and no neurologic or ocular symptoms. RPR is reactive at 1:32 and FTA-ABS is positive. She has no drug allergies and is not pregnant. What stage does this represent, and what is the correct treatment?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: E — Primary syphilis — benzathine penicillin G 2.4 million units IM as a single dose
A solitary painless, indurated, clean-based ulcer is the chancre of primary syphilis. Reactive nontreponemal (RPR) plus confirmatory treponemal (FTA-ABS) testing establishes the diagnosis; the stage is determined by the clinical findings, not by the titer. The single most testable point in syphilis is that staging drives duration, not drug: primary, secondary, and early latent syphilis all receive one intramuscular dose of benzathine penicillin G 2.4 million units. The weekly × 3 regimen belongs to late latent disease and latent syphilis of unknown duration. Follow-up is with quantitative nontreponemal titers at 6 and 12 months, where a fourfold (two-dilution) decline — here 1:32 down to 1:8 — defines an adequate serologic response.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Secondary syphilis — benzathine penicillin G 2.4 million units IM weekly × 3 doses — Incorrect on both counts. Secondary syphilis presents with a diffuse non-pruritic copper-colored maculopapular rash involving the palms and soles, condylomata lata, mucous patches, and generalized lymphadenopathy — not with a chancre. And even when secondary disease is present, the treatment remains a single dose.
  • Neurosyphilis — IV aqueous crystalline penicillin G every 4 hours × 10–14 days — Incorrect. Neurosyphilis requires neurologic, ocular, or otic findings to justify lumbar puncture and IV therapy. This patient has none. Reflexively escalating to IV penicillin exposes the patient to a central line and 10–14 days of inpatient or infusion therapy for no benefit.
  • Latent syphilis of unknown duration — doxycycline 100 mg orally BID × 28 days — Incorrect. Latent syphilis is by definition seroreactivity without clinical findings; this patient has an active lesion, so she cannot be latent. Doxycycline 100 mg BID (14 days for early disease, 28 days for late latent) is only an alternative for the non-pregnant penicillin-allergic patient — never the preferred agent when penicillin can be given.
  • Primary syphilis — benzathine penicillin G 2.4 million units IM weekly × 3 doses — Incorrect, and the highest-yield distractor on this topic. The stage is identified correctly, but the duration is wrong. Three weekly doses are reserved for late latent syphilis or latent syphilis of unknown duration, where the organism burden is low and replication is slow. Over-treating primary syphilis is not the tested error; the tested error is applying the weekly regimen to early disease and thereby signaling that you have not learned which regimen maps to which stage.
Board pearlPainless indurated ulcer = chancre = primary syphilis. Herpes is the painful one; syphilis is the painless one, and that single adjective decides the question. Memorize the duration map: primary, secondary, and early latent all get ONE dose of benzathine penicillin G 2.4 million units IM — late latent and unknown duration get three weekly doses — neurosyphilis gets IV aqueous penicillin G for 10–14 days. In pregnancy, penicillin is the only acceptable therapy; a penicillin-allergic pregnant patient must be desensitized, never switched to doxycycline (teratogenic) or azithromycin (resistance and treatment failure). Expect the Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction — fever, chills, myalgias, and headache within 24 hours of the first dose — and recognize it as expected endotoxin release, not an allergy and not a reason to stop treatment.
Covered below under Module 3 — Syphilis
Before you beginInfective Endocarditis2 questions
Answer these two before you read the topic. Getting them wrong is expected and useful — attempting a question first is what makes the material below stick. Each explanation unlocks only after you submit.
Question 1 of 2 · High Yield · Endocarditis · S. bovis Colonoscopy
A 68-year-old is hospitalized for S. gallolyticus (S. bovis) native valve endocarditis. Blood cultures are clearing on antibiotics. What additional workup is MANDATORY?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: A — Colonoscopy to evaluate for colorectal neoplasia
S. bovis (gallolyticus) bacteremia or endocarditis has a ~60% association with colorectal neoplasia (adenoma or carcinoma). Colonoscopy is mandatory — the GI tract is the source of bacteremia and often harbors cancer driving the organism into the bloodstream. This is a fixed board fact that appears repeatedly.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • No additional workup is needed at this time — Incorrect. This organism carries a specific and clinically important association. Roughly 60% of patients with S. gallolyticus bacteremia have colorectal neoplasia, so failing to investigate risks missing a cancer.
  • HIV screening with CD4 count if reactive — Incorrect. HIV testing is reasonable general practice but has no specific link to this organism, and it does not address the colorectal neoplasia risk that makes this presentation distinctive.
  • Upper endoscopy to rule out gastric ulcer — Incorrect. The right instinct — GI evaluation — but the wrong segment. The association is with COLORECTAL adenomas and carcinoma, so colonoscopy is the required study.
  • Chest CT to rule out septic pulmonary embolism — Incorrect. Septic pulmonary emboli occur with RIGHT-sided endocarditis, most often in people who inject drugs. This is native left-sided disease with a colonic association.
Board pearlLet the organism tell you where to look next. Streptococcus gallolyticus (formerly S. bovis) means colonoscopy — the association with colorectal neoplasia runs around 60%, and the gut lesion is the source. Extend the same reflex to the rest of the pairings: S. aureus and injection drug use point to the tricuspid valve, viridans streptococci to dental procedures and damaged native valves, Enterococcus to genitourinary instrumentation, and coagulase-negative staphylococci to prosthetic material.
Covered below under Topic 3 — Infective Endocarditis
Question 2 of 2 · High Yield · Endocarditis · Duke Criteria — Major vs Minor
A 41-year-old man with a history of injection drug use is admitted with 5 days of fever and a new holosystolic murmur at the left lower sternal border. Examination shows splinter hemorrhages and non-tender erythematous macules on his palms. Temperature is 38.6°C, ESR is 88 mm/h, and CRP is 14 mg/dL. Two sets of blood cultures drawn from separate sites are both growing Staphylococcus aureus. Which of these findings qualifies as a MAJOR modified Duke criterion?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: E — A typical organism in two separate cultures
There are only two major modified Duke criteria, and everything else on the list is minor. The first is microbiologic: a typical organism (Staphylococcus aureus, viridans streptococci, Streptococcus gallolyticus, HACEK organisms, community-acquired enterococci) recovered from two separate blood culture sets, or persistently positive cultures with an organism consistent with endocarditis, or a single positive culture for Coxiella burnetii. The second is evidence of endocardial involvement: echocardiographic vegetation, abscess, new partial dehiscence of a prosthetic valve, or new valvular regurgitation. This patient's cultures satisfy one major criterion; his fever, vascular phenomena, and injection drug use are three minor criteria — and 1 major + 3 minor meets the threshold for definite infective endocarditis even before the echocardiogram returns.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • ESR of 88 mm/h together with CRP of 14 mg/dL — Incorrect, and the most important thing to notice here: inflammatory markers are not Duke criteria at all — neither major nor minor. They are nonspecific, they will be abnormal in almost any febrile inpatient, and they carry no diagnostic weight in this framework.
  • His documented history of injection drug use — Incorrect as a major criterion. Injection drug use is a predisposing condition, which is a minor criterion alongside a predisposing cardiac lesion. It raises pretest probability substantially — and should make you think tricuspid valve and right-sided disease — but epidemiologic risk never becomes a major criterion.
  • Splinter hemorrhages and the painless macules on his palms — Incorrect. These are vascular phenomena, a minor criterion. Painless macules on the palms and soles are Janeway lesions (vascular, embolic); the tender nodules on the fingertips are Osler nodes (immunologic). Both are minor, and boards routinely test whether you can tell them apart.
  • Documented temperature of 38.6°C on admission — Incorrect. Fever above 38.0°C is a minor criterion. It is genuinely part of the scoring system, which is exactly what makes it an attractive distractor — the question is not whether the finding counts, but whether it counts as major.
Board pearlOnly two majors exist: positive blood cultures and positive echocardiogram. Everything else — fever, predisposing condition, vascular phenomena (Janeway lesions, splinter hemorrhages, septic emboli), immunologic phenomena (Osler nodes, Roth spots, glomerulonephritis), and a single positive culture — is minor. Definite IE = 2 major, or 1 major + 3 minor, or 5 minor. Mnemonic for the minors: FIVE PM — Fever, Immunologic, Vascular, Echo-not-meeting-major, Predisposition, Microbiology-not-meeting-major. Two more traps: ESR and CRP are not criteria, and blood cultures come before antibiotics — at least two sets from separate venipuncture sites. TTE first (sensitivity roughly 60–75%), then TEE if suspicion stays high (90–95%), and always TEE for a prosthetic valve.
Covered below under Topic 3 — Infective Endocarditis
Tier 1
Topic 3
Infective Endocarditis
2023 Duke Criteria · Organisms by Context · Osler vs Janeway · Surgical Indications
Duke Criteria — PANCE Version (Classic)

Definite IE: 2 Major OR 1 Major + 3 Minor OR 5 Minor criteria

Major Criteria:

  • Positive blood cultures: typical organism (S. aureus, viridans Strep, HACEK) from ≥2 separate cultures
  • Evidence of endocardial involvement: vegetation on echo OR new valvular regurgitation

Minor Criteria:

  • Predisposing condition (valve disease, IVDU)
  • Fever ≥38°C
  • Vascular phenomena (emboli, Janeway lesions, mycotic aneurysm)
  • Immunologic phenomena (Osler nodes, Roth spots, RF positive)
  • Positive blood cultures not meeting major criteria

🩺 PANCE Pearl: Osler nodes = painful (immune complex) · Janeway lesions = painless (septic emboli). "Osler HURTS, Janeway DOESN'T." Both are peripheral signs of IE.

Organisms by Clinical Context
OrganismClassic AssociationBoard Key
S. aureusIVDU (tricuspid), acute IE, prosthetic valves#1 cause overall. IVDU → right-sided tricuspid valve. High mortality.
Viridans streptococciNative valve subacute, dental proceduresSubacute course. Penicillin-susceptible.
S. bovis/gallolyticusColon lesions, elderlyMANDATORY colonoscopy — ~60% colorectal neoplasia association
EnterococcusGI/GU proceduresSynergistic therapy: ampicillin + gentamicin OR ampicillin + ceftriaxone
HACEK organismsCulture-negative IE (slow-growing gram-negatives)Treat with ceftriaxone. Prolonged incubation needed for cultures.
S. epidermidis (CoNS)Prosthetic valve <60 daysEarly prosthetic (<60d) = CoNS. Late (>60d) = same as native valve.
Peripheral Signs — Osler vs Janeway
FindingPain?MechanismLocation
Osler nodesPAINFUL — "Ouch-sler"Immune complex depositionFinger/toe pulp
Janeway lesionsPAINLESSSeptic microemboliPalms and soles
Roth spots—Retinal hemorrhages with white centerFundoscopic exam
Splinter hemorrhages—Septic microemboli in nail capillariesSubungual
Surgical Indications (Class I)
  • Heart failure from valvular dysfunction
  • Uncontrolled infection despite ≥5–7 days appropriate antibiotics
  • Abscess, pseudoaneurysm, or fistula formation
  • Large mobile vegetations >10mm with embolic events
  • Fungal IE — large vegetations, refractory to antifungals alone
⚑ Board Traps — Endocarditis
  • S. bovis/gallolyticus IE = colonoscopy always (~60% colon neoplasia)
  • Blood cultures × 3 sets BEFORE antibiotics
  • Osler = Ouch (painful). Janeway = painless (palms/soles).
  • Prophylaxis: Only for highest-risk patients (prosthetic valves, prior IE, unrepaired cyanotic CHD) undergoing dental procedures with gingival manipulation. NOT for GI/GU procedures.
  • S. aureus is now #1 overall IE organism — surpassed viridans strep due to IVDU increase
★ Memory Trick
Osler vs Janeway: "Osler = Ouch (painful, immune). Janeway = Just painless (palms/soles, embolic)" S. bovis: "Bovis has a colonoscopy ticket — always" HACEK: "Culture-negative slow growers — treat with ceftriaxone" "CoNS (<60d prosthetic) → CoNS same (>60d) → native valve organisms"
Before you beginBacterial Meningitis1 question
Answer this one before you read the topic. Getting it wrong is expected and useful — attempting a question first is what makes the material below stick. The explanation unlocks only after you submit.
Question 1 of 1 · High Yield · Bacterial Meningitis — Dexamethasone Timing
A 19-year-old college student has fever, severe headache, neck stiffness, photophobia, confusion, and non-blanching petechiae, consistent with bacterial meningitis. Before a CT scanner is available, in what sequence should interventions occur, and why does dexamethasone timing relative to antibiotics matter?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: A — Blood cultures, dexamethasone, then antibiotics
The correct sequence for suspected bacterial meningitis with this presentation is: (1) blood cultures x2 immediately, (2) dexamethasone 0.15 mg/kg IV, (3) ceftriaxone plus vancomycin — all completed within 30 minutes. The critical timing concept is that dexamethasone must be given BEFORE or WITH (never after) the first antibiotic dose. The mechanism: antibiotics cause bacterial cell wall lysis, which releases inflammatory mediators and cytokines that drive much of the morbidity in bacterial meningitis (including hearing loss and neurologic sequelae). Dexamethasone given before/with antibiotics blunts this inflammatory cascade; given afterward, it provides little to no benefit since the inflammatory response has already been triggered.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Antibiotics first, then dexamethasone once the LP confirms the diagnosis — Incorrect. This sequence eliminates the benefit of dexamethasone, since its protective effect against the inflammatory cytokine cascade depends on administration before or simultaneous with the first antibiotic dose — giving it after antibiotics (and after bacterial lysis has already triggered the inflammatory response) provides minimal benefit.
  • Omit dexamethasone — no benefit in adult bacterial meningitis — Incorrect. Dexamethasone has demonstrated benefit in adult bacterial meningitis, particularly for pneumococcal meningitis, in reducing neurologic complications including hearing loss — it should be included in the treatment protocol, given before or with the first antibiotic dose.
  • CT head before any treatment, even if this delays antibiotics — Incorrect — and potentially fatal. Treatment (antibiotics, dexamethasone) should never be delayed for CT imaging in suspected bacterial meningitis with this presentation — CT is only needed before lumbar puncture if there are specific signs of mass effect (papilledema, focal neurologic deficits, severely altered mental status), and even then, antibiotics should be started before the CT, not after.
  • Lumbar puncture and CSF analysis before starting any antibiotics — Incorrect — and dangerous. While LP provides valuable diagnostic information, antibiotics (along with dexamethasone) should never be delayed for LP in suspected bacterial meningitis with this severity of presentation — if LP cannot be performed immediately (e.g., due to need for CT first), antibiotics and dexamethasone should still be given promptly without waiting.
Board pearlDexamethasone must precede or accompany the first antibiotic dose — never follow it. Antibiotics lyse the organism and release inflammatory cell-wall products; steroids given afterwards have missed the surge they exist to blunt. The benefit is clearest in pneumococcal meningitis, reducing hearing loss and mortality. CT before LP is required only for focal deficit, papilloedema, seizure, immunocompromise, or altered consciousness — and even then the antibiotic goes in first.
Covered below under Topic 4 — Bacterial Meningitis
Tier 1
Topic 4
Bacterial Meningitis
Age-Based Coverage · CSF Patterns · Dexamethasone Timing · Never Delay ABx
Age-Based Empiric Coverage
Age GroupKey OrganismsEmpiric TherapyBoard Key
Neonates (0–28d)Group B Strep, E. coli, ListeriaAmpicillin + cefotaxime (or gentamicin)GBS #1 neonates
Children/Adults (1mo–50yr)S. pneumoniae (#1), N. meningitidisVancomycin + ceftriaxoneVanco covers pen-resistant pneumococcus
Adults >50 / Immunocompromised / PregnantS. pneumoniae, N. meningitidis, ListeriaVancomycin + ceftriaxone + AMPICILLINCephalosporins have ZERO Listeria coverage — ampicillin is essential
CSF Pattern Recognition
ParameterBacterialViral (Aseptic)Fungal/TB
Opening PressureElevated (>20 cm H₂O)Normal or mildly elevatedElevated
WBC / Cell type>1000, neutrophil predominant10–500, lymphocyte predominant10–500, lymphocyte
GlucoseLOW (<40 mg/dL)NormalLOW
ProteinHIGH (>250 mg/dL)Normal/mildly elevatedHIGH
Key Management Rules
  • Antibiotics within 1 hour — delay >6h increases mortality from 6% to 45%
  • Dexamethasone BEFORE or WITH first antibiotic dose — reduces mortality in pneumococcal meningitis. No benefit if given after antibiotics.
  • CT needed first? (focal deficits, papilledema, immunocompromised) → draw blood cultures + give dexa + start antibiotics FIRST, then CT, then LP
  • N. meningitidis contacts: Rifampin, ciprofloxacin, or IM ceftriaxone × 1 dose
  • Waterhouse-Friderichsen: Meningococcal septicemia → bilateral adrenal hemorrhage → DIC + purpura fulminans + adrenal crisis + shock
⚑ Board Traps — Meningitis
  • NEVER delay antibiotics for CT or LP — blood cultures + dexa + antibiotics FIRST if CT needed
  • Dexamethasone BEFORE or WITH first dose — post-antibiotic dexa provides zero benefit
  • ADD AMPICILLIN for >50, neonates, pregnant, immunocompromised — cephalosporins do NOT cover Listeria
  • S. pneumoniae = #1 adult meningitis — vancomycin added for resistant strains
★ Memory Trick
Coverage: "Adults = Vanc + Ceftriaxone. Over 50 = Add Ampicillin (Listeria)" "Cephalosporins can't touch Listeria — only ampicillin works" Dexa timing: "BEFORE or WITH — not after. The first dose is the only chance." CSF: "Bacterial = Bugs (neutrophils) + Bad glucose + Big protein"
Part 2 · Extended Coverage · Access Locked
Additional PANCE Infectious Disease Topics
Everything beyond the core six — still fully tested, still fully worked. Included with bootcamp enrollment.
Before you beginSepsis & Community-Acquired Pneumonia1 question
Answer this one before you read the topic. Getting it wrong is expected and useful — attempting a question first is what makes the material below stick. The explanation unlocks only after you submit.
Question 1 of 1 · High Yield · Septic Shock — Surviving Sepsis Hour-1 Bundle
A 68-year-old nursing home patient arrives obtunded with BP 74/44, HR 128, T 39.4°C, RR 28, and lactate 5.2 mmol/L, meeting criteria for septic shock. A colleague suggests obtaining a CT scan before starting antibiotics to identify the infection source first. What is the correct sequence according to the 2021 Surviving Sepsis Campaign Hour-1 Bundle?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: D — Antibiotics within 1 hour, with CT imaging performed afterward
The Surviving Sepsis Campaign Hour-1 Bundle mandates that broad-spectrum antibiotics be administered within 1 hour of septic shock recognition — this should not be delayed for imaging studies to identify the source. The correct sequence is: obtain lactate, draw blood cultures x2, administer broad-spectrum antibiotics, give fluid resuscitation (30 mL/kg crystalloid for hypotension or lactate ≥4, though this fluid volume recommendation was downgraded from mandatory to suggested in 2021), and start vasopressors if needed to maintain MAP ≥65 if fluids are inadequate. Source-identifying imaging like CT should be obtained after these immediate life-saving interventions, not before.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • 30 mL/kg crystalloid is a strict requirement before anything else — Incorrect. While fluid resuscitation remains important, the 2021 SSC update specifically DOWNGRADED the 30 mL/kg fluid recommendation from a strict mandate to a suggestion, recognizing that fluid overload can also harm septic patients — this fluid volume should be individualized, not treated as an absolute mandatory first step before other bundle elements.
  • Blood cultures are no longer required before antibiotics — Incorrect. Blood cultures (x2, from different sites) remain a core component of the Hour-1 Bundle and should be obtained promptly — ideally before antibiotics when this doesn't meaningfully delay administration, since cultures guide subsequent antimicrobial de-escalation.
  • Start vasopressors immediately, before any fluid resuscitation — Incorrect. The standard approach still generally involves initial fluid resuscitation, with vasopressors added if the patient remains hypotensive despite fluids (to maintain MAP ≥65) — though both fluids and vasopressors should be considered together rather than treating vasopressors as the absolute first step before any fluid administration.
  • CT imaging first to identify and drain the source before antibiotics — Incorrect — and dangerous. This significantly delays antibiotic administration, which is time-critical in septic shock — each hour of delayed appropriate antibiotics is associated with increased mortality. Antibiotics should never be delayed for source-identifying imaging in septic shock.
Board pearlNothing delays the antibiotic — not a CT, not the lumbar puncture, not a specialist call. The Hour-1 bundle order is lactate, two blood cultures, broad-spectrum antibiotics, then 30 mL/kg crystalloid for hypotension or lactate at or above 4, with vasopressors added if the MAP stays under 65. Cultures go before antibiotics only because they take seconds; if drawing them would delay therapy, give the antibiotic. Remember Sepsis-3: sepsis is infection plus organ dysfunction, and septic shock adds a pressor requirement with lactate above 2.
Covered below under Topic 5 — Sepsis & Septic Shock
Tier 1
Topic 5
Sepsis & Septic Shock
Sepsis-3 · SSC 2021 Hour-1 Bundle · Norepinephrine First · Lactate Clearance
★★★ PANCE PrioritySSC 2021
Why the PANCE Tests This

Sepsis is the #1 cause of ICU mortality in the US. Boards test: Sepsis-3 definition (SOFA-based, NOT SIRS), vasopressor selection, the Hour-1 Bundle, and fluid strategy. Multiple questions per exam.

Definitions — Sepsis-3 (2016)
  • Sepsis: Life-threatening organ dysfunction from dysregulated host response to infection. SOFA score increase ≥2 points.
  • Septic shock: Sepsis + vasopressors needed for MAP ≥65 mmHg + serum lactate >2 mmol/L despite adequate fluids. Mortality >40%.
  • qSOFA: AMS + SBP ≤100 + RR ≥22. Screening tool ONLY — NOT diagnostic. SSC 2021 recommends AGAINST using qSOFA alone for screening.
SSC 2021 Hour-1 Bundle
The 5-Step Bundle — All Within Hour 1
  • 1. Measure lactate — re-measure if >2 mmol/L. Lactate >4 = high-risk.
  • 2. Blood cultures × 2 sets from separate sites BEFORE antibiotics
  • 3. Broad-spectrum antibiotics within 1 hour — every hour of delay increases mortality ~7%
  • 4. 30 mL/kg IV crystalloid within 3h for hypotension or lactate ≥4 (downgraded to WEAK recommendation 2021)
  • 5. Vasopressors if MAP <65 during or after fluids — start peripherally, do NOT wait for central access
Vasopressor Hierarchy
LineAgentNotesBoard Key
First-lineNorepinephrineTitrate to MAP ≥65NOT dopamine — higher arrhythmia risk with dopamine
Second-lineVasopressin 0.03 units/minAdd when NE ≥0.25–0.5 mcg/kg/minNE-sparing; fixed dose
Third-lineEpinephrineRefractory shockCan cause lactic acidosis (β2)
AdjunctHydrocortisone 200 mg/day CIVasopressor-refractory septic shockWeak recommendation; improves shock reversal
  • Balanced crystalloids (LR) preferred over NS — reduces AKI (SMART trial)
  • Peripheral vasopressor start is acceptable — SSC 2021 endorses peripheral initiation
⚑ Board Traps — Sepsis
  • Sepsis-3 = ORGAN DYSFUNCTION (SOFA ≥2), NOT just SIRS — fever + tachycardia + leukocytosis alone is no longer "sepsis"
  • qSOFA is NOT a diagnostic criterion — SSC 2021 recommends against using it alone for screening
  • Norepinephrine is FIRST-LINE — NOT dopamine. Dopamine: higher arrhythmia risk, worse outcomes in cardiogenic shock subgroup.
  • Antibiotics within 1 hour — blood cultures first but do NOT delay antibiotics waiting for results
  • 30 mL/kg crystalloid was downgraded to WEAK recommendation in 2021 — use dynamic measures (passive leg raise, pulse pressure variation) to guide further fluids
  • Do NOT delay vasopressors for central access — start peripherally now
★ Memory Trick
Hour-1 Bundle: "LACTATE" — Lactate measure + Antibiotics + Cultures (blood) before ABx + Target MAP 65 + End with vasopressors "SIRS is DEAD — Sepsis-3 needs SOFA ≥2" Vasopressor order: "NE → Vaso → Epi" — Never Very Easy to manage refractory shock
Clinical Vignette
A 72-year-old diabetic presents with fever, confusion, BP 78/48, lactate 5.2 mmol/L. Blood cultures drawn. Dopamine is started peripherally by the covering team.
Answer: Two errors — (1) norepinephrine is first-line, NOT dopamine; (2) peripheral initiation is acceptable and correct (not an error). Broad-spectrum antibiotics should have been started simultaneously. LR 30 mL/kg bolus should accompany. Hydrocortisone 200 mg/day if vasopressor-refractory.

📚 Now taught in the Pulmonary syllabus. Community-acquired pneumonia is worked in full in Pulmonary Module 3, which owns this topic to avoid teaching it twice across the two syllabi.

Tier 1
Topic 6
Clostridioides difficile Infection (CDI)
Metronidazole No Longer First-Line · Vancomycin/Fidaxomicin · FMT · Soap & Water
Diagnosis
  • Test only symptomatic patients: ≥3 unformed stools/24h, NOT on laxatives
  • Two-step algorithm: GDH EIA + Toxin A/B EIA → if discordant → NAAT (PCR) as tiebreaker
  • Do NOT test asymptomatic patients — colonization without symptoms needs no treatment
  • Do NOT use as test-of-cure — stool can remain positive 4–6 weeks after resolution
Treatment by Severity
Episode/SeverityDefinitionTreatment
Initial, NonsevereWBC ≤15K, Cr <1.5Vancomycin 125mg PO QID × 10d OR Fidaxomicin 200mg BID × 10d
Initial, SevereWBC >15K or Cr ≥1.5Vancomycin 125mg PO QID × 10d OR Fidaxomicin 200mg BID × 10d
FulminantHypotension, ileus, toxic megacolonVancomycin 500mg PO QID + Metronidazole 500mg IV TID ± Vancomycin per rectum (if ileus)
1st Recurrence—Vancomycin taper/pulse OR Fidaxomicin (preferred — fewer recurrences)
2nd+ Recurrence—FMT — >85% cure rate. FDA-approved: Rebyota (fecal), Vowst (oral spores)
⚑ Board Traps — C. difficile
  • Metronidazole is NO LONGER first-line for CDI — vancomycin or fidaxomicin for all initial episodes
  • Metronidazole IV only in FULMINANT CDI with ileus — always combined with oral/rectal vancomycin, NEVER alone
  • Fidaxomicin has fewer recurrences — preferred when cost permits
  • Soap and water ONLY during C. diff outbreaks — alcohol sanitizer does NOT kill spores
  • Stop the inciting antibiotic ASAP — continuing it increases recurrence
  • Do NOT test asymptomatic patients — colonization ≠ infection
★ Memory Trick
CDI treatment: "Vanco or Fidaxo — Metronidazole is RETIRED from first-line" "Metro IV only in FULMINANT (ileus) — always WITH oral/rectal vanco, never alone" FMT: "85% cure for recurrent C. diff — the gold standard" "SOAP AND WATER for C. diff — alcohol gel doesn't kill spores"
Clinical Vignette
A 74-year-old on piperacillin-tazobactam develops 6 watery stools/day. C. diff toxin positive, WBC 22K, Cr 1.8. No ileus, no hypotension.
Answer: Severe CDI (WBC >15K + Cr ≥1.5). Treat with vancomycin 125mg PO QID × 10 days OR fidaxomicin. NOT metronidazole. Stop pip-tazo if possible. No ileus → no IV metronidazole or rectal vanco needed. Soap-and-water handwashing. Contact precautions.
Before you beginSSTI & Lyme Disease3 questions
Answer these three before you read the topic. Getting them wrong is expected and useful — attempting a question first is what makes the material below stick. Each explanation unlocks only after you submit.
Question 1 of 3 · High Yield · SSTI · Nonpurulent Cellulitis
A 48-year-old man has a warm, erythematous, tender area on the right lower leg without drainage or fluctuance. No fever. MRSA swab negative. Which is MOST appropriate?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: B — Oral cephalexin or dicloxacillin for 5 days
Uncomplicated nonpurulent cellulitis = β-hemolytic streptococci, NOT MRSA. Routine MRSA coverage not indicated. Oral cephalexin or dicloxacillin × 5 days is first-line (IDSA 2014). Vancomycin reserved for severe cellulitis, sepsis, or documented MRSA. TMP-SMX covers MRSA but not β-hemolytic strep as well.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • No antibiotics needed — elevation and warm compresses — Incorrect. Cellulitis is a bacterial infection that requires antibiotics; untreated it can progress to abscess, bacteremia, or necrotising infection. Absence of fever does not mean absence of infection.
  • IV piperacillin-tazobactam for broad coverage — Incorrect. This is dramatically excessive for uncomplicated cellulitis in a well patient. Broad Gram-negative and anaerobic coverage is unnecessary and promotes resistance and C. difficile.
  • TMP-SMX to cover community-acquired MRSA — Incorrect. TMP-SMX covers MRSA well but has relatively poor streptococcal activity, and nonpurulent cellulitis is predominantly streptococcal. This makes it a mismatch for the likely organism.
  • IV vancomycin — MRSA coverage for all cellulitis — Incorrect. The word 'all' is the tell. MRSA coverage is indicated for PURULENT infections, abscesses, penetrating trauma, injection drug use, or systemic toxicity — not for routine nonpurulent cellulitis, and IV therapy is unnecessary in an outpatient without systemic signs.
Board pearlPurulence decides the organism. Nonpurulent cellulitis is streptococcal — treat with cephalexin or dicloxacillin and do not add MRSA coverage. Purulent infection, an abscess, or a furuncle is staphylococcal and often MRSA — incise and drain first, then cover with TMP-SMX, doxycycline, or clindamycin. Reserve vancomycin for severe or septic presentations. And watch for the escalation you must not miss: pain out of proportion to findings, rapid progression, crepitus, or bullae mean necrotising fasciitis and surgical exploration, not stronger antibiotics.
Covered below under Topic 7 — Skin & Soft Tissue Infections
Question 2 of 3 · Medium · Lyme · Post-Treatment Serology
A 45-year-old woman with Lyme arthritis treated with doxycycline × 28 days 3 years ago has persistent fatigue and arthralgia. Repeat Lyme ELISA is positive. What is MOST accurate?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: C — Post-treatment Lyme disease syndrome — no repeat antibiotics
After successful Lyme treatment, antibodies can remain positive for years to decades — positive serology does NOT mean active infection. Post-treatment Lyme disease syndrome (PTLDS) describes persistent symptoms after adequate treatment. Extended antibiotic courses are NOT beneficial and potentially harmful per RCTs. Symptomatic management.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Active infection — another 28-day doxycycline course — Incorrect. This is the most common error because the positive ELISA looks like active infection. Antibodies persist for years to decades after cure, so serology cannot be used as a test of cure — and repeat antibiotic courses have been shown not to help.
  • Treatment failure — check resistance patterns and re-dose therapy — Incorrect. Documented antibiotic resistance in Borrelia burgdorferi has not been demonstrated, and resistance testing is not clinically available or meaningful. Persistent symptoms after adequate therapy are not evidence of resistant organisms.
  • Switch to IV ceftriaxone for refractory neuroborreliosis — Incorrect. IV ceftriaxone is used for neuroborreliosis, carditis, or refractory Lyme arthritis with objective ongoing joint inflammation. Randomised trials show no benefit from prolonged IV therapy for persistent subjective symptoms, and it carries line infection and biliary risk.
  • New Lyme infection — re-treat with oral doxycycline — Incorrect. Reinfection is possible but would present with new objective findings such as a fresh erythema migrans rash. Positive serology alone cannot distinguish reinfection from persisting antibodies.
Board pearlLyme serology stays positive for years after cure, so it cannot be used as a test of cure or to diagnose relapse. Persistent fatigue and arthralgia after adequate treatment is post-treatment Lyme disease syndrome, and randomised trials show extended or repeated antibiotics do not help and carry real harm — management is symptomatic. Remember the testing architecture as well: two-tier serology, ELISA followed by Western blot, and it is insensitive early, so erythema migrans in an endemic area is treated clinically without waiting for serology.
Covered below under Module 12 — Lyme Disease · serology and PTLDS
Question 3 of 3 · High Yield · Lyme · Bilateral Bell Palsy
A 26-year-old from Connecticut presents with bilateral facial weakness developing over 3 days. He recently hiked in wooded areas. Which is MOST likely?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: B — Lyme disease — stage 2, early disseminated disease
Bilateral facial nerve palsy = Lyme disease until proven otherwise. Unilateral Bell palsy has many causes; bilateral = Lyme Stage 2. Endemic area (Connecticut) + hiking strongly supports diagnosis. Test with Lyme serology (ELISA → Western blot). Treat with oral doxycycline × 14–21 days for isolated facial palsy.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Sarcoidosis with cranial nerve involvement — Incorrect. Sarcoidosis genuinely can cause bilateral facial palsy, particularly in Heerfordt syndrome with uveitis and parotitis, making it the best distractor. It usually develops more insidiously with systemic features and hilar adenopathy, and lacks the tick exposure and endemic geography here.
  • Guillain-Barré syndrome, facial variant — Incorrect. GBS can involve the facial nerves, but the hallmark is ascending limb weakness with areflexia. Isolated bilateral facial palsy without limb involvement does not fit, and there is no antecedent illness described.
  • Bilateral Bell palsy of idiopathic cause — Incorrect. Idiopathic Bell palsy is overwhelmingly unilateral. Simultaneous bilateral facial weakness is rare enough that it demands a search for a systemic cause rather than an idiopathic label.
  • Multiple sclerosis with a brainstem plaque — Incorrect. MS causes central rather than peripheral facial weakness, typically sparing the forehead, and produces lesions disseminated in time and space. Simultaneous bilateral peripheral facial palsy is not a typical MS presentation.
Board pearlBilateral facial nerve palsy is Lyme disease until proven otherwise — unilateral Bell palsy has many causes, but bilateral is rare and points hard at early disseminated infection. The other stage 2 features are multiple erythema migrans lesions, carditis with AV block, and meningitis. Treat isolated facial palsy with oral doxycycline for 14 to 21 days; reserve IV ceftriaxone for meningitis, encephalitis, or high-grade heart block. Also note the age rule: doxycycline is now considered acceptable in children for short Lyme courses.
Covered below under Module 12 — Lyme Disease · early disseminated
Tier 1
Topic 7
Skin & Soft Tissue Infections
Cellulitis · Abscess I&D · MRSA Coverage Rules · Erysipelas · Necrotizing Fasciitis · LRINEC · Dishwater Fluid
Classification & Treatment (IDSA 2014)
TypeOrganismTreatmentBoard Key
Mild nonpurulent cellulitisβ-hemolytic Streptococcus — groups A, B, C, G (NOT MRSA)Oral cephalexin or dicloxacillin × 5 days. Go IV if systemic toxicity, rapid spread, or immunocompromised.Routine MRSA coverage NOT needed
Moderate cellulitisβ-hemolytic StrepIV cefazolin or ceftriaxoneUpgrade if 1–2 SIRS criteria
Severe cellulitisMixed, MRSA possibleAdmit. IV vancomycin + pip-tazo. Surgical consult if necrotizing features.SIRS + hypotension/sepsis
Purulent SSTI (abscess)S. aureus — CA-MRSA is the presumed organismI&D is PRIMARY treatment. Add TMP-SMX/doxy only if surrounding cellulitis or SIRS.Antibiotics alone = insufficient
ErysipelasGroup A StrepPenicillin VK or amoxicillin (IV PCN G if severe)Sharply demarcated, raised, bright red borders
Necrotizing Fasciitis — Recognition and Surgical Emergency
  • Classic triad: pain out of proportion to exam + rapid progression + systemic toxicity, with woody, hard induration of the involved tissue
  • The pain-out-of-proportion sign: early NF can look like benign cellulitis on the surface while the deep fascia is already necrotic. Pain dramatically exceeding the visible findings is NF until proven otherwise.
  • Physical progression: skin discoloration → bullae → necrosis → crepitus (gas in tissues)
  • "Dishwater fluid" at exploration: gray-brown watery discharge with no frank pus is pathognomonic for polymicrobial necrotizing fasciitis
  • Gas on CT or crepitus on exam means anaerobes in the fascia — a surgical emergency. Do NOT delay surgery for further imaging when the clinical diagnosis is already clear.
  • LRINEC score (Laboratory Risk Indicator for Necrotizing Fasciitis — CRP, WBC, hemoglobin, sodium, creatinine, glucose): ≥8 = high risk. A useful adjunct that does not replace clinical judgment — a low score never rules NF out.
  • Type I (polymicrobial): Bacteroides + streptococci + coliforms; mixed aerobic/anaerobic; trunk and perineum (Fournier gangrene)
  • Type II (group A Streptococcus, often alone): extremities, more aggressive, frequently with toxic shock syndrome
  • Treatment: IMMEDIATE surgical debridement + IV vancomycin + piperacillin-tazobactam, plus clindamycin for exotoxin suppression in suspected group A strep. Antibiotics alone are never curative.
  • Mortality exceeds 30% when debridement is delayed — no antibiotic regimen can sterilize necrotic tissue
⚑ Board Traps — SSTI
  • Nonpurulent cellulitis is streptococcal, NOT MRSA — routine empiric MRSA coverage is not needed. This is the most commonly missed SSTI principle.
  • TMP-SMX does NOT adequately cover β-hemolytic streptococci. It covers CA-MRSA well and strep poorly, so for nonpurulent cellulitis the answer is cephalexin, not TMP-SMX.
  • Purulent SSTI: incision and drainage (I&D) is the definitive treatment — antibiotics alone fail against a loculated collection, and are adjunctive only for surrounding cellulitis or systemic signs.
  • Antibiotics alone never cure necrotizing fasciitis — surgery is the only cure, and every hour of delay raises mortality.
  • Five days is sufficient for uncomplicated cellulitis — longer courses are a distractor.
  • Pseudocellulitis is misdiagnosed roughly 30% of the time — consider stasis dermatitis, DVT, gout, and contact dermatitis before escalating antibiotics.
  • "Pain out of proportion" plus rapid spread means operate NOW — not another dose, not another scan.
★ Memory Trick
Nonpurulent cellulitis = Strep → cephalexin (NOT vancomycin) Purulent (abscess) = MRSA possible → I&D FIRST Erysipelas: "Sharp borders + Group A Strep + Penicillin" NF: "Pain out of proportion = danger out of proportion = OPERATE NOW"
Before you beginInfluenza, COVID-19 & Fungal Infections3 questions
Answer these three before you read the topic. Getting them wrong is expected and useful — attempting a question first is what makes the material below stick. Each explanation unlocks only after you submit.
Question 1 of 3 · Medium · Oseltamivir — Exceptions to the 48-Hour Rule
A 68-year-old woman with COPD has day 2 of influenza-like illness with a positive rapid influenza test. The standard teaching is that oseltamivir is most effective within 48 hours of symptom onset. Does this 48-hour window apply strictly here, and are there exceptions?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: E — Treat regardless of exact timing given her COPD risk
While the 48-hour window for maximal benefit is the general teaching point for influenza treatment, there is a critical exception: high-risk patients should receive oseltamivir regardless of how long they've had symptoms, even beyond 48 hours. High-risk features warranting treatment regardless of timing include age ≥65, chronic pulmonary disease (like COPD), pregnancy, immunosuppression, and several other comorbidities. This patient, presenting on day 2 (within the window) AND having COPD (a high-risk feature), should clearly receive oseltamivir.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Withhold oseltamivir because the timing is uncertain — Incorrect. This patient is presenting on day 2 of illness, which is within the 48-hour window — but more importantly, even if she presented later, her COPD as a high-risk comorbidity would still warrant treatment regardless of exact timing.
  • Use zanamivir instead, as oseltamivir is unsafe in COPD — Incorrect. Oseltamivir is not contraindicated in COPD — in fact, zanamivir (an inhaled formulation) is generally AVOIDED in patients with underlying airway disease like COPD or asthma due to risk of bronchospasm, making oseltamivir the more appropriate choice in this patient, not the contraindicated one.
  • The 48-hour window is absolute — no benefit beyond it — Incorrect. This is precisely the misconception this vignette is designed to correct — the 48-hour window represents the time of MAXIMAL benefit in low-risk, otherwise healthy patients, but high-risk patients (elderly, chronic lung disease, immunosuppressed, pregnant) should still receive treatment even beyond 48 hours, since they remain at risk for severe complications.
  • Only patients without comorbidities benefit from treatment — Incorrect. — this reverses the correct clinical reasoning. Patients WITH high-risk comorbidities (like this patient's COPD) are specifically the group for whom treatment is recommended regardless of symptom timing, precisely because they face higher risk of severe complications.
Board pearlThe 48-hour window describes where benefit is greatest, not where treatment is permitted. Treat regardless of timing in high-risk patients — age 65 or older, chronic pulmonary or cardiac disease, pregnancy or up to 2 weeks postpartum, immunosuppression, morbid obesity, and residents of long-term care — and in anyone hospitalised or deteriorating. A negative rapid antigen test does not exclude influenza during a local outbreak, so treat on clinical suspicion; PCR is the more sensitive confirmation.
Covered below under Topic 8 — Influenza
Question 2 of 3 · High Yield · COVID-19 · Paxlovid CYP3A4
A 65-year-old with AF on rivaroxaban develops mild-moderate COVID-19 (day 2). You plan to prescribe nirmatrelvir/ritonavir (Paxlovid). What is the MOST important concern?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: C — Rivaroxaban — ritonavir raises the bleeding risk
Ritonavir is a potent CYP3A4 inhibitor — significantly increases rivaroxaban exposure → increased bleeding risk. Options: (1) hold rivaroxaban during Paxlovid course + 3 days after; (2) switch to alternative anticoagulant; (3) use remdesivir instead. Always check full medication list before prescribing Paxlovid.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Amlodipine — no clinically relevant interaction — Incorrect. The premise is wrong: amlodipine IS a CYP3A4 substrate and its levels rise with ritonavir, potentially causing hypotension and edema. It is a real interaction, just not the most dangerous one here.
  • Metformin — clinically significant interaction — Incorrect. Metformin is cleared renally without CYP metabolism and has no significant interaction with ritonavir.
  • Lisinopril — contraindicated with ritonavir — Incorrect. ACE inhibitors are not metabolised via CYP3A4 to any clinically significant extent and have no meaningful interaction with ritonavir.
  • Aspirin — potentiates anticoagulant effect — Incorrect. Aspirin does add bleeding risk when combined with an anticoagulant, so the concern is not baseless — but this is a pharmacodynamic issue independent of Paxlovid, and it is not the drug-interaction the question targets.
Board pearlRitonavir is a potent CYP3A4 inhibitor, so prescribing Paxlovid is really a drug-interaction exercise: review the full medication list first. The high-risk partners are rivaroxaban and apixaban (bleeding), simvastatin and lovastatin (rhabdomyolysis, hold them), amiodarone, calcineurin inhibitors, and several antiarrhythmics and anticonvulsants. Options are to hold the interacting drug through the course plus three days, substitute, or use remdesivir instead. Treatment must start within 5 days of symptom onset.
Covered below under Topic 9 — COVID-19 (SARS-CoV-2)
Question 3 of 3 · High Yield · Fungal · Invasive Candidiasis
A 56-year-old ICU patient on broad-spectrum antibiotics and TPN for 2 weeks develops persistent fever. Blood cultures grow Candida albicans. Which is MOST appropriate initial antifungal?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: E — Caspofungin — an echinocandin
IDSA: echinocandin (caspofungin, micafungin, anidulafungin) is first-line for invasive candidiasis in critically ill patients — covers fluconazole-resistant Candida species, low toxicity, once-daily dosing. Mandatory: remove CVC + perform fundoscopic exam (endophthalmitis risk).
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Fluconazole 400 mg IV daily — first-line for all candidiasis — Incorrect. Fluconazole is appropriate for stable, non-neutropenic patients with fluconazole-susceptible isolates, and for step-down therapy. In a critically ill ICU patient with prior broad-spectrum exposure, echinocandins are preferred because resistant species are common.
  • Amphotericin B — broadest coverage, so first-line — Incorrect. Amphotericin has broad activity and is an alternative, particularly for CNS disease, but its nephrotoxicity and infusion reactions make it second-line when an echinocandin is available.
  • Voriconazole — covers Candida and Aspergillus — Incorrect. Voriconazole covers both organisms but offers no advantage over an echinocandin for candidemia, and it carries significant drug interactions, visual disturbance, and hepatotoxicity.
  • Oral nystatin — adequate for systemic candidiasis — Incorrect. Nystatin is not absorbed from the gut and works only topically in the oropharynx and GI lumen. It has no systemic activity and would leave candidemia entirely untreated.
Board pearlAn echinocandin — caspofungin, micafungin, or anidulafungin — is first-line for invasive candidiasis in the critically ill, because it covers fluconazole-resistant species such as C. glabrata and C. auris. Two steps are mandatory alongside the drug and are commonly the tested point: remove the central venous catheter and obtain a dilated fundoscopic examination for endophthalmitis. Step down to fluconazole only once the isolate is susceptible and the patient is stable. The classic setup is an ICU patient on broad-spectrum antibiotics with a central line and parenteral nutrition.
Covered below under Module 22 — Candidiasis
Tier 1
Topic 8 ★ Gap Added
Influenza
Oseltamivir Timing · High-Risk Groups · Zanamivir Contraindication · Reye Syndrome
Core Recognition
  • Classic: Abrupt onset fever (38.5–40°C) + myalgias + headache + dry cough + malaise — "hit by a truck" feeling
  • vs. Common cold: Flu = sudden onset, high fever, prominent myalgias. Cold = gradual, mild/no fever, nasal congestion predominant.
  • Diagnosis: Rapid influenza diagnostic test (RIDT) — fast but low sensitivity (~70%). RT-PCR is gold standard. Treat empirically if high clinical suspicion even if RIDT negative.
  • Complications: Primary influenza pneumonia; secondary bacterial pneumonia (S. pneumoniae, MRSA, H. influenzae); myocarditis; encephalitis
High-Risk Groups for Complications
  • Age ≥65 or <5 years (especially <2)
  • Pregnancy (up to 2 weeks postpartum)
  • Chronic conditions: pulmonary (COPD, asthma), cardiovascular, renal, hepatic, DM
  • Immunocompromised; Obesity (BMI ≥40); Long-term care facility residents
Antiviral Treatment
DrugRoute/DurationBoard Key
Oseltamivir (Tamiflu)75mg BID × 5 days POFirst-line for most patients. Safe in pregnancy. Adjust for renal impairment.
Zanamivir (Relenza)2 inhalations BID × 5 days (inhaled)CONTRAINDICATED in asthma/COPD — risk of severe bronchospasm
Baloxavir marboxil (Xofluza)Single oral dose (weight-based)Alternative for uncomplicated flu in low-risk outpatients
IV peramivir600mg IV × 1 doseFor hospitalized patients who cannot take oral/inhaled medications
⚑ Antiviral Timing — The Critical Rule
  • Maximum benefit within 48 hours of symptom onset — reduces duration ~1–2 days
  • Treat high-risk patients regardless of symptom duration — benefit persists beyond 48h in hospitalized/high-risk
  • Low-risk patients with symptoms >48h: Antivirals unlikely to benefit — supportive care
  • Treat confirmed or suspected flu WITHOUT waiting for test results in high-risk patients
Vaccination
  • Annual influenza vaccination for everyone ≥6 months
  • Adults ≥65: High-dose (Fluzone HD) or adjuvanted (Fluad) — superior immunogenicity
  • Live attenuated (FluMist): Preferred for healthy non-pregnant adults 2–49 years. Contraindicated: immunocompromised, pregnant, asthma/severe wheeze, <2yr, >49yr.
⚑ Board Traps — Influenza
  • Oseltamivir within 48 hours for maximum benefit — but give to high-risk patients regardless of duration
  • Zanamivir (inhaled) CONTRAINDICATED in asthma and COPD — severe bronchospasm risk
  • Negative rapid test does NOT rule out influenza — sensitivity ~70%. Treat if suspicious in high-risk patient.
  • Aspirin/salicylates CONTRAINDICATED in children with influenza — Reye syndrome (hepatic failure + encephalopathy)
  • Secondary MRSA pneumonia post-influenza: Patient improves then suddenly deteriorates → MRSA pneumonia. Add vancomycin or linezolid.
★ Memory Trick
Tamiflu timing: "48-hour rule — best within 48h. But give anyway in high-risk or hospitalized." Zanamivir: "Inhaled = no asthma, no COPD — bronchospasm risk" "Negative rapid test ≠ no flu — only 70% sensitive. Treat if suspicious." "Aspirin in kids + flu = Reye syndrome — NEVER" Secondary bacterial pneumonia: "Gets better → gets MUCH worse = MRSA. Add vancomycin."
Tier 1
Topic 9 ★ Gap Added
COVID-19 (SARS-CoV-2)
Paxlovid · Ritonavir CYP3A4 Interactions · Dexamethasone Indication · COVID-19 Antivirals
Antiviral Treatment — High-Risk Outpatients
DrugMechanism/DurationBoard Key
Nirmatrelvir/ritonavir (Paxlovid)Protease inhibitor + CYP3A4 inhibitor booster. 5 days PO. Start within 5 days of onset.Multiple CYP3A4 drug interactions via ritonavir. ~85% reduction in hospitalization/death in high-risk.
RemdesivirRNA polymerase inhibitor. 3 days IV (outpatient) or 5 days IV (hospitalized non-ventilated)3-day IV course for high-risk outpatients who cannot take oral medications
MolnupiravirRNA polymerase inhibitor (mutagenic). 5 days PO.Less effective than Paxlovid. CONTRAINDICATED in pregnancy — mutagenic potential.
Dexamethasone 6mg/day × ≤10dAnti-inflammatoryONLY for hospitalized patients requiring O₂ or ventilatory support (RECOVERY trial). AVOID in non-O₂-requiring outpatients.
Paxlovid Drug Interactions — Critical for PANCE

Ritonavir is a potent CYP3A4 inhibitor — dramatically increases levels of co-administered drugs:

Drug CategoryExamplesAction Required
CYP3A4-metabolized statinsAtorvastatin, simvastatin, lovastatinHOLD during Paxlovid course — risk of myopathy/rhabdomyolysis. OK: rosuvastatin, pravastatin.
DOACsRivaroxaban, apixaban, warfarinDose adjustment or hold. Increase INR monitoring for warfarin.
ImmunosuppressantsTacrolimus, cyclosporine, sirolimusDramatic level increase → toxicity. Urgent dose reduction + level monitoring.
CYP3A4 inducers (reduce Paxlovid efficacy)Carbamazepine, phenytoin, phenobarbital, rifampinThese LOWER Paxlovid levels → choose alternative antiviral
Cardiac drugsAmiodarone, dronedarone, ranolazineAvoid — risk of serious arrhythmias
Severe / Hospitalized COVID-19
  • Dexamethasone 6mg daily × ≤10 days: All hospitalized patients requiring supplemental O₂ (RECOVERY trial)
  • Remdesivir 5-day course: For hospitalized patients not yet requiring mechanical ventilation
  • Baricitinib or tocilizumab: For rapidly increasing O₂ requirements
  • Therapeutic anticoagulation: Markedly elevated D-dimer = high VTE risk
⚑ Board Traps — COVID-19
  • Paxlovid drug interactions are a major board topic — hold CYP3A4-metabolized statins. Check tacrolimus in transplant patients. Anticoagulation dose adjustment.
  • Dexamethasone ONLY for O₂-requiring hospitalized patients — may worsen outcomes in non-hypoxic outpatients
  • Molnupiravir CONTRAINDICATED in pregnancy — mutagenic
  • Paxlovid "rebound": Symptom recurrence 2–8 days after completing course — supportive care; re-treatment not routine
  • Negative rapid antigen test in symptomatic patient: Confirm with PCR if clinical suspicion high
  • Start Paxlovid within 5 days of symptom onset
★ Memory Trick
Paxlovid: "Start within 5 days — check ALL medications for CYP3A4 interactions" "Hold the CYP3A4 statins (atorvastatin, simvastatin) — ritonavir makes levels skyrocket" Dexamethasone: "Only when they need O₂ — don't use in mild outpatient disease" Molnupiravir in pregnancy: "Mutagenic = NEVER in pregnancy"
Module D · Must-Know Differentials
High-Yield Differentials & Distinguishing Features
These five differentials represent the highest-frequency diagnostic challenges in infectious disease on the PANCE/PANRE. Each framework targets the single pivotal feature that separates one diagnosis from another — the exact decision point boards test.
Tier 1
Differential D-1
Fever + Rash — The Must-Not-Miss Differential
RMSF · Meningococcemia · Viral Exanthem · Drug Reaction · Secondary Syphilis · Toxic Shock
★★★ Most-Tested ID DifferentialMultiple Fatal Diagnosis Traps
The Pivotal Distinguishing Feature Table
DiagnosisRash CharacterKey Distinguishing FeatureCannot Miss
Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever (RMSF)Blanching macules/papules → petechiae → purpura. Starts wrists/ankles → spreads centrally (centripetal). Palms and soles involved.Tick exposure history (Dermacentor tick). Fever + rash on palms/soles = RMSF until proven otherwise.Start doxycycline IMMEDIATELY — do NOT wait for confirmatory testing. Delay = death. Even in children.
Meningococcemia (N. meningitidis)Petechial/purpuric rash — non-blanching. Rapid spread. May progress to purpura fulminans.Abrupt onset high fever + meningismus + non-blanching petechiae = meningococcemia. College student, complement deficiency, asplenia are risk factors.Blood cultures + IV ceftriaxone immediately. Rifampin prophylaxis for close contacts. Waterhouse-Friderichsen = bilateral adrenal hemorrhage.
Viral Exanthem (measles, rubella, EBV, enterovirus)Maculopapular, erythematous, blanching. Spreads cephalocaudally (head to toe) in measles.Koplik spots (white dots on buccal mucosa) = measles pathognomonic. EBV: posterior cervical lymphadenopathy + splenomegaly + atypical lymphocytes.Amoxicillin rash in EBV is maculopapular, not urticarial — does NOT mean penicillin allergy.
Drug-Induced Exanthem / SJS / TENMaculopapular → urticarial. SJS: targetoid lesions + mucosal involvement + epidermal detachment <10% BSA. TEN: >30% BSA detachment.Onset 1–3 weeks after starting new drug (allopurinol, sulfonamides, anticonvulsants, NSAIDs). Mucosal involvement = SJS/TEN not simple drug rash.SJS/TEN: stop the offending drug immediately. Burn unit care. Steroids controversial. Mortality in TEN up to 30%.
Secondary SyphilisCopper-colored maculopapular rash — characteristically involves palms and soles. Non-pruritic.Diffuse rash + palms/soles + lymphadenopathy + condyloma lata + 4–10 weeks after primary chancre. RPR/VDRL positive.Secondary syphilis rash is non-pruritic — if the rash itches, reconsider. Palm/sole involvement is the classic board clue.
Toxic Shock Syndrome (TSS)Diffuse sunburn-like erythroderma. Desquamation of palms/soles occurs 1–2 weeks later.Tampon use or wound infection + fever >38.9 + hypotension + diffuse sunburn rash + multi-organ involvement. S. aureus toxin (TSST-1) mediated.Streptococcal TSS is more severe (higher mortality ~30–60%). Source control (remove tampon, debride wound) is critical.
⚑ Board Traps — Fever + Rash
  • RMSF: "Rocky Mountain" is a misnomer — most cases occur in the South Atlantic states (North/South Carolina, Oklahoma, Arkansas, Tennessee). Not just the Rocky Mountains. History of tick bite in any endemic area = RMSF until proven otherwise.
  • Start doxycycline for RMSF before lab confirmation — indirect fluorescent antibody testing takes time. The window period (day 3–5 of illness) is when rash appears. Waiting for confirmation = death. This principle is tested repeatedly.
  • Amoxicillin rash in EBV is NOT a penicillin allergy — it is a pharmacologic reaction from the immune activation of EBV interacting with the aminopenicillin. The patient is NOT truly allergic and should not have "penicillin allergy" in their chart.
  • Non-blanching petechiae/purpura = emergent situation — meningococcemia or RMSF. Do not dismiss petechiae as "viral" in a febrile patient. A glass-press test (skin blanching with pressure) distinguishes purpura (non-blanching) from viral rash (blanching).
★ Memory Trick
RMSF: "Palms + Soles + Tick exposure = doxycycline NOW — don't wait" Meningococcemia: "Non-blanching petechiae + sick-looking patient = blood cultures + ceftriaxone" Secondary syphilis: "Copper penny rash on palms and soles = syphilis. Check RPR." "Fever + Rash + Sick = Doxy first, ask questions later"
Tier 1
Differential D-2
Meningitis — CSF Pattern Interpretation
Bacterial vs Viral vs Fungal vs TB · Opening Pressure · Cell Count · Glucose · Protein
★★★ PANCE PriorityLP Sequencing Trap
CSF Pattern Recognition — The Most-Tested Table in ID
TypeOpening PressureWBC (cells/μL)Predominant CellGlucoseProteinKey Feature
Bacterial↑↑ (>200)>1000 (100–10,000)Neutrophils (PMN)↓↓ (<45 mg/dL or <60% serum)↑↑ (>100 mg/dL)Gram stain + culture. Empiric: ceftriaxone + vancomycin + dexamethasone ± ampicillin
Viral (Aseptic)Normal or mildly ↑10–500 (usually <300)LymphocytesNormal (≥45)Normal or mildly ↑ (<100)Enteroviruses most common. HSV: lymphocytic pleocytosis + RBCs + temporal lobe changes. PCR diagnosis.
Fungal (Cryptococcus)↑↑↑ (often >300)5–100 (may be very low in immunosuppressed)Lymphocytes↓↑India ink positive (60–80%). Cryptococcal antigen (CSF + serum) >99% sensitivity. HIV + CD4 <100.
TB Meningitis↑100–500Lymphocytes (early PMN possible)↓↓ (very low, can be <20)↑↑ (>100–500)Basilar meningitis on MRI. AFB smear low sensitivity. ADA elevated. Treat empirically if suspected.
Lyme MeningitisNormal or mildly ↑10–200LymphocytesNormalMildly ↑Lymphocytic pleocytosis + Lyme serology (ELISA → Western blot). Treat with IV ceftriaxone × 14–28 days.
LP Sequencing — The Most Tested Clinical Decision
⚑ The LP Decision Tree — Never Delay Antibiotics
  • No papilledema + no focal deficits + immunocompetent: Dexamethasone + antibiotics FIRST → LP immediately after (or simultaneously)
  • Papilledema OR focal deficits OR immunocompromised OR seizure: Blood cultures + dexamethasone + antibiotics → CT head → LP if safe
  • The golden rule: NEVER delay antibiotics waiting for CT or LP. Mortality increases ~7% for every hour of antibiotic delay in bacterial meningitis.
  • CSF culture remains positive for 2–4 hours after antibiotic administration — the LP is still valuable even if antibiotics have been given
⚑ Board Traps — Meningitis
  • Cephalosporins have ZERO Listeria coverage — add ampicillin for age >50, neonates, pregnancy, and immunocompromised. This is the most tested meningitis drug selection fact.
  • Dexamethasone before or with first antibiotic dose — proven to reduce neurological sequelae in S. pneumoniae meningitis. After the first dose, steroids lose benefit.
  • Cryptococcal meningitis: very high opening pressure — may need therapeutic LP to reduce ICP (target <20 cmH₂O). Treatment: liposomal amphotericin B + flucytosine induction → fluconazole consolidation/maintenance.
  • HSV encephalitis: Lymphocytic pleocytosis + RBCs in CSF + temporal lobe involvement on MRI + fever + altered mental status = treat empirically with IV acyclovir before PCR results return.
Tier 1
Differential D-3
Fever in the Immunocompromised Host
HIV CD4 Thresholds · Neutropenic Fever · Transplant Recipient · Steroid-Induced Immunosuppression
★★★ PANCE Priority
HIV — CD4-Guided Differential
CD4 CountOI Prophylaxis ThresholdMust-Consider InfectionsBoard Key
<500No specific prophylaxis; start ARTBacterial pneumonia, TB reactivation, oral candidiasis, VZV reactivationStart ART regardless of CD4 — U=U (undetectable = untransmittable)
<200PCP prophylaxis: TMP-SMX DS daily (/atovaquone/pentamidine)Pneumocystis jirovecii (PCP) — bilateral GGO, dry cough, LDH elevatedPCP: TMP-SMX is treatment AND prophylaxis. Add prednisone if PaO₂ <70.
<100Toxoplasma prophylaxis: TMP-SMX DS covers both PCP and ToxoToxoplasmosis (multiple ring-enhancing lesions), Cryptococcal meningitis (India ink +, very high OP)Single ring-enhancing lesion = lymphoma. Multiple = toxo. Empiric toxo treatment × 2 weeks; if no improvement → biopsy.
<50MAC prophylaxis: azithromycin weeklyCMV retinitis (floaters + visual loss + "pizza pie" fundus), MAC (fever + weight loss + night sweats + elevated ALP), HistoplasmaCMV retinitis: IV ganciclovir (or oral valganciclovir). Irreversible blindness if untreated — urgent ophthalmology.
Neutropenic Fever — The Oncology Emergency
  • Definition: ANC <500 (or <1000 with predicted fall to <500) + single temperature ≥38.3°C OR ≥38°C sustained × 1 hour
  • Empiric antibiotic: anti-pseudomonal beta-lactam — cefepime, piperacillin-tazobactam, or meropenem. Within 1 hour of fever.
  • Add vancomycin ONLY if: hemodynamic instability, suspected CRBSI, pneumonia, skin/soft tissue infection, or known MRSA colonization — NOT routinely
  • Anti-fungal empiric therapy: Add if fever persists >4–7 days on antibiotics — echinocandin or liposomal amphotericin
  • G-CSF: Consider in high-risk neutropenic fever to accelerate ANC recovery
⚑ Board Traps — Immunocompromised Fever
  • TMP-SMX DS covers BOTH PCP prophylaxis AND Toxoplasma prophylaxis — one drug, two benefits. If a patient is on TMP-SMX, they are protected against both. If they cannot tolerate TMP-SMX, they need separate prophylaxis for each.
  • Single vs multiple ring-enhancing lesions in HIV: Single = CNS lymphoma (EBV-associated). Multiple = toxoplasmosis. Treat empirically for toxo × 2 weeks; if no improvement → brain biopsy for lymphoma. This exact scenario is tested every exam cycle.
  • CMV retinitis is an emergency — vision loss is irreversible without prompt treatment. Any HIV patient with CD4 <50 reporting visual symptoms (floaters, decreased acuity) needs urgent fundoscopic exam and ganciclovir.
  • Cryptococcal meningitis: therapeutic lumbar puncture for elevated ICP — the very high opening pressure causes vision loss and death independent of the infection itself. Drain CSF to target OP <20 cmH₂O daily until controlled.
Tier 1
Differential D-4
Infectious Diarrhea — Toxin-Mediated vs Invasive vs C. diff
Incubation Timing · Organism-to-Mechanism Mapping · When to Treat vs Observe · Anti-motility Traps
★★★ PANCE PriorityAnti-motility Agent Traps
Incubation Time → Organism Identification
IncubationMechanismOrganismKey FeatureTreatment
1–6 hoursPreformed toxinS. aureus (staph toxin), B. cereus (emetic)Rapid onset vomiting > diarrhea. Often after eating rice (B. cereus) or egg salad/deli meats (S. aureus). No fever.Supportive only — toxin already formed, antibiotics useless
8–16 hoursPreformed toxinC. perfringens, B. cereus (diarrheal)Diarrhea after beef stew, cafeteria food. Mild, self-limited <24h.Supportive only
1–3 daysInvasive / toxin-producingSalmonella, Shigella, Campylobacter, ETEC, VibrioFever + bloody diarrhea (Shigella, Campylobacter, Salmonella). ETEC = traveler's diarrhea (watery, no blood). Vibrio after raw oysters.Shigella: azithromycin or fluoroquinolone. Campylobacter: azithromycin. Salmonella: usually self-limited; treat if immunocompromised or <3 months.
3–5 daysShiga toxin + invasiveSTEC (E. coli O157:H7), EHECBloody diarrhea + HUS (microangiopathic hemolytic anemia + thrombocytopenia + AKI). Children and elderly.DO NOT give antibiotics — increases Shiga toxin release and HUS risk. Supportive care. No anti-motility agents.
Variable (post-antibiotic)Toxin A+B mediatedC. difficileRecent antibiotics + watery diarrhea ± pseudomembranes on colonoscopy. WBC >15K + Cr rise = severe.Vancomycin PO or fidaxomicin. Stop offending antibiotic. Contact precautions. Soap and water (alcohol gel fails).
Anti-motility Agents — The Board Trap Drug List
⚑ NEVER Give Anti-motility Agents (Loperamide, Diphenoxylate) in These Situations
  • E. coli O157:H7 / STEC infection — slows toxin clearance → increases HUS risk
  • Shigella (bloody dysentery) — prolongs illness, increases risk of toxic megacolon
  • C. difficile colitis — slows toxin clearance, can precipitate toxic megacolon
  • Febrile dysentery with bloody stool — any invasive bacterial cause. Anti-motility = harmful.
  • Safe to use: ETEC (watery traveler's diarrhea without blood or fever), viral gastroenteritis
⚑ Board Traps — Infectious Diarrhea
  • Antibiotics for E. coli O157:H7 increase HUS risk — the most dangerous ID board trap. STEC produces Shiga toxin. Antibiotics trigger toxin release → HUS. Never treat STEC with antibiotics.
  • Salmonella bacteremia risk: treat non-typhoidal Salmonella only if immunocompromised, <3 months old, or bacteremic — otherwise the illness is self-limited and antibiotics prolong the carrier state.
  • C. diff: metronidazole is no longer first-line — oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin for all initial episodes. Metro IV only in fulminant CDI with ileus + oral/rectal vancomycin simultaneously.
Tier 1
Differential D-5
Antibiotic Selection — Coverage Gaps & Contraindications
Penicillin Allergy Cross-Reactivity · MRSA Drugs · Anaerobic Coverage · Atypical Coverage · Pregnancy Safety
★★★ Most-Tested ID Pharmacology
Coverage Gaps — The Most Tested Antibiotic Facts
AntibioticDoes NOT CoverBoard Trap Scenario
Cephalosporins (all generations)Listeria monocytogenes, Enterococcus, MRSA (except ceftaroline)Immunocompromised meningitis — add ampicillin for Listeria coverage
NitrofurantoinSystemic infection, pyelonephritis, bacteremia, Proteus, Klebsiella (variable)Patient with pyelo started on nitrofurantoin — inadequate renal tissue levels
Azithromycin (macrolides)MRSA, gram-negatives (except atypicals)Gonorrhea treatment — azithromycin no longer recommended; ceftriaxone monotherapy per CDC 2021
MetronidazoleAerobic organisms, MRSABeing added to aspiration pneumonia — increases mortality per IDSA 2019 without benefit
TMP-SMXβ-hemolytic Streptococci, Pseudomonas, EnterococcusNon-purulent cellulitis — TMP-SMX targets MRSA but misses Strep; use cephalexin instead
FluoroquinolonesMRSA (except some activity), Bacteroides, EnterococcusCipro for aspiration pneumonia — no anaerobic or atypical coverage in older formulations
VancomycinGram-negative organisms, VRE (some strains), biofilm (needs higher levels)VISA/VRSA: use linezolid or daptomycin
Penicillin Allergy — The Most Over-Documented Allergy
  • ~90% of patients labeled "penicillin allergic" are not truly allergic — most reactions are non-allergic side effects (GI intolerance, rash without anaphylaxis).
  • Cross-reactivity between penicillin and cephalosporins: ~1–2% (much lower than previously thought 10%). Shared R1 side chain determines cross-reactivity, not the beta-lactam ring itself.
  • Cephalosporins are safe in patients with penicillin allergy UNLESS: prior anaphylaxis to penicillin AND structurally similar cephalosporin (same R1 side chain). Penicillin skin testing remains gold standard for evaluation.
  • Carbapenems: cross-reactivity with penicillin is very low (<1%) — can generally be used even with penicillin allergy history, especially if not anaphylaxis.
Antibiotic Contraindications in Special Populations
AntibioticContraindicated InAlternative
Doxycycline / TetracyclinesPregnancy (all trimesters), children <8 yearsAzithromycin in pregnancy. Amoxicillin for Lyme in kids <8. Exception: no alternative for RMSF — doxycycline is used even in children <8 if RMSF suspected.
FluoroquinolonesChildren (theoretical cartilage damage), pregnancy (relative CI), myasthenia gravis (worsens NMJ block)Beta-lactams for most pediatric/pregnancy infections. Avoid in MG.
NitrofurantoinPyelonephritis, bacteremia, CrCl <30 (inadequate concentration), term pregnancy (>38 weeks — risk of neonatal hemolytic anemia)Cephalexin or fosfomycin for UTI in pregnancy at term
MetronidazoleFirst trimester pregnancy (relative — teratogenicity concern); alcohol use during treatmentTopical metronidazole safer in first trimester. Avoid alcohol during and 48h after treatment.
AminoglycosidesPregnancy (ototoxicity/nephrotoxicity), CKD (nephrotoxic)Use with caution, monitor levels. Avoid if possible in pregnancy.
⚑ Board Traps — Antibiotic Selection
  • Doxycycline in children <8: ONE exception — RMSF. The risk of dental staining/bone effects from a short doxycycline course is far outweighed by the risk of death from untreated RMSF. Doxycycline is the drug of choice for RMSF in ALL ages.
  • Nitrofurantoin cannot be used for pyelonephritis — inadequate renal parenchymal levels. This is tested by giving a patient with fever + CVA tenderness + UTI a nitrofurantoin prescription and asking what's wrong.
  • Cephalosporins do NOT cover Listeria or Enterococcus — frequently tested in meningitis and endocarditis questions. For endocarditis caused by Enterococcus, penicillin/ampicillin + gentamicin is required.
Module E · Comprehensive Board Pearls
Board Pearls — Organized by Domain
These pearls represent the exact clinical decision points most frequently tested on PANCE/PANRE infectious disease questions — the specific facts and paradigm shifts that separate passing from failing candidates.
Tier 1
Board Pearls — Sepsis, CAP & Respiratory Infections
Sepsis-3 · SSC Bundle · CAP Antibiotics · Meningitis Sequence · Influenza
★★★ Highest Yield
  • Sepsis-3 = SOFA ≥2, NOT SIRS. qSOFA is a screening tool only — do NOT use qSOFA alone to diagnose sepsis per SSC 2021.
  • Norepinephrine is first-line vasopressor for septic shock — NOT dopamine (higher arrhythmia risk, SOAP II trial). Vasopressin is second-line at 0.03 units/min. Peripheral vasopressor initiation is now acceptable — do not wait for central access.
  • The 30 mL/kg crystalloid recommendation was downgraded to WEAK in SSC 2021. Use dynamic measures (passive leg raise, pulse pressure variation) to guide further resuscitation. Balanced crystalloids (LR) preferred over normal saline.
  • CAP inpatient regimen: ceftriaxone + azithromycin. Metronidazole added to aspiration pneumonia increases mortality — no anaerobic coverage in standard CAP. Reserve for lung abscess with putrid sputum.
  • Meningitis antibiotic sequence: dexamethasone BEFORE or WITH first antibiotic dose. Steroids given after the first dose provide no benefit. Never delay antibiotics for CT or LP.
  • Ampicillin must be added for Listeria coverage in patients >50 years, neonates, pregnant women, and immunocompromised. Cephalosporins have zero Listeria activity.
  • Influenza: negative rapid test does NOT exclude influenza — sensitivity only ~70%. Treat high-risk patients with oseltamivir regardless of test result and regardless of symptom duration.
  • Zanamivir (inhaled) is contraindicated in COPD and asthma — risk of severe bronchospasm. Use oral oseltamivir in all respiratory disease patients.
  • Reye syndrome: Aspirin + viral illness (influenza, VZV) in children → acute encephalopathy + liver failure. Never give aspirin to children with viral illness.
Tier 1
Board Pearls — STIs, C. diff, HIV & Lyme
CDC 2021 STI Updates · C. diff Paradigm Shifts · HIV CD4 Thresholds · Lyme Staging
★★★ Highest YieldMultiple Guideline Update Traps
  • Gonorrhea: ceftriaxone MONOTHERAPY — no azithromycin co-treatment (CDC 2021). Azithromycin-resistant gonorrhea increased significantly. If chlamydia not excluded by NAAT, add doxycycline 100mg BID × 7 days separately.
  • Chlamydia: doxycycline preferred over azithromycin (CDC 2021). Azithromycin has higher rectal chlamydia treatment failure rates. Doxycycline × 7 days is now first-line.
  • Syphilis in pregnancy: penicillin is the ONLY acceptable treatment. Doxycycline contraindicated. Azithromycin has ~30% failure rate. Desensitization is mandatory even with anaphylaxis history.
  • Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction: Fever + chills + rigors within 24 hours of penicillin treatment for syphilis (or Lyme, leptospirosis). NOT an allergic reaction. Treat with antipyretics + reassurance. Do NOT stop antibiotics.
  • C. diff: metronidazole is no longer first-line. Oral vancomycin 125mg QID × 10 days OR fidaxomicin 200mg BID × 10 days for ALL initial CDI episodes. Metro IV only in fulminant CDI with ileus + oral/rectal vancomycin.
  • C. diff hand hygiene: soap and water required — alcohol gel does NOT kill spores. The most important infection control distinction for C. diff. Tested every exam cycle.
  • FMT (fecal microbiota transplant) >85% cure rate for recurrent CDI — superior to antibiotics for ≥3 recurrences. Bezlotoxumab (anti-toxin B monoclonal antibody) reduces recurrence in high-risk patients.
  • HIV CD4 thresholds — memorize all four: <200 = PCP prophylaxis (TMP-SMX). <100 = add Toxo prophylaxis (TMP-SMX covers both). <50 = add MAC prophylaxis (azithromycin weekly) + CMV risk. U=U: start ART immediately regardless of CD4.
  • Single ring-enhancing lesion in HIV = CNS lymphoma (EBV). Multiple lesions = toxoplasmosis. Empirically treat for toxo × 2 weeks; if no improvement → brain biopsy. Serum Toxoplasma IgG negative = toxo less likely (95% sensitive for prior exposure).
  • Lyme bilateral facial palsy = Stage 2 early disseminated disease. Treat with oral doxycycline × 14–21 days (not IV unless CNS involvement beyond isolated cranial neuropathy). Positive serology persists for years after treatment — do NOT re-treat based on serology alone.
Tier 1
Board Pearls — Endocarditis, SSTI & Fungal Infections
Duke Criteria · Organism-Patient Pairing · Necrotizing Fasciitis · Invasive Candidiasis · Antifungal Selection
★★★ Highest Yield
  • S. gallolyticus (bovis) endocarditis = colonoscopy mandatory. ~60% association with colorectal neoplasia. Non-negotiable board fact — appears in every ID exam.
  • S. aureus endocarditis in IVDU: tricuspid valve. Strep viridans: mitral/aortic (after dental procedure). Gram-negative (HACEK): subacute, large friable vegetations. Enterococcus: GI/GU procedures.
  • Osler nodes = tender (immune complex deposition). Janeway lesions = painless (septic emboli). Both are peripheral stigmata of endocarditis — the tenderness is the distinguishing feature.
  • Duke Criteria: 2 major, 1 major + 3 minor, or 5 minor = definite endocarditis. Major criteria: positive blood cultures (standard organisms × 2, or persistent) + positive echocardiogram (vegetation, abscess, or new prosthetic dehiscence).
  • Non-purulent cellulitis: β-hemolytic strep, treat with cephalexin — NOT TMP-SMX. Purulent/abscess: presumed S. aureus/MRSA, treat with TMP-SMX + I&D.
  • Necrotizing fasciitis: surgical debridement is the only cure. "Dishwater fluid" + crepitus + pain out of proportion + rapidly spreading = emergent surgery. No antibiotic regimen is sufficient without debridement.
  • Invasive candidiasis in ICU: echinocandin first-line (caspofungin, micafungin, anidulafungin). Fluconazole acceptable for stable patients with susceptible species. Mandatorily: remove all CVCs and perform fundoscopic exam (endophthalmitis in ~5–10%).
  • Aspergillus: halo sign on CT (ground-glass halo around pulmonary nodule) in neutropenic/immunocompromised patient. First-line treatment: voriconazole (NOT amphotericin B — inferior per IDSA 2016 guidelines).
  • Geographic fungi memory map: Ohio/Mississippi valley = Histoplasma. Southwest US desert = Coccidioides. Great Lakes/Pacific Northwest = Blastomyces.
  • Coccidioidomycosis meningitis: lifelong fluconazole maintenance required — 100% relapse rate if stopped. Unlike most other fungal infections, cannot be "cured" and discontinued.
Tier 1
Board Pearls — COVID-19, Antivirals & ID Pharmacology
Paxlovid CYP3A4 · Dexamethasone Threshold · COVID-19 Antivirals · RIPE Toxicity · Drug Interactions
★★★ Highest Yield
  • Paxlovid (nirmatrelvir/ritonavir): ritonavir is a potent CYP3A4 inhibitor. Check all medications before prescribing. Critical interactions: rivaroxaban, apixaban (increased bleeding), tacrolimus/cyclosporine (toxic levels), statin toxicity, many others. Always use an interaction checker.
  • Paxlovid window: must be prescribed within 5 days of symptom onset. Most effective within 3 days. Not beneficial after day 5 of symptoms.
  • Molnupiravir is contraindicated in pregnancy — mutagenic mechanism (incorporates into viral RNA). Women of childbearing age must use effective contraception during and 4 days after treatment.
  • Dexamethasone in COVID-19: only for patients requiring supplemental oxygen or ventilation. RECOVERY trial: dexamethasone 6mg daily × 10 days reduces mortality in moderate-severe COVID. Harms patients who do NOT need oxygen.
  • Remdesivir: 3-day IV course for non-hospitalized high-risk COVID-19 within 7 days of symptom onset. Also used for hospitalized patients not on mechanical ventilation.
  • RIPE therapy toxicity — memorize all four: Rifampin = orange body fluids (benign) + potent CYP450 inducer (reduces OCP/warfarin/methadone levels). Isoniazid = peripheral neuropathy (give B6/pyridoxine) + hepatotoxicity. Pyrazinamide = hyperuricemia (gout). Ethambutol = optic neuritis (monitor color vision monthly).
  • Rifampin drug interactions: reduces levels of warfarin, OCPs, methadone, many HIV antiretrovirals, azole antifungals, steroids. Counsel patients on alternative contraception. May precipitate TB treatment failure if interacting drugs not adjusted.
  • Doxycycline in children <8: use for RMSF regardless of age. The mortality risk of untreated RMSF (high) vastly exceeds the risk of dental staining from a short doxycycline course. This is explicitly stated in CDC guidelines.
  • Tick prophylaxis after Ixodes bite: single dose doxycycline 200mg within 72 hours if tick attached ≥36 hours, in an endemic area, and patient is not pregnant and is ≥8 years old. Reduces risk of Lyme transmission by ~87%.
  • Amphotericin B toxicity: infusion-related reactions (fever, rigors, hypotension) + nephrotoxicity. Pre-medicate with acetaminophen + diphenhydramine ± meperidine for rigors. Liposomal formulation has significantly less nephrotoxicity — preferred in most settings.
Clinical Emergency List
10 "Don't Miss" ID Emergencies
1. Septic Shock
MAP <65 + vasopressor requirement + lactate >2 after fluids. Mortality >40%. Start norepinephrine peripherally — do NOT wait for central line. Antibiotics within 1 hour. Blood cultures first but do NOT delay antibiotics. Hydrocortisone 200mg/day if vasopressor-refractory.
2. Bacterial Meningitis
Fever + headache + neck stiffness. Petechiae/purpura = N. meningitidis emergency. Dexamethasone + antibiotics FIRST. Never delay for CT or LP. Blood cultures → dexa → vanc + ceftriaxone (+ ampicillin if >50/immunocompromised) → LP/CT. Hours to permanent damage.
3. Necrotizing Fasciitis
"Pain out of proportion to exam" + rapid skin progression + crepitus. Immediate surgical debridement. CT (gas in fascia) if unclear — do NOT delay surgery for imaging if NF is clinically obvious. Broad-spectrum IV antibiotics (vanc + pip-tazo). Mortality increases 9% per hour of surgical delay.
4. Waterhouse-Friderichsen Syndrome
Meningococcal septicemia → bilateral adrenal hemorrhage → DIC + purpura fulminans + cardiovascular collapse. Treat meningococcal infection + stress-dose corticosteroids (hydrocortisone 100mg IV bolus) immediately. DIC management: FFP, platelets. Prophylaxis for contacts: rifampin, cipro, or IM ceftriaxone × 1 dose.
5. Cryptococcal Meningitis with Elevated ICP
LP opening pressure >25 cm H₂O + cryptococcal meningitis. ALWAYS measure opening pressure. Elevated ICP causes vision loss, hearing loss, and death from herniation. Serial therapeutic LPs (remove 20–30 mL, target OP <20 cm) or lumbar drain. Start amphotericin B + flucytosine immediately.
6. Fulminant C. difficile Colitis
Hypotension + ileus + toxic megacolon (colon >6cm) + WBC >30K. Vancomycin 500mg PO QID + metronidazole 500mg IV TID + vancomycin per rectum (if ileus). Surgical consultation urgently. Colectomy if peritonitis, perforation, or no response in 24–48h. Stop all inciting antibiotics.
7. Invasive Aspergillosis in Neutropenia
Prolonged fever in neutropenic patient + CT "halo sign" (GGO surrounding nodule). Start voriconazole empirically — do NOT wait for culture confirmation. Galactomannan from BAL/serum. G-CSF to recover neutrophil count. Mortality >50% untreated.
8. Severe Lyme Carditis (3rd-Degree AV Block)
Young patient (endemic area) + complete heart block + Lyme serology positive. Temporary transvenous pacemaker for hemodynamic instability + IV ceftriaxone 2g daily × 14–21 days. AV block typically resolves completely — permanent pacemaker rarely needed.
9. Secondary MRSA Pneumonia Post-Influenza
Patient improving from flu → sudden clinical deterioration → new cavitating infiltrates + high fever. Think MRSA post-influenza pneumonia. S. aureus (including MRSA) is the most common secondary pathogen. Add vancomycin or linezolid. High mortality — early recognition is critical.
10. Toxic Shock Syndrome
Staph TSS: Fever + diffuse erythroderma ("sunburn rash") + hypotension + multi-organ failure. Retained tampon, nasal packing, wound. Remove source immediately. IV vancomycin + clindamycin (suppresses toxin production). Streptococcal TSS: Group A Strep, often with NF — surgical debridement + penicillin + clindamycin + IVIG.
Chapter Summary
Top 22 ID Board Traps
The patterns that consistently separate passing from failing on ID questions.
22 Traps · All Domains
1
Sepsis — Definition
Sepsis-3 = ORGAN DYSFUNCTION (SOFA ≥2), NOT SIRS. qSOFA is a screening tool NOT a diagnostic criterion — SSC 2021 recommends AGAINST using qSOFA alone.
2
Sepsis — Vasopressor
Norepinephrine is first-line (NOT dopamine). Vasopressin is second-line. Peripheral initiation is acceptable — do NOT wait for central venous access.
3
CAP — Aspiration
Do NOT add anaerobic coverage for aspiration pneumonia — 5–6% higher mortality (ATS/IDSA 2019). Standard CAP antibiotics are adequate.
4
UTI — Nitrofurantoin
Nitrofurantoin = CYSTITIS ONLY. Does not achieve adequate renal tissue concentrations. NEVER for pyelonephritis. Same rule applies to fosfomycin.
5
UTI — ASB
Treat ASB ONLY in pregnancy and before urologic procedures. Do NOT treat in elderly, diabetics, catheterized patients, or nursing home residents.
6
Meningitis — Listeria
Add AMPICILLIN for Listeria in patients >50, neonates, pregnant, immunocompromised. Cephalosporins have ZERO Listeria activity.
7
Meningitis — Dexamethasone
Dexamethasone BEFORE or WITH first antibiotic dose — post-antibiotic dexa has NO benefit. Never delay antibiotics for LP or CT.
8
Endocarditis — S. bovis
S. bovis/gallolyticus IE = mandatory colonoscopy (~60% colorectal neoplasia). Osler = painful (immune). Janeway = painless (septic emboli).
9
STI — Gonorrhea
Gonorrhea = ceftriaxone MONOTHERAPY — azithromycin co-treatment NO LONGER recommended (CDC 2021). Chlamydia = doxycycline PREFERRED over azithromycin.
10
STI — Syphilis in Pregnancy
Penicillin ONLY for syphilis in pregnancy. If penicillin-allergic → desensitize and treat. Doxycycline and azithromycin are NOT alternatives in pregnancy.
11
C. diff — Metronidazole
Metronidazole NO LONGER first-line for CDI. Vancomycin or fidaxomicin for all initial episodes. Metro IV only in fulminant CDI with ileus.
12
C. diff — Hand Hygiene
Soap and water only for C. diff — alcohol sanitizers do NOT kill spores. This is the key infection control distinction from other pathogens.
13
HIV — Ring Lesion
Single ring-enhancing lesion = CNS lymphoma (EBV). Multiple = Toxoplasmosis. TMP-SMX provides dual prophylaxis for PCP AND Toxo below CD4 <100.
14
HIV — MAC Prophylaxis
MAC prophylaxis NO LONGER routinely recommended if ART is started immediately (2024 update). PCP corticosteroids required if PaO₂ <70 or A-a gradient >35.
15
SSTI — MRSA Coverage
Nonpurulent cellulitis = β-hemolytic Streptococcus, NOT MRSA. Routine MRSA coverage not indicated. Purulent SSTI: I&D is primary treatment — antibiotics alone insufficient.
16
Lyme — Bilateral Bell Palsy
Bilateral Bell palsy = Lyme disease until proven otherwise. Bull's-eye rash = treat without serology in endemic area. Post-treatment serology stays positive — ≠ active infection.
17
Influenza — Testing
Negative rapid influenza test does NOT rule out influenza (sensitivity ~70%). Treat high-risk patients regardless of test result or duration. Zanamivir CONTRAINDICATED in asthma/COPD.
18
COVID — Dexamethasone
Dexamethasone ONLY for O₂-requiring hospitalized patients. Do NOT give to non-hypoxic outpatients — may worsen early disease.
19
COVID — Paxlovid
Ritonavir (Paxlovid) = potent CYP3A4 inhibitor. Hold atorvastatin/simvastatin. Adjust rivaroxaban/apixaban/warfarin. Tacrolimus levels increase dramatically.
20
Fungal — Invasive Candida
Echinocandin (caspofungin/micafungin) first-line for invasive candidiasis — not fluconazole empirically. Fundoscopic exam mandatory in ALL candidemic patients.
21
TB — TST Cutoffs
The TST cutoff depends on the patient: 5 / 10 / 15 mm. ≥5 mm: HIV, recent close contact, fibrotic CXR, immunosuppressed. ≥10 mm: health care workers, recent immigrants, IVDU, children <5, diabetes/ESRD. ≥15 mm: no risk factors. Prior BCG does NOT raise the cutoff — use an IGRA.
22
TB — Latent vs Active
NEVER treat latent TB before excluding active disease — single-drug therapy against active TB breeds resistance. A positive TST/IGRA is never the endpoint: the next step is ALWAYS chest X-ray + symptom screen. Active TB is reportable to the health department.
Quick-Scan Reference — Numbers That Win Points
SEPSIS ANTIBIOTICS
Within 1 hour
Each hour delay ↑ mortality ~7%
SYPHILIS IN PREGNANCY
Penicillin ONLY
Desensitize if allergic
HIV OI THRESHOLDS
<200 PCP · <100 Toxo
<50 CMV, MAC, CNS lymphoma
C. DIFF SEVERITY
Severe: WBC >15K or Cr ≥1.5
Fulminant: hypotension/ileus
TICK PROPHYLAXIS
Doxy 200mg × 1 dose
If attached ≥36 hours
TAMIFLU TIMING
Best <48h onset
Give anyway if high-risk
PAXLOVID WINDOW
Within 5 days onset
Check ALL CYP3A4 interactions
RIPE THERAPY (TB)
2 months RIPE
+ 4 months RI = 6 months total
⬡ Closing Statement
"Infectious disease on the PANCE tests judgment, not just drug names. The metronidazole that's no longer first-line for C. diff. The nitrofurantoin that stops at the bladder. The dexa that must come before the antibiotic. The ampicillin forgotten in the immunocompromised patient with meningitis. These are not trick questions — they are the exact decisions that separate the clinician who causes harm from the one who prevents it."
— Rajiv Choudhary, MD, MPH
● LIVE STRIP25mm/s
⚑ Board Trap