🎯 Core Six 📚 Extended ★ Gap Topics 🔀 Differentials 💎 Board Pearls ⚡ Fast Review 🚨 Emergencies
PANCE · PANRE · Board Prep Intensive

Infectious Disease
Bootcamp Syllabus

Complete Infectious Disease Bootcamp Syllabus — 14 clinical topics, reorganized so the six core PANCE ID topics come first. Now expanded with Module D: Must-Know Differentials (7 high-yield diagnostic frameworks) and Module E: Board Pearls (domain-organized clinical decision points). Board questions available in the companion document.

14Clinical Topics
7Must-Know Differentials
2New Modules Added
10Rapid Fire Pearls
10Don't Miss Emergencies
Tier Key:
Tier 1 — Must Know
Tier 2 — Important
Tier 3 — Lower yield
★ = Gap topic added
Part 1 · The Core Six
Core PANCE Infectious Disease Topics
The six topics that carry the most weight on the PANCE and PANRE. Work these first, in this order — each opens with pre-read questions, then the full topic card.
Before you beginHIV/AIDS & Opportunistic Infections3 questions
Answer these three before you read the topic. Getting them wrong is expected and useful — attempting a question first is what makes the material below stick. Each explanation unlocks only after you submit.
Question 1 of 3 · High Yield · HIV · PCP Corticosteroids
A 44-year-old with HIV (CD4 58) has PCP confirmed on BAL. PaO₂ is 55 mmHg on room air. Which is MOST appropriate in addition to TMP-SMX?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: B — Add adjunctive prednisone alongside TMP-SMX
Adjunctive corticosteroids are standard of care for moderate-to-severe PCP when PaO₂ <70 mmHg or A-a gradient >35. Reduces mortality ~50%. Regimen: prednisone 40mg BID × 5d → 40mg daily × 5d → 20mg daily × 11d. Start within 72 hours of TMP-SMX.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Immediate intubation, deferring adjunctive therapy — Incorrect. A PaO₂ of 55 is significant hypoxemia but does not itself mandate intubation in a patient who can be supported with oxygen and steroids. Premature intubation adds ventilator-associated risk.
  • No adjunctive therapy — TMP-SMX alone suffices — Incorrect. Antimicrobial therapy alone misses a major mortality benefit. TMP-SMX causes organism lysis with a resulting inflammatory surge that can transiently worsen oxygenation — steroids blunt this.
  • Add rifampin for empiric mycobacterial coverage — Incorrect. There is nothing to suggest mycobacterial disease, and PCP has been confirmed on bronchoalveolar lavage. Rifampin also induces CYP enzymes and interacts extensively with antiretrovirals.
  • Add fluconazole for empiric fungal coverage — Incorrect. Although Pneumocystis is taxonomically a fungus, it lacks ergosterol in its membrane and is not susceptible to azoles. Fluconazole has no activity against it.
Board pearlAdd prednisone to TMP-SMX when PaO₂ is under 70 mmHg or the A-a gradient exceeds 35 — it roughly halves mortality in moderate-to-severe PCP, and it should start within 72 hours rather than being held in reserve. The mechanism is the same one behind dexamethasone in meningitis: killing the organism releases inflammation that itself injures the lung. Anchor the CD4 thresholds too — PCP prophylaxis below 200, toxoplasmosis below 100, MAC below 50.
Covered below under Topic 1 — HIV/AIDS & Opportunistic Infections · PCP
Question 2 of 3 · High Yield · Cryptococcal Meningitis — Therapeutic LP
A 32-year-old man newly diagnosed with HIV (CD4 68, HIV RNA 240,000) has a 2-week history of headache, fever, and neck stiffness. Cryptococcal meningitis is diagnosed. What urgent procedure must be performed immediately, regardless of antifungal treatment, and why?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: A — Urgent therapeutic lumbar puncture to lower intracranial pressure
In cryptococcal meningitis, elevated intracranial pressure is the primary cause of morbidity and mortality, often more so than the infection itself — many cryptococcal meningitis deaths result from uncontrolled ICP rather than the fungal infection per se. Therapeutic lumbar puncture, performed to lower opening pressure to a target of less than 20 cmH2O, is an urgent and essential intervention that must be performed in addition to (not instead of) antifungal therapy. Treatment includes liposomal amphotericin B plus flucytosine for induction therapy, but ICP management via repeated therapeutic LPs (or other CSF diversion procedures if LPs are insufficient) is equally critical.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • No urgent procedure; liposomal amphotericin plus flucytosine alone — Incorrect. This misses the critical and frequently overlooked concept that ICP management via therapeutic LP is an essential PARALLEL intervention, not something that can be omitted if antifungals are started — failure to address elevated ICP is a leading cause of death even when antifungal therapy is appropriately administered.
  • Urgent neurosurgical shunt before any antifungal therapy — Incorrect. While shunt placement may eventually be needed in refractory cases of elevated ICP not controlled by repeated therapeutic LPs, it is not the immediate first step — therapeutic LP is the initial urgent intervention, performed alongside (not instead of) starting antifungal therapy.
  • CT-guided brain biopsy to confirm the diagnosis first — Incorrect. Cryptococcal meningitis diagnosis relies on CSF analysis (cryptococcal antigen testing, India ink staining, fungal culture), not brain biopsy — biopsy is not a standard or necessary diagnostic step and would unnecessarily delay urgent treatment.
  • Urgent dexamethasone, as in bacterial meningitis — Incorrect. Unlike bacterial meningitis, corticosteroids are NOT routinely recommended in cryptococcal meningitis and may even be harmful in some contexts — the priority intervention for elevated ICP in cryptococcal meningitis is therapeutic LP, not steroids.
Board pearlIn cryptococcal meningitis the pressure kills before the fungus does, so a therapeutic lumbar puncture to bring the opening pressure below 20 cmH₂O is urgent, and repeated taps are often needed. Induction is amphotericin B plus flucytosine, then fluconazole consolidation. The counterintuitive part: delay antiretroviral therapy by roughly 4 to 6 weeks, because starting it early risks immune reconstitution inflammatory syndrome in a closed cranial space. Diagnose with CSF cryptococcal antigen, which outperforms India ink.
Covered below under Topic 1 — HIV/AIDS & Opportunistic Infections · CNS infection
Question 3 of 3 · High Yield · HIV · CD4 Thresholds for OI Prophylaxis
A 34-year-old man is newly diagnosed with HIV. His CD4 count is 150 cells/µL and his viral load is 62,000 copies/mL. He is asymptomatic, has a normal chest radiograph, and has no drug allergies. Antiretroviral therapy is being started today. Which opportunistic infection prophylaxis should be initiated at this CD4 count?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: E — TMP-SMX one DS tablet daily for Pneumocystis jirovecii
Primary prophylaxis against Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia is indicated once the CD4 count falls below 200 cells/µL — or when the CD4 percentage is under 14%, or oropharyngeal candidiasis is present regardless of count. At 150 cells/µL this patient is squarely within that window. TMP-SMX one double-strength tablet daily is the agent of choice, and it carries a second advantage worth knowing: the same drug also provides prophylaxis against Toxoplasma gondii, which becomes relevant below 100 cells/µL. Alternatives for sulfa intolerance are dapsone (check G6PD first), atovaquone, or aerosolized pentamidine — and note that pentamidine offers no toxoplasmosis coverage. Prophylaxis may be discontinued once ART has raised the CD4 count above 200 cells/µL and held it there for at least 3 months.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Azithromycin 1200 mg weekly for Mycobacterium avium complex — Incorrect on two levels. The MAC threshold is CD4 <50 cells/µL, not 150, so this patient is nowhere near it. Beyond the number, current guidance no longer routinely recommends MAC prophylaxis at all in patients who are starting effective ART immediately, since prompt viral suppression raises the CD4 count faster than MAC risk accrues.
  • Fluconazole 200 mg daily for cryptococcal prophylaxis — Incorrect. Routine primary antifungal prophylaxis against Cryptococcus is not recommended in the United States. The incidence does not justify the cost, the drug interactions, or the azole resistance pressure. Cryptococcal disease is managed by recognizing and treating it, not by prophylaxing everyone below a threshold.
  • Valganciclovir 900 mg daily for cytomegalovirus prophylaxis — Incorrect. No routine primary CMV prophylaxis is given. CMV end-organ disease (classically retinitis) is a concern below CD4 <50, and the strategy there is dilated fundoscopic screening and preemptive treatment — not universal antiviral prophylaxis, which carries significant marrow toxicity.
  • No prophylaxis — ART alone suffices at this CD4 count — Incorrect, and the clinically dangerous choice. Starting ART immediately is absolutely correct and should happen regardless of CD4 count — but CD4 recovery takes months, and the patient remains at risk for PCP throughout that interval. ART and prophylaxis are started together; one does not substitute for the other.
Board pearlCommit the three thresholds to memory: CD4 <200 → PCP prophylaxis with TMP-SMX. CD4 <100 → Toxoplasma also covered (same TMP-SMX, no new drug). CD4 <50 → CMV and MAC territory. TMP-SMX covering two organisms at once is the single most efficient fact in HIV pharmacology. Two further points boards lean on: ART is started in every HIV-positive patient regardless of CD4 count, as soon as possible after diagnosis — there is no CD4 threshold for treatment, only for prophylaxis — and prophylaxis is stopped only after the CD4 stays above 200 for 3 months on suppressive therapy. If the stem gives you a sulfa allergy, reach for dapsone after checking G6PD, and remember that aerosolized pentamidine leaves Toxoplasma uncovered.
Covered below under Topic 1 — HIV/AIDS & Opportunistic Infections
Tier 1
Topic 1
HIV/AIDS & Opportunistic Infections
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CD4 Thresholds · PCP / Toxo / Crypto / CMV / MAC · IRIS · TMP-SMX Dual Coverage
Diagnosis & Screening
  • USPSTF: Screen all persons aged 15–65 at least once; all pregnant persons every pregnancy
  • Diagnostic algorithm: 4th-gen Ag/Ab combo → confirmatory HIV-1/HIV-2 differentiation immunoassay → if indeterminate → HIV-1 RNA (NAT)
  • Acute HIV: p24 antigen positive before antibodies → mononucleosis-like illness 2–4 weeks post-exposure
OI Prophylaxis by CD4 Count
CD4 ThresholdOIProphylaxisBoard Key
<200PCP (Pneumocystis jirovecii)TMP-SMX DS daily — FIRST-LINEMost important OI prophylaxis drug
<100Toxoplasma (if seropositive)TMP-SMX DS daily — covers BOTH PCP AND ToxoOne drug = two OIs covered
<100Cryptococcus (if CrAg+)Fluconazole 200mg dailyScreen with serum CrAg in high-prevalence areas
<150 (endemic)HistoplasmosisItraconazole 200mg dailyOhio/Mississippi valleys only
Any CD4LTBIINH × 9mo or rifampin × 4mo + pyridoxineScreen all HIV patients with TST/IGRA
Any CD4MACNO LONGER routinely recommended if ART started immediately (2024 update)Major guideline change
OI Presentations — High-Yield Patterns
OICD4Classic PresentationKey DxTreatment
PCP<200Bilateral diffuse GGO on CT; elevated LDH; hypoxia worsens with exertion; dry cough; CXR may be NORMAL earlySputum or BAL silver stain/DFATMP-SMX high dose × 21d. Add prednisone if PaO₂ <70 or A-a gradient >35.
Toxoplasmosis<100Multiple ring-enhancing lesions on MRI; headache; focal deficitsMRI + toxo serology. Empiric treatment.Pyrimethamine + sulfadiazine + leucovorin
Crypto meningitis<100Headache, fever, elevated opening pressure on LP; India ink positiveALWAYS measure opening pressure. CrAg serum + CSF.Amphotericin B + flucytosine (induction × 2wk) → fluconazole maintenance
CMV retinitis<50"Pizza pie" fundoscopy (hemorrhages + exudates). Vision loss.Ophthalmologic examValganciclovir PO or ganciclovir IV
MAC<50Fever, night sweats, weight loss, diarrhea, elevated alk phosMycobacterial blood culturesAzithromycin + ethambutol
CNS Lymphoma<50SINGLE ring-enhancing lesion; EBV-associatedCSF EBV DNA; biopsy if no toxo responseRadiation ± chemo; poor prognosis
⚑ Board Traps — HIV/OIs
  • TMP-SMX = DUAL prophylaxis for PCP AND Toxoplasma — below CD4 <100, one drug covers both OIs
  • Single ring-enhancing = CNS lymphoma (EBV). Multiple = Toxoplasmosis.
  • PCP: CXR may be NORMAL early — CT is more sensitive. Elevated LDH + bilateral GGO = classic.
  • Crypto meningitis: ALWAYS measure opening pressure — elevated ICP (>25 cm H₂O) causes vision loss and death. Therapeutic LPs mandatory.
  • IRIS: Paradoxical worsening of OI symptoms weeks after starting ART — recovering immune system attacks existing infection.
  • MAC prophylaxis NO LONGER routinely recommended if ART started immediately (2024)
  • PCP corticosteroids: Required if PaO₂ <70 or A-a gradient >35 — reduces mortality ~50%
★ Memory Trick
CD4 <200: PCP → TMP-SMX CD4 <100: Add Toxo (TMP-SMX covers both) → "two-for-one" CD4 <50: CMV + MAC + CNS lymphoma → "the deadly fifty" "Single ring = Lymphoma (EBV). Multiple rings = Toxo." "Crypto: ALWAYS check the pressure — elevated ICP kills faster than the fungus"
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Everything in the full Infectious Disease syllabus
18 fully-worked clinical topics
Interactive SVG anatomy diagrams
Module D — must-know differentials
Module E — domain board pearls
Animated EKG strips & 12-lead viewer
Audio mnemonics per topic
20 PANCE-style board questions
Clinical vignettes + teaching pearls
🔒 UTI — Cystitis & Pyelonephritis 🔒 Bacterial Meningitis 🔒 Infective Endocarditis 🔒 Sexually Transmitted Infections (STIs) 🔒 Clostridioides difficile Infection (CDI) 🔒 Skin & Soft Tissue Infections 🔒 Lyme Disease 🔒 Influenza 🔒 COVID-19 (SARS-CoV-2) 🔒 Fungal Infections 🔒 Acute Rheumatic Fever 🔒 EBV & Infectious Mononucleosis 🔒 Varicella-Zoster & Herpes Simplex + 5 more topics
📚5 complete systems
🎯Pre & post-rotation assessment
📟Full EKG library
🩺84 clinical vignettes
👨‍⚕️Dr. Rajiv Choudhary, MD MPH
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Before you beginUTI — Cystitis & Pyelonephritis1 question
Answer this one before you read the topic. Getting it wrong is expected and useful — attempting a question first is what makes the material below stick. The explanation unlocks only after you submit.
Enter your bootcamp access code above to unlock these questions along with the rest of this chapter.
Question 1 of 1 · Medium · Uncomplicated Cystitis Treatment
A 24-year-old healthy, afebrile woman has 2 days of dysuria, frequency, and urgency. Urinalysis shows positive leukocyte esterase, positive nitrites, and 30-50 WBC/hpf. Her first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin. In which clinical scenario would nitrofurantoin be an inappropriate choice, requiring a different antibiotic?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: A — If pyelonephritis were present instead
This patient has uncomplicated cystitis (afebrile, no flank pain, classic lower UTI symptoms), for which nitrofurantoin x5 days or TMP-SMX x3 days are first-line options. However, nitrofurantoin is specifically inappropriate for pyelonephritis (upper UTI) because it does not achieve adequate tissue concentrations in the renal parenchyma — it only concentrates effectively in the bladder/urine, making it ineffective for treating kidney parenchymal infection. A fluoroquinolone or other agent with adequate tissue penetration is needed for pyelonephritis.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • If her creatinine clearance were normal at above 60 mL/min — Incorrect. — this describes a scenario where nitrofurantoin IS appropriate, not where it should be avoided. Nitrofurantoin should be avoided in significant renal impairment (CrCl <30), not in patients with normal renal function.
  • If she had no known allergy to sulfonamide antibiotics — Incorrect. Absence of drug allergies is not a reason to avoid nitrofurantoin — this describes a scenario favoring its use, not contraindicating it.
  • If she were not pregnant at the time of treatment — Incorrect. Nitrofurantoin is actually considered safe in most stages of pregnancy (with caution near term due to theoretical risk of hemolytic anemia in the newborn) — non-pregnancy status does not contraindicate its use; if anything, pregnancy requires more caution, not less.
  • If local nitrofurantoin resistance rates were below 20% — Incorrect. — this describes conditions favorable to nitrofurantoin use (low local resistance supports empiric use), not a contraindication. The 20% resistance threshold concept actually applies to TMP-SMX selection guidance, not as a reason to avoid nitrofurantoin specifically.
Board pearlNitrofurantoin concentrates in urine, not renal tissue, so it treats cystitis and fails pyelonephritis — the single most testable UTI distinction. First-line for uncomplicated cystitis is nitrofurantoin for 5 days, TMP-SMX for 3 days where resistance is under 20%, or fosfomycin as a single dose; fluoroquinolones are held back for pyelonephritis and complicated disease. Fever or flank pain moves the patient out of the cystitis pathway entirely.
Covered below under Topic 2 — UTI, Cystitis & Pyelonephritis
Tier 1
Topic 2
UTI — Cystitis & Pyelonephritis
2025 IDSA Reclassification · Nitrofurantoin Limitation · ASB Rules · Duration of Therapy · Pregnancy
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2025 IDSA Reclassification — What "Complicated" Actually Means

The 2025 IDSA guidelines changed how UTI is classified. Diabetes, immunocompromise, and benign prostatic hyperplasia alone do NOT make a UTI "complicated" if the infection appears confined to the bladder — both men and women can now have uncomplicated UTI.

  • Complicated UTI = infection extending beyond the bladder: pyelonephritis, febrile/bacteremic UTI, or CAUTI
  • Signs of complicated UTI: fever, chills, rigors, hemodynamic instability, flank pain, CVA tenderness

🚨 Classic Trap: A diabetic woman with isolated dysuria and no systemic signs has UNCOMPLICATED cystitis under the 2025 reclassification — don't reflexively label her "complicated" based on her diabetes alone.

Microbiology
OrganismFrequencyKey Notes
E. coli75–90%Most common cause of both uncomplicated and complicated UTI
Klebsiella pneumoniae6–8%Second most common Gram-negative
S. saprophyticus5–6%#2 cause in young sexually active women — classic board question
Proteus mirabilis2–5%Urease-producing → alkaline urine → struvite (staghorn) stones
Enterococcus~5%Intrinsically resistant to cephalosporins
Pseudomonas<5%More common in catheterized/healthcare-associated UTI

🩺 PANCE Pearl: S. saprophyticus is coagulase-negative and novobiocin-RESISTANT — this distinguishes it from S. epidermidis, which is novobiocin-sensitive. A classic board differentiator.

Cystitis vs Pyelonephritis
CystitisPyelonephritis
SymptomsDysuria, frequency, urgency, suprapubic pain. NO fever.Cystitis symptoms + fever, rigors, CVA tenderness, N/V
Culture required?NOT mandatory in non-pregnant women with typical symptomsALWAYS obtain — confirmatory test is ≥10,000 CFU/mL of a uropathogen
First-line RxNitrofurantoin, TMP-SMX, fosfomycin, or pivmecillinamFluoroquinolone (outpatient) or IV ceftriaxone/cefepime/pip-tazo (inpatient)
Nitrofurantoin OK?YES — high urine concentrationNO — inadequate renal tissue levels

🩺 PANCE Pearl: Urine culture is recommended for recurrent UTI, treatment failure, atypical presentation, men, and age ≥65 — even in suspected cystitis.

Urinalysis Interpretation
  • Nitrites: high specificity (~95%) but low sensitivity (~50%) — only produced by Gram-negative Enterobacteriaceae. NOT produced by Enterococcus, Staphylococcus, or Pseudomonas
  • Leukocyte esterase: sensitive but less specific
  • Pyuria alone ≠ UTI — common in elderly with incontinence and in catheterized patients
  • A negative dipstick does NOT rule out UTI in a patient with high pretest probability

🚨 Classic Trap: Sterile pyuria differential — TB of the urinary tract, interstitial nephritis, nephrolithiasis, urethritis (Chlamydia), recently treated UTI, bladder cancer. Don't assume "no growth + WBCs" means lab error.

Imaging — When (and When NOT) to Order It

Uncomplicated pyelonephritis responding to therapy does NOT need imaging. Order CT abdomen/pelvis only for:

  • Sepsis or septic shock
  • Known or suspected urolithiasis
  • Urine pH ≥7.0 (suggests urease-producing organism/obstruction)
  • New GFR decrease to ≤40 mL/min (suggests obstruction)
  • Failure to improve after 48–72 hours of appropriate therapy

CT with contrast detects abscess/gas; CT without contrast detects stones; ultrasound is preferred in pregnancy and is more sensitive for hydronephrosis.

🚨 Classic Trap: Do NOT order imaging for uncomplicated pyelonephritis that is improving on therapy — this is a frequently tested unnecessary-testing trap.

Treatment — Uncomplicated Cystitis (First-Line)
AgentDoseDurationKey Notes
Nitrofurantoin100mg BID5 daysTake with food; avoid if CrCl <30 (label says <60); NEVER for pyelonephritis
TMP-SMX160/800mg BID3 daysOnly if local resistance <20%; avoid if recent use
Fosfomycin3g1 doseConvenient but may be less effective than multi-day regimens
Pivmecillinam400mg TID3 daysRecently FDA-approved in the US for uncomplicated UTI in women

🚨 Classic Trap: Do NOT use amoxicillin or ampicillin empirically — E. coli resistance rates exceed 40%. Fluoroquinolones are NOT first-line for uncomplicated cystitis (reserved for pyelonephritis/invasive infection).

Treatment — Acute Pyelonephritis
  • Outpatient (uncomplicated): Ciprofloxacin 500mg BID × 5–7d, or levofloxacin 750mg daily × 5d, or TMP-SMX × 7–14d (ONLY if susceptibility confirmed)
  • If local fluoroquinolone resistance >10%: give one dose of long-acting parenteral antibiotic (ceftriaxone 1g IV/IM or an aminoglycoside) BEFORE starting oral therapy
  • Inpatient, no sepsis: ceftriaxone, cefepime, piperacillin-tazobactam, or a fluoroquinolone
  • Inpatient with sepsis or ESBL/MDR risk: carbapenems (meropenem, ertapenem), novel beta-lactam/beta-lactamase inhibitors, or cefiderocol

🚨 Classic Trap: TMP-SMX should NOT be used empirically for pyelonephritis — resistance rates approach 20% in many US regions. Use only after susceptibility is confirmed.

Duration of Therapy — 2025 IDSA
SyndromeDuration
Uncomplicated cystitis (women)3–5 days (agent-dependent)
Uncomplicated cystitis (men)7 days
Pyelonephritis (fluoroquinolone)5–7 days
Pyelonephritis (non-fluoroquinolone)7 days
Gram-negative bacteremia, urinary source7 days if afebrile/stable/source controlled
CAUTI7 days (up to 10–14 if slow response)

🩺 PANCE Pearl: Shorter courses (5–7 days) are as effective as longer courses (10–14 days) per meta-analysis — this is a major 2025 update. Men with complicated UTI may still benefit from 10–14 days given occult prostatitis risk.

Special Populations
  • Pregnancy: screen ALL patients with urine culture early in prenatal care; treat ASB if ≥10⁵ CFU/mL. Safe: nitrofurantoin, cephalexin, amoxicillin-clavulanate, fosfomycin. AVOID amoxicillin/ampicillin alone (resistance) and fluoroquinolones (teratogenic). Nitrofurantoin contraindicated at term (38–42 wks — neonatal hemolytic anemia); TMP-SMX avoided in 1st trimester (neural tube defects) and last 8 weeks (kernicterus). Pyelonephritis in pregnancy → ADMIT for IV antibiotics.
  • CAUTI: bacteriuria ≥10³ CFU/mL + symptoms + catheter within 48h. Do NOT treat asymptomatic bacteriuria or obtain cultures in asymptomatic catheterized patients. Management = remove/exchange catheter + systemic antibiotics.
  • Men: UTI is uncommon before age 60 — always obtain culture. Consider occult prostatitis in febrile UTI without flank pain.
⚑ Asymptomatic Bacteriuria — Treat ONLY These Two
  • Pregnancy — reduces risk of pyelonephritis, preterm birth, low birth weight
  • Before endourological procedures with mucosal trauma (TURP, cystoscopy with biopsy)
  • Do NOT treat ASB in: elderly, diabetics, catheterized patients, spinal cord injury, pre-op (non-urologic), renal transplant >1 month post-transplant, or delirium alone without urinary/systemic symptoms

🚨 Classic Trap: Treating ASB in the elderly does NOT reduce mortality, does NOT prevent symptomatic UTI, and INCREASES C. diff risk and antimicrobial resistance. Delirium alone in an elderly patient with bacteriuria should prompt evaluation for OTHER causes of delirium — not reflexive antibiotics.

Recurrent UTI & Prevention

Defined as ≥3 UTIs/year or ≥2 in 6 months. Evidence-based preventive measures:

  • Adequate fluid intake (≥1.5 L/day)
  • Cranberry products (modest benefit)
  • Methenamine hippurate (effective for prevention)
  • Vaginal estrogen in postmenopausal women
  • Antibiotic prophylaxis (continuous low-dose or post-coital) for refractory cases

🩺 PANCE Pearl: "Honeymoon cystitis" — UTI associated with intercourse — responds well to post-coital prophylaxis with a single dose of TMP-SMX or nitrofurantoin.

High-Yield Severe Pyelonephritis Variants
  • Emphysematous pyelonephritis: gas-forming infection, most common in diabetics. CT shows gas in renal parenchyma. Medical emergency — IV antibiotics ± drainage ± nephrectomy.
  • Xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis: chronic destructive granulomatous process, often with Proteus or E. coli and staghorn calculi. CT shows "bear paw sign." Treatment = nephrectomy.
  • Renal cortical abscess (carbuncle): usually hematogenous spread of S. aureus. Perinephric abscess: usually ascending UTI with Gram-negatives. Both may require drainage.
⚑ Board Traps — UTI Summary
  • Nitrofurantoin = CYSTITIS ONLY — does not penetrate renal tissue. Never for pyelonephritis.
  • Fosfomycin = CYSTITIS ONLY — same limitation
  • Fluoroquinolones = FIRST-LINE for pyelonephritis — but NOT for uncomplicated cystitis
  • TMP-SMX resistance >20% in many US regions — do NOT use empirically for pyelo
  • CAUTI: Most represent ASB — treat only if symptomatic. Remove catheter if possible.
  • Proteus mirabilis → urease → alkaline urine (pH >7) → struvite (staghorn) stones
  • Do NOT treat cloudy or malodorous urine in the absence of symptoms
★ Memory Trick
Nitrofurantoin: "Stays in the URINE — perfect for cystitis, NEVER for pyelo (can't reach kidneys)" FQs: "Tissue penetration = pyelo drug" ASB: "Treat only the PREGNANT and PRE-PROCEDURAL — no one else" Nitrofurantoin long-term: can cause pulmonary fibrosis (chronic use) or acute hypersensitivity pneumonitis, plus hepatotoxicity and peripheral neuropathy.
Clinical Vignette
A 28-year-old pregnant woman at 14 weeks has a urine culture showing 100,000 CFU/mL E. coli. She has no dysuria or fever. What is the most appropriate management?
Answer: Treat — asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnancy is one of only two indications to treat ASB. Use nitrofurantoin 100mg BID × 5 days or cephalexin. Avoid nitrofurantoin near term (38–42 weeks) due to neonatal hemolytic anemia risk.
Before you beginSexually Transmitted Infections1 question
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Question 1 of 1 · High Yield · Syphilis · Staging Drives Duration
A 30-year-old woman presents with a single painless, firm, indurated genital ulcer with a clean base that she first noticed about 3 weeks ago. There is mild non-tender inguinal adenopathy. She has no rash, no mucous patches, and no neurologic or ocular symptoms. RPR is reactive at 1:32 and FTA-ABS is positive. She has no drug allergies and is not pregnant. What stage does this represent, and what is the correct treatment?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: E — Primary syphilis — benzathine penicillin G 2.4 million units IM as a single dose
A solitary painless, indurated, clean-based ulcer is the chancre of primary syphilis. Reactive nontreponemal (RPR) plus confirmatory treponemal (FTA-ABS) testing establishes the diagnosis; the stage is determined by the clinical findings, not by the titer. The single most testable point in syphilis is that staging drives duration, not drug: primary, secondary, and early latent syphilis all receive one intramuscular dose of benzathine penicillin G 2.4 million units. The weekly × 3 regimen belongs to late latent disease and latent syphilis of unknown duration. Follow-up is with quantitative nontreponemal titers at 6 and 12 months, where a fourfold (two-dilution) decline — here 1:32 down to 1:8 — defines an adequate serologic response.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Primary syphilis — benzathine penicillin G 2.4 million units IM weekly × 3 doses — Incorrect, and the highest-yield distractor on this topic. The stage is identified correctly, but the duration is wrong. Three weekly doses are reserved for late latent syphilis or latent syphilis of unknown duration, where the organism burden is low and replication is slow. Over-treating primary syphilis is not the tested error; the tested error is applying the weekly regimen to early disease and thereby signaling that you have not learned which regimen maps to which stage.
  • Secondary syphilis — benzathine penicillin G 2.4 million units IM weekly × 3 doses — Incorrect on both counts. Secondary syphilis presents with a diffuse non-pruritic copper-colored maculopapular rash involving the palms and soles, condylomata lata, mucous patches, and generalized lymphadenopathy — not with a chancre. And even when secondary disease is present, the treatment remains a single dose.
  • Latent syphilis of unknown duration — doxycycline 100 mg orally BID × 28 days — Incorrect. Latent syphilis is by definition seroreactivity without clinical findings; this patient has an active lesion, so she cannot be latent. Doxycycline 100 mg BID (14 days for early disease, 28 days for late latent) is only an alternative for the non-pregnant penicillin-allergic patient — never the preferred agent when penicillin can be given.
  • Neurosyphilis — IV aqueous crystalline penicillin G every 4 hours × 10–14 days — Incorrect. Neurosyphilis requires neurologic, ocular, or otic findings to justify lumbar puncture and IV therapy. This patient has none. Reflexively escalating to IV penicillin exposes the patient to a central line and 10–14 days of inpatient or infusion therapy for no benefit.
Board pearlPainless indurated ulcer = chancre = primary syphilis. Herpes is the painful one; syphilis is the painless one, and that single adjective decides the question. Memorize the duration map: primary, secondary, and early latent all get ONE dose of benzathine penicillin G 2.4 million units IM — late latent and unknown duration get three weekly dosesneurosyphilis gets IV aqueous penicillin G for 10–14 days. In pregnancy, penicillin is the only acceptable therapy; a penicillin-allergic pregnant patient must be desensitized, never switched to doxycycline (teratogenic) or azithromycin (resistance and treatment failure). Expect the Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction — fever, chills, myalgias, and headache within 24 hours of the first dose — and recognize it as expected endotoxin release, not an allergy and not a reason to stop treatment.
Covered below under Topic 3 — Sexually Transmitted Infections (STIs)
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Topic 3
Sexually Transmitted Infections (STIs)
CDC 2021 · Doxy > Azithro · Ceftriaxone Monotherapy · Syphilis Stages & Serology
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CDC 2021 Treatment Summary
STIFirst-Line TreatmentKey Change / Board Trap
ChlamydiaDoxycycline 100mg BID × 7 daysDoxy NOW PREFERRED over azithromycin — better efficacy, especially rectal chlamydia
GonorrheaCeftriaxone 500mg IM × 1 (1g if ≥150kg)Azithromycin co-treatment NO LONGER recommended — ceftriaxone MONOTHERAPY
Syphilis — Primary/Secondary/Early LatentBenzathine penicillin G 2.4 MU IM × 1Penicillin ONLY in pregnancy — if allergic, desensitize
Syphilis — Late Latent/Unknown DurationBenzathine penicillin G 2.4 MU IM weekly × 3 (total 7.2 MU)3 weekly doses
NeurosyphilisIV aqueous crystalline penicillin G × 10–14 daysCan occur at ANY stage — evaluate for ocular/otic/neuro symptoms in all syphilis
PIDCeftriaxone 500mg IM + doxycycline × 14d + metronidazole × 14dMetro NOW routinely added for anaerobic coverage (2021 update)
TrichomoniasisWomen: Metro 500mg BID × 7d | Men: 2g × 17-day course preferred for women
Genital herpes (1st episode)Acyclovir 400mg TID × 7–10dValacyclovir 1g BID is an alternative
Syphilis Serology — Critical Distinction
Test TypeTestsUseBoard Key
Non-treponemal (quantitative)RPR, VDRLScreening + monitoring treatment response (titers fall with effective treatment)Can be false-positive: pregnancy, lupus, viral infections
Treponemal (confirmatory)FTA-ABS, TP-PAConfirmatory. Remain POSITIVE FOR LIFE even after cure.Do NOT use to monitor treatment response — positive forever
⚑ Board Traps — STIs
  • Doxycycline PREFERRED over azithromycin for chlamydia — azithromycin has lower cure rates for rectal chlamydia
  • Gonorrhea = ceftriaxone MONOTHERAPY — azithromycin co-treatment no longer recommended
  • Penicillin ONLY for syphilis in pregnancy — doxycycline contraindicated; desensitize if allergic
  • Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction: Fever + myalgias within 24h of syphilis treatment → supportive care only. Do NOT stop antibiotics.
  • Neurosyphilis can occur at ANY stage — not just tertiary
  • RPR/VDRL = use for monitoring. FTA-ABS = stays positive forever.
★ Memory Trick
Chlamydia: "Doxy > Azithro — Doxy wins in 2021" Gonorrhea: "Ceftriaxone ALONE — no azithro partner anymore" Syphilis in pregnancy: "Only Penicillin. Period. Desensitize if allergic." Serology: "RPR/VDRL = Quantitative (monitor). FTA-ABS = Forever positive (confirm)." Jarisch-Herxheimer: "Feels worse before better — keep the antibiotics going"
Before you beginTuberculosis3 questions
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Question 1 of 3 · High Yield · TB · The Cutoff Depends on the Patient
A 35-year-old respiratory therapist at a large hospital undergoes annual tuberculosis screening. His tuberculin skin test shows 12 mm of induration read at 48 hours. He has no cough, fever, night sweats, or weight loss, and his chest radiograph is normal. What is the correct interpretation?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: C — Latent TB infection — this is a positive test
The single most tested idea in TB screening is that the TST has three different cutoffs, and which one applies depends entirely on the patient. Health care workers fall in the ≥10 mm group, so 12 mm is a positive test. But a positive test only tells you the patient has been infected at some point — it never distinguishes latent from active disease. That distinction is made by the two things this stem deliberately gives you: he is asymptomatic and his chest radiograph is normal. Positive test + no symptoms + normal film = latent TB infection. He should be offered treatment for LTBI, preferably a rifamycin-based short course.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Active pulmonary TB — start RIPE and airborne isolation — Incorrect. Active disease requires clinical or radiographic evidence: cough beyond 2–3 weeks, fever, night sweats, weight loss, hemoptysis, or an abnormal film. This patient has none, and a positive skin test alone never establishes active disease. Four-drug therapy and airborne isolation here would be a substantial and unnecessary intervention.
  • Negative test — 12 mm falls below the ≥15 mm threshold — Incorrect, and this is the trap the question is built around. The ≥15 mm cutoff applies only to people with no identified risk factors. Working in a hospital places him in the ≥10 mm category, so applying the low-risk number to a higher-risk patient produces a false negative and a missed opportunity to prevent future active disease.
  • False positive from remote BCG vaccination — no further workup — Incorrect. Prior BCG can cause TST reactivity, but it does not change the induration cutoff, and a reaction of this size in a health care worker should never be dismissed as vaccine effect. When BCG history genuinely clouds interpretation, the answer is to obtain an IGRA, which does not cross-react with BCG — not to dismiss the result.
  • Indeterminate result — repeat the TST in 8 to 10 weeks before deciding — Incorrect. "Indeterminate" belongs to IGRA reporting, not to the TST, which is simply measured and compared against the applicable cutoff. The 8-to-10-week window is the concept behind repeat testing after a recent exposure (to allow time for conversion) — a different scenario from routine annual screening.
Board pearl5 → 10 → 15. The sicker the patient, the smaller the cutoff. ≥5 mm: HIV, recent close contact, fibrotic changes on CXR, transplant or other immunosuppression. ≥10 mm: health care workers, recent immigrants from high-prevalence areas, injection drug users, prison/shelter/nursing home populations, children under 5, diabetes and ESRD. ≥15 mm: no risk factors at all. Measure induration, not erythema, at 48–72 hours. Two more traps: a positive test is never the endpoint — always follow with chest X-ray plus symptom screen — and a negative TST does not exclude active TB, since anergy produces false negatives in up to a quarter of patients with active disease.
Covered below under Topic 4 — Tuberculosis
Question 2 of 3 · High Yield · TB · RIPE — Two Phases, Six Months
A 42-year-old man from a high-prevalence region has culture-confirmed, fully drug-susceptible active pulmonary tuberculosis. He is HIV-negative with no cavitary disease. What is the standard first-line treatment regimen?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: A — RIPE × 2 months, then rifampin + isoniazid × 4 months
Drug-susceptible active pulmonary TB is treated in two phases. The intensive phase runs 2 months on all four drugs — Rifampin, Isoniazid, Pyrazinamide, Ethambutol — to kill the large replicating bacillary population fast and prevent resistance from emerging. The continuation phase then runs 4 months on rifampin + isoniazid alone, eliminating the slowly replicating persisters. Total: 6 months. Add pyridoxine (vitamin B6) alongside isoniazid to prevent peripheral neuropathy, and deliver therapy by directly observed therapy whenever feasible, since completion is the main determinant of cure and of preventing acquired resistance.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • RIPE continued all 6 months, with no continuation phase — Incorrect. The two-phase structure exists precisely so that pyrazinamide and ethambutol can be stopped at 2 months. Continuing them needlessly extends exposure to pyrazinamide hepatotoxicity and hyperuricemia and to ethambutol optic neuritis, with no added efficacy.
  • Isoniazid 300 mg daily as monotherapy for 9 months — Incorrect, and dangerous here. This is a latent TB regimen. Giving isoniazid monotherapy to a patient with active disease and a high organism burden reliably selects for INH resistance — which is exactly why active TB is always treated with multiple drugs.
  • Isoniazid plus rifapentine once weekly for 12 doses — Incorrect. This is 3HP, the preferred short-course regimen for latent infection. It is a two-drug, once-weekly regimen and is inadequate for active pulmonary disease.
  • Levofloxacin plus amikacin daily for 6 months — Incorrect. Fluoroquinolones and injectable aminoglycosides are second-line agents reserved for drug-resistant TB or for patients who cannot tolerate first-line drugs. Using them in fully susceptible disease sacrifices efficacy and adds ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity for no reason.
Board pearlRIPE × 2 months, then RI × 4 months = 6 months total. Recognize which regimens belong to latent disease so you never confuse the two: latent gets 3HP (INH + rifapentine weekly ×12), 4R (rifampin ×4 months), 3HR, or 9H — active gets four drugs up front. Know the three situations that lengthen therapy: cavitary disease plus a positive sputum culture at 2 months → extend to 9 months; TB meningitis or miliary disease → 9–12 months, with adjunctive corticosteroids for meningitis and pericarditis; and pregnancy → rifampin + isoniazid + ethambutol for 9 months, since pyrazinamide is generally deferred in the US and streptomycin is contraindicated. Always pair isoniazid with pyridoxine.
Covered below under Topic 4 — Tuberculosis
Question 3 of 3 · High Yield · TB · RIPE Toxicity — Match Drug to Organ
A 48-year-old woman is 6 weeks into RIPE therapy for active pulmonary tuberculosis. She reports that her vision has become blurred over the past 2 weeks and that she can no longer reliably tell red from green. Which drug is responsible, and what monitoring should have been in place?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: D — Ethambutol — monthly visual acuity and color testing
Ethambutol causes dose-dependent optic neuritis, and the classic board presentation is exactly this pair of complaints: reduced visual acuity plus loss of red-green color discrimination. Because the toxicity is usually reversible if the drug is stopped early and can become permanent if it is not, baseline and monthly visual acuity and color vision testing are recommended throughout ethambutol therapy, and patients are counselled to report any visual change immediately. The correct action now is to stop ethambutol and obtain formal ophthalmologic assessment. Fortunately, ethambutol is scheduled to end at 2 months anyway — it is not part of the continuation phase.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Rifampin — monthly complete blood count and liver enzymes — Incorrect. Rifampin's signature effects are orange-red discoloration of urine, sweat, and tears (harmless, but it permanently stains soft contact lenses), potent CYP450 induction, hepatotoxicity, thrombocytopenia, and a flu-like syndrome. It does not cause optic neuritis.
  • Isoniazid — monthly serum pyridoxine and liver enzymes — Incorrect on both halves. Isoniazid causes peripheral neuropathy and hepatotoxicity, not optic neuritis — and the neuropathy is prevented by co-administering pyridoxine, not by measuring its level, which is not a monitoring test in this setting.
  • Pyrazinamide — monthly serum uric acid and urate — Incorrect. Pyrazinamide does cause hyperuricemia, gout flares, arthralgias, and hepatotoxicity, and uric acid is a reasonable thing to check when a patient reports joint pain — but none of that explains blurred vision or a red-green deficit.
  • Rifampin — orange tears reflect corneal drug deposits — Incorrect, and a fabricated mechanism. Rifampin does turn tears orange and can stain contact lenses, but it does not deposit in the cornea and does not impair acuity or color vision. This choice exists to see whether an eye-related detail about the wrong drug will pull you away from ethambutol.
Board pearlMatch each RIPE drug to its organ and the question answers itself. Rifampin → orange body fluids + CYP450 inducer (oral contraceptives fail — advise a backup method; warfarin, methadone, and many antiretrovirals drop). Isoniazid → peripheral neuropathy (give pyridoxine) + hepatitis + drug-induced lupus. Pyrazinamide → hyperuricemia and gout + hepatitis. Ethambutol → Eyes: optic neuritis with red-green color loss. Two clean discriminators worth memorizing: ethambutol is the one that is not hepatotoxic, and it is the only one requiring monthly vision checks. If a stem gives you a new visual complaint on TB therapy, the answer is ethambutol every time.
Covered below under Topic 4 — Tuberculosis
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Tuberculosis
TST/IGRA Interpretation · Latent vs Active · RIPE Therapy · Drug Toxicities · Public Health Reporting
★★★ PANCE PriorityCutoff & Monotherapy Traps
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TST (PPD) Induration Cutoffs — The Cutoff Falls as Risk Rises
Positive ifWhoBoard Key
≥ 5 mmHIV infection · recent close contact of an active case · fibrotic changes on CXR consistent with prior TB · organ transplant recipients · immunosuppression (prednisone ≥15 mg/day for ≥1 month, TNF-α inhibitors)The most immunosuppressed get the smallest cutoff — they mount the weakest reaction
≥ 10 mmHealth care workers · residents and employees of prisons, homeless shelters, nursing homes · recent immigrants (<5 years) from high-prevalence countries · injection drug users · mycobacteriology lab personnel · children <5 years · diabetes, ESRD, silicosis, leukemia/lymphoma, gastrectomyThe single most tested cutoff — a hospital employee with 12 mm is POSITIVE
≥ 15 mmPersons with no identified risk factorsApplying this number to a higher-risk patient is the classic error
  • Measure induration, not erythema, read at 48–72 hours. A reading taken outside that window is unreliable.
  • Prior BCG does NOT raise the cutoff. If BCG history clouds a positive TST, obtain an IGRA — it does not cross-react with BCG.
  • A negative TST does not exclude active TB. Anergy causes false negatives in up to 20–25% of patients with active disease.
IGRA vs TST — When to Choose Which
 TST (PPD)IGRA (QuantiFERON-TB Gold Plus, T-SPOT.TB)
MethodIntradermal injection, return visit to readSingle blood draw, no return visit
BCG cross-reactionYes — can cause false positivesNo — preferred in BCG-vaccinated patients
Preferred whenChildren <5 years; serial screening programs where two-step testing is establishedBCG history; patients unlikely to return for a reading
Critical limitationNEITHER test distinguishes latent infection from active disease, and neither one rules active TB out. Interpretation always requires chest imaging plus a symptom screen.
Latent vs Active — The Branch Point That Drives Everything
 Latent TB Infection (LTBI)Active TB Disease
SymptomsNoneCough >2–3 weeks, fever, night sweats, weight loss, hemoptysis
Chest X-rayNormal (or old, stable fibrotic scarring)Upper lobe infiltrate with cavitation; hilar adenopathy. In advanced HIV the film may be atypical — lower lobe, miliary, or normal
DiagnosisPositive TST or IGRA + normal CXR + asymptomaticSputum ×3 for AFB smear and mycobacterial culture, plus NAAT on at least one specimen for rapid confirmation. Culture remains the gold standard and gives susceptibilities
Infectious?NoYes — airborne (negative-pressure) isolation, N95 for staff
ReportingVaries by jurisdiction; several states now require LTBI reportingActive TB is a nationally notifiable disease — report to the local health department. The department performs contact investigation and can supervise directly observed therapy
Treatment — Latent TB Infection
  • Rifamycin-based short courses are now preferred — higher completion rates, less hepatotoxicity: 3HP = isoniazid + rifapentine weekly × 12 doses · 4R = rifampin daily × 4 months · 3HR = isoniazid + rifampin daily × 3 months
  • 9H = isoniazid daily × 9 months remains acceptable but is the alternative — longest duration, lowest completion rate
  • Exclude active TB before treating latent infection. Single-drug therapy against a high organism burden selects for resistance — this is the most consequential error in the entire topic
  • Give pyridoxine (B6) with any isoniazid-containing regimen to prevent peripheral neuropathy
Treatment — Active TB: RIPE
  • Intensive phase — 2 months: Rifampin + Isoniazid + Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol
  • Continuation phase — 4 months: Rifampin + Isoniazid  →  6 months total
  • Extend to 9 months if there is cavitary disease and a positive sputum culture at 2 months
  • TB meningitis or miliary disease: 9–12 months. Add adjunctive corticosteroids for TB meningitis and TB pericarditis
  • Pregnancy: rifampin + isoniazid + ethambutol × 9 months (pyrazinamide generally deferred in the US). Streptomycin is contraindicated — fetal ototoxicity
  • HIV coinfection: start ART promptly; watch for IRIS (paradoxical worsening after ART initiation). Rifampin strongly induces CYP450 and lowers antiretroviral levels — rifabutin is often substituted
  • Directly observed therapy (DOT) is the standard of care wherever feasible — completion is what prevents relapse and acquired resistance
RIPE Drug Toxicities — Match the Drug to the Organ
DrugSignature ToxicityMonitoring / Action
RifampinOrange-red urine, sweat, and tears (harmless; permanently stains soft contact lenses). Potent CYP450 INDUCER. Hepatotoxicity, thrombocytopenia, flu-like syndromeOral contraceptives fail — advise a backup method. Warfarin, methadone, and many antiretrovirals drop; consider rifabutin
IsoniazidPeripheral neuropathy · hepatotoxicity · drug-induced lupus · sideroblastic anemia. Unlike rifampin, INH is a CYP inhibitorGive pyridoxine (B6) to prevent neuropathy. Baseline LFTs; recheck with symptoms
PyrazinamideHyperuricemia → gout flare · arthralgias · hepatotoxicityCheck uric acid if joint pain develops. Stops at 2 months
EthambutolOptic neuritis — decreased visual acuity + loss of red-green color discrimination. Dose-dependent; usually reversible if caught earlyBaseline and monthly visual acuity and color vision testing. Any visual change → stop the drug and refer
  • Ethambutol is the one RIPE drug that is NOT hepatotoxic — rifampin, isoniazid, and pyrazinamide all are. That single fact resolves a whole family of questions.
⚑ Board Traps — Tuberculosis
  • The TST cutoff depends on the patient: 5 / 10 / 15 mm — applying ≥15 mm to a health care worker, recent immigrant, or child under 5 produces a false negative
  • NEVER treat latent TB without first excluding active disease — monotherapy against active TB breeds resistance. Positive test → chest X-ray + symptom screen, always
  • Ethambutol = Eyes. New blurred vision or red-green color loss on RIPE is ethambutol every time — and it is the only RIPE drug needing monthly vision checks
  • Prior BCG does not raise the cutoff — use an IGRA to clarify, never dismiss a positive TST as "just the vaccine"
  • A negative TST or IGRA does not rule out active TB — anergy causes false negatives in up to a quarter of active cases
  • Sputum ×3 for AFB smear and culture plus NAAT is the diagnostic step — not empiric RIPE first, and not bronchoscopy unless the patient cannot produce sputum
  • Active TB is reportable to the local health department; airborne isolation until clinically improving, on effective therapy, with 3 consecutive negative AFB smears
  • Rifampin induces CYP450 — oral contraceptives fail. This is a commonly missed counselling point
★ Memory Trick
Cutoffs: "The sicker you are, the smaller the number" — 5 immunosuppressed, 10 increased risk, 15 no risk RIPE toxicity: "Rifampin = Red/oRange. Isoniazid = I-nerves (neuropathy). Pyrazinamide = Pain (gout). Ethambutol = Eyes." Ethambutol is the odd one out: "E is for Eyes, and E is the only one that spares the liver" Regimen: "2 months of all four, 4 months of two = 6 months total" Sequence: "Positive test is never the answer — the next step is ALWAYS the chest X-ray"
Clinical Vignette
A 29-year-old nurse who emigrated from the Philippines 3 years ago has a TST of 11 mm on pre-employment screening. She is asymptomatic and her chest X-ray is normal. She received BCG as a child. A colleague reassures her that the reaction is from her BCG and that 11 mm is negative anyway. She is started on isoniazid alone.
Answer: Three errors. (1) 11 mm IS positive — she is both a health care worker and a recent immigrant from a high-prevalence country, so the ≥10 mm cutoff applies. (2) BCG does not raise the cutoff — the correct move if BCG clouds interpretation is an IGRA, which does not cross-react. (3) Starting isoniazid was reasonable only because active disease was excluded by the normal film and absent symptoms — but the preferred LTBI regimens are now the rifamycin-based short courses (3HP weekly × 12 doses, or 4R daily × 4 months), which achieve far better completion than 9 months of isoniazid. Add pyridoxine to any INH-containing regimen.
Before you beginInfective Endocarditis2 questions
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Question 1 of 2 · High Yield · Endocarditis · S. bovis Colonoscopy
A 68-year-old is hospitalized for S. gallolyticus (S. bovis) native valve endocarditis. Blood cultures are clearing on antibiotics. What additional workup is MANDATORY?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: B — Colonoscopy to evaluate for colorectal neoplasia
S. bovis (gallolyticus) bacteremia or endocarditis has a ~60% association with colorectal neoplasia (adenoma or carcinoma). Colonoscopy is mandatory — the GI tract is the source of bacteremia and often harbors cancer driving the organism into the bloodstream. This is a fixed board fact that appears repeatedly.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • No additional workup is needed at this time — Incorrect. This organism carries a specific and clinically important association. Roughly 60% of patients with S. gallolyticus bacteremia have colorectal neoplasia, so failing to investigate risks missing a cancer.
  • Upper endoscopy to rule out gastric ulcer — Incorrect. The right instinct — GI evaluation — but the wrong segment. The association is with COLORECTAL adenomas and carcinoma, so colonoscopy is the required study.
  • Chest CT to rule out septic pulmonary embolism — Incorrect. Septic pulmonary emboli occur with RIGHT-sided endocarditis, most often in people who inject drugs. This is native left-sided disease with a colonic association.
  • HIV screening with CD4 count if reactive — Incorrect. HIV testing is reasonable general practice but has no specific link to this organism, and it does not address the colorectal neoplasia risk that makes this presentation distinctive.
Board pearlLet the organism tell you where to look next. Streptococcus gallolyticus (formerly S. bovis) means colonoscopy — the association with colorectal neoplasia runs around 60%, and the gut lesion is the source. Extend the same reflex to the rest of the pairings: S. aureus and injection drug use point to the tricuspid valve, viridans streptococci to dental procedures and damaged native valves, Enterococcus to genitourinary instrumentation, and coagulase-negative staphylococci to prosthetic material.
Covered below under Topic 5 — Infective Endocarditis
Question 2 of 2 · High Yield · Endocarditis · Duke Criteria — Major vs Minor
A 41-year-old man with a history of injection drug use is admitted with 5 days of fever and a new holosystolic murmur at the left lower sternal border. Examination shows splinter hemorrhages and non-tender erythematous macules on his palms. Temperature is 38.6°C, ESR is 88 mm/h, and CRP is 14 mg/dL. Two sets of blood cultures drawn from separate sites are both growing Staphylococcus aureus. Which of these findings qualifies as a MAJOR modified Duke criterion?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: C — A typical organism in two separate cultures
There are only two major modified Duke criteria, and everything else on the list is minor. The first is microbiologic: a typical organism (Staphylococcus aureus, viridans streptococci, Streptococcus gallolyticus, HACEK organisms, community-acquired enterococci) recovered from two separate blood culture sets, or persistently positive cultures with an organism consistent with endocarditis, or a single positive culture for Coxiella burnetii. The second is evidence of endocardial involvement: echocardiographic vegetation, abscess, new partial dehiscence of a prosthetic valve, or new valvular regurgitation. This patient's cultures satisfy one major criterion; his fever, vascular phenomena, and injection drug use are three minor criteria — and 1 major + 3 minor meets the threshold for definite infective endocarditis even before the echocardiogram returns.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Documented temperature of 38.6°C on admission — Incorrect. Fever above 38.0°C is a minor criterion. It is genuinely part of the scoring system, which is exactly what makes it an attractive distractor — the question is not whether the finding counts, but whether it counts as major.
  • Splinter hemorrhages and the painless macules on his palms — Incorrect. These are vascular phenomena, a minor criterion. Painless macules on the palms and soles are Janeway lesions (vascular, embolic); the tender nodules on the fingertips are Osler nodes (immunologic). Both are minor, and boards routinely test whether you can tell them apart.
  • ESR of 88 mm/h together with CRP of 14 mg/dL — Incorrect, and the most important thing to notice here: inflammatory markers are not Duke criteria at all — neither major nor minor. They are nonspecific, they will be abnormal in almost any febrile inpatient, and they carry no diagnostic weight in this framework.
  • His documented history of injection drug use — Incorrect as a major criterion. Injection drug use is a predisposing condition, which is a minor criterion alongside a predisposing cardiac lesion. It raises pretest probability substantially — and should make you think tricuspid valve and right-sided disease — but epidemiologic risk never becomes a major criterion.
Board pearlOnly two majors exist: positive blood cultures and positive echocardiogram. Everything else — fever, predisposing condition, vascular phenomena (Janeway lesions, splinter hemorrhages, septic emboli), immunologic phenomena (Osler nodes, Roth spots, glomerulonephritis), and a single positive culture — is minor. Definite IE = 2 major, or 1 major + 3 minor, or 5 minor. Mnemonic for the minors: FIVE PM — Fever, Immunologic, Vascular, Echo-not-meeting-major, Predisposition, Microbiology-not-meeting-major. Two more traps: ESR and CRP are not criteria, and blood cultures come before antibiotics — at least two sets from separate venipuncture sites. TTE first (sensitivity roughly 60–75%), then TEE if suspicion stays high (90–95%), and always TEE for a prosthetic valve.
Covered below under Topic 5 — Infective Endocarditis
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Topic 5
Infective Endocarditis
2023 Duke Criteria · Organisms by Context · Osler vs Janeway · Surgical Indications
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Duke Criteria — PANCE Version (Classic)

Definite IE: 2 Major OR 1 Major + 3 Minor OR 5 Minor criteria

Major Criteria:

  • Positive blood cultures: typical organism (S. aureus, viridans Strep, HACEK) from ≥2 separate cultures
  • Evidence of endocardial involvement: vegetation on echo OR new valvular regurgitation

Minor Criteria:

  • Predisposing condition (valve disease, IVDU)
  • Fever ≥38°C
  • Vascular phenomena (emboli, Janeway lesions, mycotic aneurysm)
  • Immunologic phenomena (Osler nodes, Roth spots, RF positive)
  • Positive blood cultures not meeting major criteria

🩺 PANCE Pearl: Osler nodes = painful (immune complex) · Janeway lesions = painless (septic emboli). "Osler HURTS, Janeway DOESN'T." Both are peripheral signs of IE.

Organisms by Clinical Context
OrganismClassic AssociationBoard Key
S. aureusIVDU (tricuspid), acute IE, prosthetic valves#1 cause overall. IVDU → right-sided tricuspid valve. High mortality.
Viridans streptococciNative valve subacute, dental proceduresSubacute course. Penicillin-susceptible.
S. bovis/gallolyticusColon lesions, elderlyMANDATORY colonoscopy — ~60% colorectal neoplasia association
EnterococcusGI/GU proceduresSynergistic therapy: ampicillin + gentamicin OR ampicillin + ceftriaxone
HACEK organismsCulture-negative IE (slow-growing gram-negatives)Treat with ceftriaxone. Prolonged incubation needed for cultures.
S. epidermidis (CoNS)Prosthetic valve <60 daysEarly prosthetic (<60d) = CoNS. Late (>60d) = same as native valve.
Peripheral Signs — Osler vs Janeway
FindingPain?MechanismLocation
Osler nodesPAINFUL — "Ouch-sler"Immune complex depositionFinger/toe pulp
Janeway lesionsPAINLESSSeptic microemboliPalms and soles
Roth spotsRetinal hemorrhages with white centerFundoscopic exam
Splinter hemorrhagesSeptic microemboli in nail capillariesSubungual
Surgical Indications (Class I)
  • Heart failure from valvular dysfunction
  • Uncontrolled infection despite ≥5–7 days appropriate antibiotics
  • Abscess, pseudoaneurysm, or fistula formation
  • Large mobile vegetations >10mm with embolic events
  • Fungal IE — large vegetations, refractory to antifungals alone
⚑ Board Traps — Endocarditis
  • S. bovis/gallolyticus IE = colonoscopy always (~60% colon neoplasia)
  • Blood cultures × 3 sets BEFORE antibiotics
  • Osler = Ouch (painful). Janeway = painless (palms/soles).
  • Prophylaxis: Only for highest-risk patients (prosthetic valves, prior IE, unrepaired cyanotic CHD) undergoing dental procedures with gingival manipulation. NOT for GI/GU procedures.
  • S. aureus is now #1 overall IE organism — surpassed viridans strep due to IVDU increase
★ Memory Trick
Osler vs Janeway: "Osler = Ouch (painful, immune). Janeway = Just painless (palms/soles, embolic)" S. bovis: "Bovis has a colonoscopy ticket — always" HACEK: "Culture-negative slow growers — treat with ceftriaxone" "CoNS (<60d prosthetic) → CoNS same (>60d) → native valve organisms"
Before you beginBacterial Meningitis1 question
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Question 1 of 1 · High Yield · Bacterial Meningitis — Dexamethasone Timing
A 19-year-old college student has fever, severe headache, neck stiffness, photophobia, confusion, and non-blanching petechiae, consistent with bacterial meningitis. Before a CT scanner is available, in what sequence should interventions occur, and why does dexamethasone timing relative to antibiotics matter?
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Correct answer: D — Blood cultures, dexamethasone, then antibiotics
The correct sequence for suspected bacterial meningitis with this presentation is: (1) blood cultures x2 immediately, (2) dexamethasone 0.15 mg/kg IV, (3) ceftriaxone plus vancomycin — all completed within 30 minutes. The critical timing concept is that dexamethasone must be given BEFORE or WITH (never after) the first antibiotic dose. The mechanism: antibiotics cause bacterial cell wall lysis, which releases inflammatory mediators and cytokines that drive much of the morbidity in bacterial meningitis (including hearing loss and neurologic sequelae). Dexamethasone given before/with antibiotics blunts this inflammatory cascade; given afterward, it provides little to no benefit since the inflammatory response has already been triggered.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Antibiotics first, then dexamethasone once the LP confirms the diagnosis — Incorrect. This sequence eliminates the benefit of dexamethasone, since its protective effect against the inflammatory cytokine cascade depends on administration before or simultaneous with the first antibiotic dose — giving it after antibiotics (and after bacterial lysis has already triggered the inflammatory response) provides minimal benefit.
  • CT head before any treatment, even if this delays antibiotics — Incorrect — and potentially fatal. Treatment (antibiotics, dexamethasone) should never be delayed for CT imaging in suspected bacterial meningitis with this presentation — CT is only needed before lumbar puncture if there are specific signs of mass effect (papilledema, focal neurologic deficits, severely altered mental status), and even then, antibiotics should be started before the CT, not after.
  • Omit dexamethasone — no benefit in adult bacterial meningitis — Incorrect. Dexamethasone has demonstrated benefit in adult bacterial meningitis, particularly for pneumococcal meningitis, in reducing neurologic complications including hearing loss — it should be included in the treatment protocol, given before or with the first antibiotic dose.
  • Lumbar puncture and CSF analysis before starting any antibiotics — Incorrect — and dangerous. While LP provides valuable diagnostic information, antibiotics (along with dexamethasone) should never be delayed for LP in suspected bacterial meningitis with this severity of presentation — if LP cannot be performed immediately (e.g., due to need for CT first), antibiotics and dexamethasone should still be given promptly without waiting.
Board pearlDexamethasone must precede or accompany the first antibiotic dose — never follow it. Antibiotics lyse the organism and release inflammatory cell-wall products; steroids given afterwards have missed the surge they exist to blunt. The benefit is clearest in pneumococcal meningitis, reducing hearing loss and mortality. CT before LP is required only for focal deficit, papilloedema, seizure, immunocompromise, or altered consciousness — and even then the antibiotic goes in first.
Covered below under Topic 6 — Bacterial Meningitis
Tier 1
Topic 6
Bacterial Meningitis
Age-Based Coverage · CSF Patterns · Dexamethasone Timing · Never Delay ABx
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Age-Based Empiric Coverage
Age GroupKey OrganismsEmpiric TherapyBoard Key
Neonates (0–28d)Group B Strep, E. coli, ListeriaAmpicillin + cefotaxime (or gentamicin)GBS #1 neonates
Children/Adults (1mo–50yr)S. pneumoniae (#1), N. meningitidisVancomycin + ceftriaxoneVanco covers pen-resistant pneumococcus
Adults >50 / Immunocompromised / PregnantS. pneumoniae, N. meningitidis, ListeriaVancomycin + ceftriaxone + AMPICILLINCephalosporins have ZERO Listeria coverage — ampicillin is essential
CSF Pattern Recognition
ParameterBacterialViral (Aseptic)Fungal/TB
Opening PressureElevated (>20 cm H₂O)Normal or mildly elevatedElevated
WBC / Cell type>1000, neutrophil predominant10–500, lymphocyte predominant10–500, lymphocyte
GlucoseLOW (<40 mg/dL)NormalLOW
ProteinHIGH (>250 mg/dL)Normal/mildly elevatedHIGH
Key Management Rules
  • Antibiotics within 1 hour — delay >6h increases mortality from 6% to 45%
  • Dexamethasone BEFORE or WITH first antibiotic dose — reduces mortality in pneumococcal meningitis. No benefit if given after antibiotics.
  • CT needed first? (focal deficits, papilledema, immunocompromised) → draw blood cultures + give dexa + start antibiotics FIRST, then CT, then LP
  • N. meningitidis contacts: Rifampin, ciprofloxacin, or IM ceftriaxone × 1 dose
  • Waterhouse-Friderichsen: Meningococcal septicemia → bilateral adrenal hemorrhage → DIC + purpura fulminans + adrenal crisis + shock
⚑ Board Traps — Meningitis
  • NEVER delay antibiotics for CT or LP — blood cultures + dexa + antibiotics FIRST if CT needed
  • Dexamethasone BEFORE or WITH first dose — post-antibiotic dexa provides zero benefit
  • ADD AMPICILLIN for >50, neonates, pregnant, immunocompromised — cephalosporins do NOT cover Listeria
  • S. pneumoniae = #1 adult meningitis — vancomycin added for resistant strains
★ Memory Trick
Coverage: "Adults = Vanc + Ceftriaxone. Over 50 = Add Ampicillin (Listeria)" "Cephalosporins can't touch Listeria — only ampicillin works" Dexa timing: "BEFORE or WITH — not after. The first dose is the only chance." CSF: "Bacterial = Bugs (neutrophils) + Bad glucose + Big protein"
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Additional PANCE Infectious Disease Topics
Everything beyond the core six — still fully tested, still fully worked. Included with bootcamp enrollment.
Before you beginSepsis & Community-Acquired Pneumonia1 question
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Question 1 of 1 · High Yield · Septic Shock — Surviving Sepsis Hour-1 Bundle
A 68-year-old nursing home patient arrives obtunded with BP 74/44, HR 128, T 39.4°C, RR 28, and lactate 5.2 mmol/L, meeting criteria for septic shock. A colleague suggests obtaining a CT scan before starting antibiotics to identify the infection source first. What is the correct sequence according to the 2021 Surviving Sepsis Campaign Hour-1 Bundle?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: B — Antibiotics within 1 hour, with CT imaging performed afterward
The Surviving Sepsis Campaign Hour-1 Bundle mandates that broad-spectrum antibiotics be administered within 1 hour of septic shock recognition — this should not be delayed for imaging studies to identify the source. The correct sequence is: obtain lactate, draw blood cultures x2, administer broad-spectrum antibiotics, give fluid resuscitation (30 mL/kg crystalloid for hypotension or lactate ≥4, though this fluid volume recommendation was downgraded from mandatory to suggested in 2021), and start vasopressors if needed to maintain MAP ≥65 if fluids are inadequate. Source-identifying imaging like CT should be obtained after these immediate life-saving interventions, not before.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • 30 mL/kg crystalloid is a strict requirement before anything else — Incorrect. While fluid resuscitation remains important, the 2021 SSC update specifically DOWNGRADED the 30 mL/kg fluid recommendation from a strict mandate to a suggestion, recognizing that fluid overload can also harm septic patients — this fluid volume should be individualized, not treated as an absolute mandatory first step before other bundle elements.
  • CT imaging first to identify and drain the source before antibiotics — Incorrect — and dangerous. This significantly delays antibiotic administration, which is time-critical in septic shock — each hour of delayed appropriate antibiotics is associated with increased mortality. Antibiotics should never be delayed for source-identifying imaging in septic shock.
  • Start vasopressors immediately, before any fluid resuscitation — Incorrect. The standard approach still generally involves initial fluid resuscitation, with vasopressors added if the patient remains hypotensive despite fluids (to maintain MAP ≥65) — though both fluids and vasopressors should be considered together rather than treating vasopressors as the absolute first step before any fluid administration.
  • Blood cultures are no longer required before antibiotics — Incorrect. Blood cultures (x2, from different sites) remain a core component of the Hour-1 Bundle and should be obtained promptly — ideally before antibiotics when this doesn't meaningfully delay administration, since cultures guide subsequent antimicrobial de-escalation.
Board pearlNothing delays the antibiotic — not a CT, not the lumbar puncture, not a specialist call. The Hour-1 bundle order is lactate, two blood cultures, broad-spectrum antibiotics, then 30 mL/kg crystalloid for hypotension or lactate at or above 4, with vasopressors added if the MAP stays under 65. Cultures go before antibiotics only because they take seconds; if drawing them would delay therapy, give the antibiotic. Remember Sepsis-3: sepsis is infection plus organ dysfunction, and septic shock adds a pressor requirement with lactate above 2.
Covered below under Topic 7 — Sepsis & Septic Shock
Tier 1
Topic 7
Sepsis & Septic Shock
Sepsis-3 · SSC 2021 Hour-1 Bundle · Norepinephrine First · Lactate Clearance
★★★ PANCE PrioritySSC 2021
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Why the PANCE Tests This

Sepsis is the #1 cause of ICU mortality in the US. Boards test: Sepsis-3 definition (SOFA-based, NOT SIRS), vasopressor selection, the Hour-1 Bundle, and fluid strategy. Multiple questions per exam.

Definitions — Sepsis-3 (2016)
  • Sepsis: Life-threatening organ dysfunction from dysregulated host response to infection. SOFA score increase ≥2 points.
  • Septic shock: Sepsis + vasopressors needed for MAP ≥65 mmHg + serum lactate >2 mmol/L despite adequate fluids. Mortality >40%.
  • qSOFA: AMS + SBP ≤100 + RR ≥22. Screening tool ONLY — NOT diagnostic. SSC 2021 recommends AGAINST using qSOFA alone for screening.
SSC 2021 Hour-1 Bundle
The 5-Step Bundle — All Within Hour 1
  • 1. Measure lactate — re-measure if >2 mmol/L. Lactate >4 = high-risk.
  • 2. Blood cultures × 2 sets from separate sites BEFORE antibiotics
  • 3. Broad-spectrum antibiotics within 1 hour — every hour of delay increases mortality ~7%
  • 4. 30 mL/kg IV crystalloid within 3h for hypotension or lactate ≥4 (downgraded to WEAK recommendation 2021)
  • 5. Vasopressors if MAP <65 during or after fluids — start peripherally, do NOT wait for central access
Vasopressor Hierarchy
LineAgentNotesBoard Key
First-lineNorepinephrineTitrate to MAP ≥65NOT dopamine — higher arrhythmia risk with dopamine
Second-lineVasopressin 0.03 units/minAdd when NE ≥0.25–0.5 mcg/kg/minNE-sparing; fixed dose
Third-lineEpinephrineRefractory shockCan cause lactic acidosis (β2)
AdjunctHydrocortisone 200 mg/day CIVasopressor-refractory septic shockWeak recommendation; improves shock reversal
  • Balanced crystalloids (LR) preferred over NS — reduces AKI (SMART trial)
  • Peripheral vasopressor start is acceptable — SSC 2021 endorses peripheral initiation
⚑ Board Traps — Sepsis
  • Sepsis-3 = ORGAN DYSFUNCTION (SOFA ≥2), NOT just SIRS — fever + tachycardia + leukocytosis alone is no longer "sepsis"
  • qSOFA is NOT a diagnostic criterion — SSC 2021 recommends against using it alone for screening
  • Norepinephrine is FIRST-LINE — NOT dopamine. Dopamine: higher arrhythmia risk, worse outcomes in cardiogenic shock subgroup.
  • Antibiotics within 1 hour — blood cultures first but do NOT delay antibiotics waiting for results
  • 30 mL/kg crystalloid was downgraded to WEAK recommendation in 2021 — use dynamic measures (passive leg raise, pulse pressure variation) to guide further fluids
  • Do NOT delay vasopressors for central access — start peripherally now
★ Memory Trick
Hour-1 Bundle: "LACTATE" — Lactate measure + Antibiotics + Cultures (blood) before ABx + Target MAP 65 + End with vasopressors "SIRS is DEAD — Sepsis-3 needs SOFA ≥2" Vasopressor order: "NE → Vaso → Epi" — Never Very Easy to manage refractory shock
Clinical Vignette
A 72-year-old diabetic presents with fever, confusion, BP 78/48, lactate 5.2 mmol/L. Blood cultures drawn. Dopamine is started peripherally by the covering team.
Answer: Two errors — (1) norepinephrine is first-line, NOT dopamine; (2) peripheral initiation is acceptable and correct (not an error). Broad-spectrum antibiotics should have been started simultaneously. LR 30 mL/kg bolus should accompany. Hydrocortisone 200 mg/day if vasopressor-refractory.
Tier 1
Topic 8
Community-Acquired Pneumonia (CAP)
PSI vs CURB-65 · Antibiotic Selection · 3-Day Course · No Anaerobes in Aspiration
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Core Recognition & Severity
  • Classic: Fever + productive cough + dyspnea + pleuritic chest pain + focal CXR consolidation
  • Most common bacterial pathogen: S. pneumoniae (~15%). Viruses most commonly detected (~40%).
  • Atypical organisms: Mycoplasma, Chlamydophila, Legionella — gradual onset, dry cough, extrapulmonary features
  • Legionella pearls: Severe CAP + hyponatremia + diarrhea + water system exposure → urine Legionella antigen
  • PSI preferred over CURB-65 (ATS/IDSA) — identifies more low-risk patients safe for outpatient treatment
Empiric Antibiotic Selection
SettingFirst-LineAlternativeBoard Key
Outpatient, no comorbiditiesAmoxicillin 1g TID OR doxycycline 100mg BIDMacrolide if local resistance <25%Macrolide monotherapy NOT recommended (resistance >30%)
Outpatient, with comorbiditiesAmox-clav + macrolide or doxyRespiratory FQ (levofloxacin)FQ only if β-lactam/macrolide not tolerated
Inpatient, nonsevereCeftriaxone + azithromycinRespiratory FQ monotherapyCombination preferred
Inpatient, severe/ICUβ-lactam + macrolide or β-lactam + FQ+ anti-MRSA/pseudomonal only if risk factorsHydrocortisone 200mg/day IV for severe CAP reduces mortality (CAPE COD trial)

Duration: 3 days if stability criteria met by day 3. 5 days if met by day 5. ≥7 days for MRSA or Pseudomonas.

⚑ Board Traps — CAP
  • Fluoroquinolones NOT first-line for CAP — reserve for β-lactam/macrolide intolerance
  • Macrolide resistance >30% — azithromycin monotherapy NOT recommended empirically
  • Do NOT add anaerobic coverage (metronidazole/clindamycin) for aspiration pneumonia — associated with 5–6% higher mortality (ATS/IDSA 2019)
  • Steroids only in SEVERE CAP — hydrocortisone 200mg/day (CAPE COD trial). Not for nonsevere.
  • 3-day course sufficient if clinical stability criteria met by day 3
★ Memory Trick
Inpatient CAP: "C+A = Ceftriaxone + Azithromycin" — the standard combo "FQs are the backup, not the opening move" "Aspiration ≠ anaerobes — stop the metronidazole reflex (it kills)" "CAPE COD steroids = severe CAP only"
Tier 1
Topic 9
Clostridioides difficile Infection (CDI)
Metronidazole No Longer First-Line · Vancomycin/Fidaxomicin · FMT · Soap & Water
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Diagnosis
  • Test only symptomatic patients: ≥3 unformed stools/24h, NOT on laxatives
  • Two-step algorithm: GDH EIA + Toxin A/B EIA → if discordant → NAAT (PCR) as tiebreaker
  • Do NOT test asymptomatic patients — colonization without symptoms needs no treatment
  • Do NOT use as test-of-cure — stool can remain positive 4–6 weeks after resolution
Treatment by Severity
Episode/SeverityDefinitionTreatment
Initial, NonsevereWBC ≤15K, Cr <1.5Vancomycin 125mg PO QID × 10d OR Fidaxomicin 200mg BID × 10d
Initial, SevereWBC >15K or Cr ≥1.5Vancomycin 125mg PO QID × 10d OR Fidaxomicin 200mg BID × 10d
FulminantHypotension, ileus, toxic megacolonVancomycin 500mg PO QID + Metronidazole 500mg IV TID ± Vancomycin per rectum (if ileus)
1st RecurrenceVancomycin taper/pulse OR Fidaxomicin (preferred — fewer recurrences)
2nd+ RecurrenceFMT — >85% cure rate. FDA-approved: Rebyota (fecal), Vowst (oral spores)
⚑ Board Traps — C. difficile
  • Metronidazole is NO LONGER first-line for CDI — vancomycin or fidaxomicin for all initial episodes
  • Metronidazole IV only in FULMINANT CDI with ileus — always combined with oral/rectal vancomycin, NEVER alone
  • Fidaxomicin has fewer recurrences — preferred when cost permits
  • Soap and water ONLY during C. diff outbreaks — alcohol sanitizer does NOT kill spores
  • Stop the inciting antibiotic ASAP — continuing it increases recurrence
  • Do NOT test asymptomatic patients — colonization ≠ infection
★ Memory Trick
CDI treatment: "Vanco or Fidaxo — Metronidazole is RETIRED from first-line" "Metro IV only in FULMINANT (ileus) — always WITH oral/rectal vanco, never alone" FMT: "85% cure for recurrent C. diff — the gold standard" "SOAP AND WATER for C. diff — alcohol gel doesn't kill spores"
Clinical Vignette
A 74-year-old on piperacillin-tazobactam develops 6 watery stools/day. C. diff toxin positive, WBC 22K, Cr 1.8. No ileus, no hypotension.
Answer: Severe CDI (WBC >15K + Cr ≥1.5). Treat with vancomycin 125mg PO QID × 10 days OR fidaxomicin. NOT metronidazole. Stop pip-tazo if possible. No ileus → no IV metronidazole or rectal vanco needed. Soap-and-water handwashing. Contact precautions.
Before you beginSSTI & Lyme Disease3 questions
Answer these three before you read the topic. Getting them wrong is expected and useful — attempting a question first is what makes the material below stick. Each explanation unlocks only after you submit.
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Question 1 of 3 · High Yield · SSTI · Nonpurulent Cellulitis
A 48-year-old man has a warm, erythematous, tender area on the right lower leg without drainage or fluctuance. No fever. MRSA swab negative. Which is MOST appropriate?
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Correct answer: A — Oral cephalexin or dicloxacillin for 5 days
Uncomplicated nonpurulent cellulitis = β-hemolytic streptococci, NOT MRSA. Routine MRSA coverage not indicated. Oral cephalexin or dicloxacillin × 5 days is first-line (IDSA 2014). Vancomycin reserved for severe cellulitis, sepsis, or documented MRSA. TMP-SMX covers MRSA but not β-hemolytic strep as well.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • No antibiotics needed — elevation and warm compresses — Incorrect. Cellulitis is a bacterial infection that requires antibiotics; untreated it can progress to abscess, bacteremia, or necrotising infection. Absence of fever does not mean absence of infection.
  • TMP-SMX to cover community-acquired MRSA — Incorrect. TMP-SMX covers MRSA well but has relatively poor streptococcal activity, and nonpurulent cellulitis is predominantly streptococcal. This makes it a mismatch for the likely organism.
  • IV vancomycin — MRSA coverage for all cellulitis — Incorrect. The word 'all' is the tell. MRSA coverage is indicated for PURULENT infections, abscesses, penetrating trauma, injection drug use, or systemic toxicity — not for routine nonpurulent cellulitis, and IV therapy is unnecessary in an outpatient without systemic signs.
  • IV piperacillin-tazobactam for broad coverage — Incorrect. This is dramatically excessive for uncomplicated cellulitis in a well patient. Broad Gram-negative and anaerobic coverage is unnecessary and promotes resistance and C. difficile.
Board pearlPurulence decides the organism. Nonpurulent cellulitis is streptococcal — treat with cephalexin or dicloxacillin and do not add MRSA coverage. Purulent infection, an abscess, or a furuncle is staphylococcal and often MRSA — incise and drain first, then cover with TMP-SMX, doxycycline, or clindamycin. Reserve vancomycin for severe or septic presentations. And watch for the escalation you must not miss: pain out of proportion to findings, rapid progression, crepitus, or bullae mean necrotising fasciitis and surgical exploration, not stronger antibiotics.
Covered below under Topic 10 — Skin & Soft Tissue Infections
Question 2 of 3 · Medium · Lyme · Post-Treatment Serology
A 45-year-old woman with Lyme arthritis treated with doxycycline × 28 days 3 years ago has persistent fatigue and arthralgia. Repeat Lyme ELISA is positive. What is MOST accurate?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: D — Post-treatment Lyme disease syndrome — no repeat antibiotics
After successful Lyme treatment, antibodies can remain positive for years to decades — positive serology does NOT mean active infection. Post-treatment Lyme disease syndrome (PTLDS) describes persistent symptoms after adequate treatment. Extended antibiotic courses are NOT beneficial and potentially harmful per RCTs. Symptomatic management.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Treatment failure — check resistance patterns and re-dose therapy — Incorrect. Documented antibiotic resistance in Borrelia burgdorferi has not been demonstrated, and resistance testing is not clinically available or meaningful. Persistent symptoms after adequate therapy are not evidence of resistant organisms.
  • Switch to IV ceftriaxone for refractory neuroborreliosis — Incorrect. IV ceftriaxone is used for neuroborreliosis, carditis, or refractory Lyme arthritis with objective ongoing joint inflammation. Randomised trials show no benefit from prolonged IV therapy for persistent subjective symptoms, and it carries line infection and biliary risk.
  • New Lyme infection — re-treat with oral doxycycline — Incorrect. Reinfection is possible but would present with new objective findings such as a fresh erythema migrans rash. Positive serology alone cannot distinguish reinfection from persisting antibodies.
  • Active infection — another 28-day doxycycline course — Incorrect. This is the most common error because the positive ELISA looks like active infection. Antibodies persist for years to decades after cure, so serology cannot be used as a test of cure — and repeat antibiotic courses have been shown not to help.
Board pearlLyme serology stays positive for years after cure, so it cannot be used as a test of cure or to diagnose relapse. Persistent fatigue and arthralgia after adequate treatment is post-treatment Lyme disease syndrome, and randomised trials show extended or repeated antibiotics do not help and carry real harm — management is symptomatic. Remember the testing architecture as well: two-tier serology, ELISA followed by Western blot, and it is insensitive early, so erythema migrans in an endemic area is treated clinically without waiting for serology.
Covered below under Topic 11 — Lyme Disease · serology and PTLDS
Question 3 of 3 · High Yield · Lyme · Bilateral Bell Palsy
A 26-year-old from Connecticut presents with bilateral facial weakness developing over 3 days. He recently hiked in wooded areas. Which is MOST likely?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: E — Lyme disease — stage 2, early disseminated disease
Bilateral facial nerve palsy = Lyme disease until proven otherwise. Unilateral Bell palsy has many causes; bilateral = Lyme Stage 2. Endemic area (Connecticut) + hiking strongly supports diagnosis. Test with Lyme serology (ELISA → Western blot). Treat with oral doxycycline × 14–21 days for isolated facial palsy.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Sarcoidosis with cranial nerve involvement — Incorrect. Sarcoidosis genuinely can cause bilateral facial palsy, particularly in Heerfordt syndrome with uveitis and parotitis, making it the best distractor. It usually develops more insidiously with systemic features and hilar adenopathy, and lacks the tick exposure and endemic geography here.
  • Bilateral Bell palsy of idiopathic cause — Incorrect. Idiopathic Bell palsy is overwhelmingly unilateral. Simultaneous bilateral facial weakness is rare enough that it demands a search for a systemic cause rather than an idiopathic label.
  • Guillain-Barré syndrome, facial variant — Incorrect. GBS can involve the facial nerves, but the hallmark is ascending limb weakness with areflexia. Isolated bilateral facial palsy without limb involvement does not fit, and there is no antecedent illness described.
  • Multiple sclerosis with a brainstem plaque — Incorrect. MS causes central rather than peripheral facial weakness, typically sparing the forehead, and produces lesions disseminated in time and space. Simultaneous bilateral peripheral facial palsy is not a typical MS presentation.
Board pearlBilateral facial nerve palsy is Lyme disease until proven otherwise — unilateral Bell palsy has many causes, but bilateral is rare and points hard at early disseminated infection. The other stage 2 features are multiple erythema migrans lesions, carditis with AV block, and meningitis. Treat isolated facial palsy with oral doxycycline for 14 to 21 days; reserve IV ceftriaxone for meningitis, encephalitis, or high-grade heart block. Also note the age rule: doxycycline is now considered acceptable in children for short Lyme courses.
Covered below under Topic 11 — Lyme Disease · early disseminated
Tier 1
Topic 10
Skin & Soft Tissue Infections
Cellulitis · Abscess I&D · Necrotizing Fasciitis · Erysipelas · MRSA Coverage Rules
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Classification & Treatment (IDSA 2014)
TypeOrganismTreatmentBoard Key
Mild nonpurulent cellulitisβ-hemolytic Streptococcus (NOT MRSA)Oral cephalexin or dicloxacillin × 5 daysRoutine MRSA coverage NOT needed
Moderate cellulitisβ-hemolytic StrepIV cefazolin or ceftriaxoneUpgrade if 1–2 SIRS criteria
Severe cellulitisMixed, MRSA possibleIV vancomycin + pip-tazo. Surgical consult if necrotizing features.SIRS + hypotension/sepsis
Purulent SSTI (abscess)S. aureus / MRSAI&D is PRIMARY treatment. Add TMP-SMX/doxy only if surrounding cellulitis or SIRS.Antibiotics alone = insufficient
ErysipelasGroup A StrepPenicillin VK or amoxicillin (IV PCN G if severe)Sharply demarcated, raised, bright red borders
Necrotizing Fasciitis — Do Not Miss
⚑ NF = Surgical Emergency
  • Classic triad: Pain out of proportion to exam + rapid progression + systemic toxicity
  • Physical: Skin discoloration → bullae → necrosis → crepitus (gas in tissues on CT)
  • Treatment: IMMEDIATE surgical debridement + IV vancomycin + pip-tazo. Antibiotics alone are NOT curative.
  • Type I (polymicrobial): Mixed aerobic/anaerobic; trunk/perineum (Fournier gangrene)
  • Type II (Group A Strep): Extremities; often with TSS
⚑ Board Traps — SSTI
  • Nonpurulent cellulitis = Streptococcus, NOT MRSA — routine MRSA coverage not needed
  • Purulent SSTI: I&D is primary treatment — antibiotics alone insufficient
  • 5 days sufficient for uncomplicated cellulitis
  • Pseudocellulitis misdiagnosis rate ~30% — consider stasis dermatitis, DVT, gout
  • NF: "pain out of proportion" + rapid spread = operate NOW
★ Memory Trick
Nonpurulent cellulitis = Strep → cephalexin (NOT vancomycin) Purulent (abscess) = MRSA possible → I&D FIRST Erysipelas: "Sharp borders + Group A Strep + Penicillin" NF: "Pain out of proportion = danger out of proportion = OPERATE NOW"
Tier 1
Topic 11
Lyme Disease
3 Stages · Treatment Table · Two-Tier Serology · Tick Prophylaxis · Coinfections
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Three Stages — Clinical Recognition
StageTimingKey ManifestationsTreatment
Stage 1 — Early LocalizedDays–weeks after biteErythema migrans (EM): Bull's-eye rash ≥5cm, expanding annular erythema with central clearing. Pathognomonic — no serology needed in endemic area. ± fever, fatigue, myalgias.Doxycycline 100mg BID × 10–21d (adults). Amoxicillin 500mg TID × 14–21d (pregnancy, children <8yr).
Stage 2 — Early DisseminatedWeeks–monthsCardiac: AV block (1st, 2nd, 3rd degree; PR prolongation is hallmark). Neuro: Facial nerve palsy (BILATERAL = Lyme until proven otherwise), meningitis, radiculopathy. Multiple EM lesions.Oral doxy for uncomplicated. IV ceftriaxone 2g daily × 14–28d for complete heart block, meningitis, neurologic Lyme.
Stage 3 — Late DisseminatedMonths–yearsLyme arthritis: Intermittent/persistent monoarthritis or oligoarthritis; KNEE most common. "Hot swollen knee" in endemic area = Lyme. Neurologic: Encephalopathy, peripheral neuropathy.Doxycycline 100mg BID × 28d (arthritis). IV ceftriaxone for severe neurologic Lyme. Refractory arthritis → anti-inflammatory or DMARD.
Serology — Two-Tier Testing
  • Step 1: ELISA (EIA) — sensitive screening. If negative AND EM present in endemic area → treat clinically (serology can be negative early Stage 1).
  • Step 2 (if ELISA positive/equivocal): Western blot — IgM for early (<4 weeks); IgG for later disease
  • Serology NOT needed for EM diagnosis — classic bull's-eye in endemic area = treat
  • Post-treatment Lyme syndrome: Persistent symptoms >6 months after adequate treatment. Positive serology persists for years — does NOT mean active infection. Extended antibiotics are NOT recommended (no benefit per RCTs, potential harm).
Tick Prophylaxis
  • Single dose doxycycline 200mg PO within 72h of deer tick bite — if: Ixodes scapularis tick, attached ≥36 hours, endemic area, no doxy contraindication
  • Prevention: DEET repellent, permethrin-treated clothing, daily tick checks, prompt removal
Common Coinfections (Same Ixodes Tick)
  • Babesiosis: Hemolytic anemia; "Maltese cross" (tetrad) on blood smear; treat with atovaquone + azithromycin
  • Anaplasmosis (HGA): Fever, leukopenia, thrombocytopenia, elevated LFTs; treat with doxycycline
  • Ehrlichiosis (HME): Similar to anaplasmosis; treat with doxycycline
⚑ Board Traps — Lyme Disease
  • Bilateral facial palsy = Lyme disease until proven otherwise — only common cause of bilateral Bell palsy
  • EM is pathognomonic — do NOT wait for serology in endemic area
  • 3rd-degree AV block = temporary pacing + IV ceftriaxone — resolves completely with treatment
  • Doxycycline CONTRAINDICATED in children <8 years and pregnancy — use amoxicillin
  • Post-treatment Lyme: positive serology persists for years — NOT ongoing infection. Extended antibiotics are NOT beneficial.
  • Tick must be attached ≥36 hours to transmit Borrelia
★ Memory Trick
Lyme stages: "Skin → Heart+Nerves → Joints" (Stage 1 → 2 → 3) "Bull's-eye = treat NOW, no serology needed in endemic area" Stage 2: "PR prolongation is the cardiac hallmark. 3rd degree = pacemaker + IV ceftriaxone" Bilateral Bell palsy: "Two-sided = Lyme. One-sided = many causes." Prophylaxis: "Single dose doxy if tick attached ≥36 hours" Coinfections: "Same tick, same time: Babesia + Anaplasma + Ehrlichia"
Before you beginInfluenza, COVID-19 & Fungal Infections3 questions
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Question 1 of 3 · Medium · Oseltamivir — Exceptions to the 48-Hour Rule
A 68-year-old woman with COPD has day 2 of influenza-like illness with a positive rapid influenza test. The standard teaching is that oseltamivir is most effective within 48 hours of symptom onset. Does this 48-hour window apply strictly here, and are there exceptions?
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Correct answer: C — Treat regardless of exact timing given her COPD risk
While the 48-hour window for maximal benefit is the general teaching point for influenza treatment, there is a critical exception: high-risk patients should receive oseltamivir regardless of how long they've had symptoms, even beyond 48 hours. High-risk features warranting treatment regardless of timing include age ≥65, chronic pulmonary disease (like COPD), pregnancy, immunosuppression, and several other comorbidities. This patient, presenting on day 2 (within the window) AND having COPD (a high-risk feature), should clearly receive oseltamivir.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • The 48-hour window is absolute — no benefit beyond it — Incorrect. This is precisely the misconception this vignette is designed to correct — the 48-hour window represents the time of MAXIMAL benefit in low-risk, otherwise healthy patients, but high-risk patients (elderly, chronic lung disease, immunosuppressed, pregnant) should still receive treatment even beyond 48 hours, since they remain at risk for severe complications.
  • Use zanamivir instead, as oseltamivir is unsafe in COPD — Incorrect. Oseltamivir is not contraindicated in COPD — in fact, zanamivir (an inhaled formulation) is generally AVOIDED in patients with underlying airway disease like COPD or asthma due to risk of bronchospasm, making oseltamivir the more appropriate choice in this patient, not the contraindicated one.
  • Withhold oseltamivir because the timing is uncertain — Incorrect. This patient is presenting on day 2 of illness, which is within the 48-hour window — but more importantly, even if she presented later, her COPD as a high-risk comorbidity would still warrant treatment regardless of exact timing.
  • Only patients without comorbidities benefit from treatment — Incorrect. — this reverses the correct clinical reasoning. Patients WITH high-risk comorbidities (like this patient's COPD) are specifically the group for whom treatment is recommended regardless of symptom timing, precisely because they face higher risk of severe complications.
Board pearlThe 48-hour window describes where benefit is greatest, not where treatment is permitted. Treat regardless of timing in high-risk patients — age 65 or older, chronic pulmonary or cardiac disease, pregnancy or up to 2 weeks postpartum, immunosuppression, morbid obesity, and residents of long-term care — and in anyone hospitalised or deteriorating. A negative rapid antigen test does not exclude influenza during a local outbreak, so treat on clinical suspicion; PCR is the more sensitive confirmation.
Covered below under Topic 12 — Influenza
Question 2 of 3 · High Yield · COVID-19 · Paxlovid CYP3A4
A 65-year-old with AF on rivaroxaban develops mild-moderate COVID-19 (day 2). You plan to prescribe nirmatrelvir/ritonavir (Paxlovid). What is the MOST important concern?
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Correct answer: E — Rivaroxaban — ritonavir raises the bleeding risk
Ritonavir is a potent CYP3A4 inhibitor — significantly increases rivaroxaban exposure → increased bleeding risk. Options: (1) hold rivaroxaban during Paxlovid course + 3 days after; (2) switch to alternative anticoagulant; (3) use remdesivir instead. Always check full medication list before prescribing Paxlovid.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Lisinopril — contraindicated with ritonavir — Incorrect. ACE inhibitors are not metabolised via CYP3A4 to any clinically significant extent and have no meaningful interaction with ritonavir.
  • Aspirin — potentiates anticoagulant effect — Incorrect. Aspirin does add bleeding risk when combined with an anticoagulant, so the concern is not baseless — but this is a pharmacodynamic issue independent of Paxlovid, and it is not the drug-interaction the question targets.
  • Amlodipine — no clinically relevant interaction — Incorrect. The premise is wrong: amlodipine IS a CYP3A4 substrate and its levels rise with ritonavir, potentially causing hypotension and edema. It is a real interaction, just not the most dangerous one here.
  • Metformin — clinically significant interaction — Incorrect. Metformin is cleared renally without CYP metabolism and has no significant interaction with ritonavir.
Board pearlRitonavir is a potent CYP3A4 inhibitor, so prescribing Paxlovid is really a drug-interaction exercise: review the full medication list first. The high-risk partners are rivaroxaban and apixaban (bleeding), simvastatin and lovastatin (rhabdomyolysis, hold them), amiodarone, calcineurin inhibitors, and several antiarrhythmics and anticonvulsants. Options are to hold the interacting drug through the course plus three days, substitute, or use remdesivir instead. Treatment must start within 5 days of symptom onset.
Covered below under Topic 13 — COVID-19 (SARS-CoV-2)
Question 3 of 3 · High Yield · Fungal · Invasive Candidiasis
A 56-year-old ICU patient on broad-spectrum antibiotics and TPN for 2 weeks develops persistent fever. Blood cultures grow Candida albicans. Which is MOST appropriate initial antifungal?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: B — Caspofungin — an echinocandin
IDSA: echinocandin (caspofungin, micafungin, anidulafungin) is first-line for invasive candidiasis in critically ill patients — covers fluconazole-resistant Candida species, low toxicity, once-daily dosing. Mandatory: remove CVC + perform fundoscopic exam (endophthalmitis risk).
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Fluconazole 400 mg IV daily — first-line for all candidiasis — Incorrect. Fluconazole is appropriate for stable, non-neutropenic patients with fluconazole-susceptible isolates, and for step-down therapy. In a critically ill ICU patient with prior broad-spectrum exposure, echinocandins are preferred because resistant species are common.
  • Amphotericin B — broadest coverage, so first-line — Incorrect. Amphotericin has broad activity and is an alternative, particularly for CNS disease, but its nephrotoxicity and infusion reactions make it second-line when an echinocandin is available.
  • Voriconazole — covers Candida and Aspergillus — Incorrect. Voriconazole covers both organisms but offers no advantage over an echinocandin for candidemia, and it carries significant drug interactions, visual disturbance, and hepatotoxicity.
  • Oral nystatin — adequate for systemic candidiasis — Incorrect. Nystatin is not absorbed from the gut and works only topically in the oropharynx and GI lumen. It has no systemic activity and would leave candidemia entirely untreated.
Board pearlAn echinocandin — caspofungin, micafungin, or anidulafungin — is first-line for invasive candidiasis in the critically ill, because it covers fluconazole-resistant species such as C. glabrata and C. auris. Two steps are mandatory alongside the drug and are commonly the tested point: remove the central venous catheter and obtain a dilated fundoscopic examination for endophthalmitis. Step down to fluconazole only once the isolate is susceptible and the patient is stable. The classic setup is an ICU patient on broad-spectrum antibiotics with a central line and parenteral nutrition.
Covered below under Topic 14 — Fungal Infections · invasive candidiasis
Tier 1
Topic 12 ★ Gap Added
Influenza
Oseltamivir Timing · High-Risk Groups · Zanamivir Contraindication · Reye Syndrome
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Core Recognition
  • Classic: Abrupt onset fever (38.5–40°C) + myalgias + headache + dry cough + malaise — "hit by a truck" feeling
  • vs. Common cold: Flu = sudden onset, high fever, prominent myalgias. Cold = gradual, mild/no fever, nasal congestion predominant.
  • Diagnosis: Rapid influenza diagnostic test (RIDT) — fast but low sensitivity (~70%). RT-PCR is gold standard. Treat empirically if high clinical suspicion even if RIDT negative.
  • Complications: Primary influenza pneumonia; secondary bacterial pneumonia (S. pneumoniae, MRSA, H. influenzae); myocarditis; encephalitis
High-Risk Groups for Complications
  • Age ≥65 or <5 years (especially <2)
  • Pregnancy (up to 2 weeks postpartum)
  • Chronic conditions: pulmonary (COPD, asthma), cardiovascular, renal, hepatic, DM
  • Immunocompromised; Obesity (BMI ≥40); Long-term care facility residents
Antiviral Treatment
DrugRoute/DurationBoard Key
Oseltamivir (Tamiflu)75mg BID × 5 days POFirst-line for most patients. Safe in pregnancy. Adjust for renal impairment.
Zanamivir (Relenza)2 inhalations BID × 5 days (inhaled)CONTRAINDICATED in asthma/COPD — risk of severe bronchospasm
Baloxavir marboxil (Xofluza)Single oral dose (weight-based)Alternative for uncomplicated flu in low-risk outpatients
IV peramivir600mg IV × 1 doseFor hospitalized patients who cannot take oral/inhaled medications
⚑ Antiviral Timing — The Critical Rule
  • Maximum benefit within 48 hours of symptom onset — reduces duration ~1–2 days
  • Treat high-risk patients regardless of symptom duration — benefit persists beyond 48h in hospitalized/high-risk
  • Low-risk patients with symptoms >48h: Antivirals unlikely to benefit — supportive care
  • Treat confirmed or suspected flu WITHOUT waiting for test results in high-risk patients
Vaccination
  • Annual influenza vaccination for everyone ≥6 months
  • Adults ≥65: High-dose (Fluzone HD) or adjuvanted (Fluad) — superior immunogenicity
  • Live attenuated (FluMist): Preferred for healthy non-pregnant adults 2–49 years. Contraindicated: immunocompromised, pregnant, asthma/severe wheeze, <2yr, >49yr.
⚑ Board Traps — Influenza
  • Oseltamivir within 48 hours for maximum benefit — but give to high-risk patients regardless of duration
  • Zanamivir (inhaled) CONTRAINDICATED in asthma and COPD — severe bronchospasm risk
  • Negative rapid test does NOT rule out influenza — sensitivity ~70%. Treat if suspicious in high-risk patient.
  • Aspirin/salicylates CONTRAINDICATED in children with influenza — Reye syndrome (hepatic failure + encephalopathy)
  • Secondary MRSA pneumonia post-influenza: Patient improves then suddenly deteriorates → MRSA pneumonia. Add vancomycin or linezolid.
★ Memory Trick
Tamiflu timing: "48-hour rule — best within 48h. But give anyway in high-risk or hospitalized." Zanamivir: "Inhaled = no asthma, no COPD — bronchospasm risk" "Negative rapid test ≠ no flu — only 70% sensitive. Treat if suspicious." "Aspirin in kids + flu = Reye syndrome — NEVER" Secondary bacterial pneumonia: "Gets better → gets MUCH worse = MRSA. Add vancomycin."
Tier 1
Topic 13 ★ Gap Added
COVID-19 (SARS-CoV-2)
Paxlovid · Ritonavir CYP3A4 Interactions · Dexamethasone Indication · COVID-19 Antivirals
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Antiviral Treatment — High-Risk Outpatients
DrugMechanism/DurationBoard Key
Nirmatrelvir/ritonavir (Paxlovid)Protease inhibitor + CYP3A4 inhibitor booster. 5 days PO. Start within 5 days of onset.Multiple CYP3A4 drug interactions via ritonavir. ~85% reduction in hospitalization/death in high-risk.
RemdesivirRNA polymerase inhibitor. 3 days IV (outpatient) or 5 days IV (hospitalized non-ventilated)3-day IV course for high-risk outpatients who cannot take oral medications
MolnupiravirRNA polymerase inhibitor (mutagenic). 5 days PO.Less effective than Paxlovid. CONTRAINDICATED in pregnancy — mutagenic potential.
Dexamethasone 6mg/day × ≤10dAnti-inflammatoryONLY for hospitalized patients requiring O₂ or ventilatory support (RECOVERY trial). AVOID in non-O₂-requiring outpatients.
Paxlovid Drug Interactions — Critical for PANCE

Ritonavir is a potent CYP3A4 inhibitor — dramatically increases levels of co-administered drugs:

Drug CategoryExamplesAction Required
CYP3A4-metabolized statinsAtorvastatin, simvastatin, lovastatinHOLD during Paxlovid course — risk of myopathy/rhabdomyolysis. OK: rosuvastatin, pravastatin.
DOACsRivaroxaban, apixaban, warfarinDose adjustment or hold. Increase INR monitoring for warfarin.
ImmunosuppressantsTacrolimus, cyclosporine, sirolimusDramatic level increase → toxicity. Urgent dose reduction + level monitoring.
CYP3A4 inducers (reduce Paxlovid efficacy)Carbamazepine, phenytoin, phenobarbital, rifampinThese LOWER Paxlovid levels → choose alternative antiviral
Cardiac drugsAmiodarone, dronedarone, ranolazineAvoid — risk of serious arrhythmias
Severe / Hospitalized COVID-19
  • Dexamethasone 6mg daily × ≤10 days: All hospitalized patients requiring supplemental O₂ (RECOVERY trial)
  • Remdesivir 5-day course: For hospitalized patients not yet requiring mechanical ventilation
  • Baricitinib or tocilizumab: For rapidly increasing O₂ requirements
  • Therapeutic anticoagulation: Markedly elevated D-dimer = high VTE risk
⚑ Board Traps — COVID-19
  • Paxlovid drug interactions are a major board topic — hold CYP3A4-metabolized statins. Check tacrolimus in transplant patients. Anticoagulation dose adjustment.
  • Dexamethasone ONLY for O₂-requiring hospitalized patients — may worsen outcomes in non-hypoxic outpatients
  • Molnupiravir CONTRAINDICATED in pregnancy — mutagenic
  • Paxlovid "rebound": Symptom recurrence 2–8 days after completing course — supportive care; re-treatment not routine
  • Negative rapid antigen test in symptomatic patient: Confirm with PCR if clinical suspicion high
  • Start Paxlovid within 5 days of symptom onset
★ Memory Trick
Paxlovid: "Start within 5 days — check ALL medications for CYP3A4 interactions" "Hold the CYP3A4 statins (atorvastatin, simvastatin) — ritonavir makes levels skyrocket" Dexamethasone: "Only when they need O₂ — don't use in mild outpatient disease" Molnupiravir in pregnancy: "Mutagenic = NEVER in pregnancy"
Tier 2
Topic 14 ★ Gap Added
Fungal Infections
Invasive Candida · Aspergillus Halo Sign · Coccidioidomycosis · Histoplasmosis · Antifungal Selection
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High-Yield Pattern Recognition
OrganismEpidemiologyClassic PresentationDxTreatment
Candida (mucosal)Antibiotics, corticosteroids, DM, dentures, immunocompromisedOral thrush: white plaques (scrape off → raw surface). Esophageal: odynophagia + dysphagia.Clinical (oral); EGD (esophageal)Oral: nystatin. Esophageal: fluconazole × 14–21d.
Invasive CandidiasisICU, TPN, broad-spectrum ABx, central venous catheter, abdominal surgeryFever unresponsive to antibiotics in ICU. Can cause endophthalmitis.Blood cultures (50% sensitive). β-D-glucan. Fundoscopic exam mandatory in ALL candidemic patients.Echinocandin FIRST-LINE (caspofungin, micafungin). Fluconazole if stable + susceptible. Remove CVC.
Invasive AspergillosisProlonged neutropenia, stem cell transplant, high-dose corticosteroidsFever + non-responding pneumonia + CT "halo sign" (GGO surrounding nodule = early finding) or air-crescent sign (late)CT chest: halo sign. BAL galactomannan. Serum galactomannan.Voriconazole FIRST-LINE. Isavuconazole (alternative). Liposomal amphotericin B if azole-intolerant.
CoccidioidomycosisSouthwest US (AZ, CA, TX). Soil/dust exposure.Primary "Valley Fever": flu-like + cough + erythema nodosum/multiforme. Disseminated (immunocompromised): meningitis, bone/joint.Serology (IgM early, IgG late). Sputum culture.Mild: fluconazole. Severe: amphotericin B → fluconazole. Meningitis: LIFELONG fluconazole (100% relapse if stopped).
HistoplasmosisOhio/Mississippi river valleys; bird/bat droppings; caves. CD4 <150 = prophylaxis with itraconazole.Mimics TB. Progressive disseminated (immunocompromised): fever, weight loss, hepatosplenomegaly, oral ulcers, pancytopenia.Urine histoplasma antigen (BEST for acute disseminated). Serology.Mild: itraconazole. Moderate-severe: amphotericin B → itraconazole.
Antifungal Drug Selection — Quick Reference
  • Echinocandins (caspofungin, micafungin, anidulafungin): First-line for invasive candidiasis. Low toxicity. Not useful for Aspergillus, Cryptococcus, endemic fungi.
  • Azoles (fluconazole, voriconazole, itraconazole, posaconazole): Broad fungistatic activity. Multiple CYP drug interactions (tacrolimus, warfarin, statins).
  • Amphotericin B (liposomal preferred): Broadest spectrum — reserved for severe/refractory. Major toxicities: nephrotoxicity, infusion reactions, hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia.
⚑ Board Traps — Fungal Infections
  • Echinocandin first-line for invasive candidiasis — not fluconazole empirically (Candida resistance concerns)
  • CT "halo sign" = early invasive aspergillosis in neutropenic patient — start voriconazole empirically
  • Coccidioidomycosis meningitis = LIFELONG fluconazole — 100% relapse rate if stopped
  • Histoplasma urine antigen is best for acute disseminated disease — more sensitive than serology in acute illness
  • Fundoscopic exam mandatory in ALL candidemic patients — Candida endophthalmitis causes blindness
  • Azoles are potent CYP inhibitors — check all drug interactions before prescribing
Blueprint Gap Topics · Added 2025
Rheumatic Fever · EBV/Mononucleosis · VZV & HSV · Giardiasis & Amebiasis · Measles · Mumps · Rubella
Topics present on the 2025 NCCPA PANCE Blueprint not covered in prior modules — now fully integrated
Acute Rheumatic Fever
Jones Criteria · Post-Streptococcal · Carditis · Sydenham Chorea · Secondary Prophylaxis · Penicillin
EBV & Infectious Mononucleosis
Monospot · Posterior LAD · Splenomegaly · Amoxicillin Rash · Atypical Lymphocytes · Complications · No Contact Sports
Varicella-Zoster Virus (VZV) & Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV)
Chickenpox vs Shingles · Postherpetic Neuralgia · Ramsay Hunt · HSV Encephalitis · Neonatal HSV · Acyclovir Timing
Giardiasis & Amebiasis
Fecal-Oral · Steatorrhea · Trophozoites vs Cysts · Antigen Testing · Metronidazole · Hepatic Abscess
Measles, Mumps & Rubella
Koplik Spots · Cephalocaudal Rash · Orchitis · Congenital Rubella · MMR Vaccine · SSPE
Module D · Must-Know Differentials
High-Yield Differentials & Distinguishing Features
The following differentials represent the highest-frequency diagnostic challenges in infectious disease on the PANCE/PANRE. Each framework targets the single pivotal feature that separates one diagnosis from another — the exact decision point boards test.
Tier 1
Differential D-1
Fever + Rash — The Must-Not-Miss Differential
RMSF · Meningococcemia · Viral Exanthem · Drug Reaction · Secondary Syphilis · Toxic Shock
★★★ Most-Tested ID DifferentialMultiple Fatal Diagnosis Traps
The Pivotal Distinguishing Feature Table
DiagnosisRash CharacterKey Distinguishing FeatureCannot Miss
Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever (RMSF)Blanching macules/papules → petechiae → purpura. Starts wrists/ankles → spreads centrally (centripetal). Palms and soles involved.Tick exposure history (Dermacentor tick). Fever + rash on palms/soles = RMSF until proven otherwise.Start doxycycline IMMEDIATELY — do NOT wait for confirmatory testing. Delay = death. Even in children.
Meningococcemia (N. meningitidis)Petechial/purpuric rash — non-blanching. Rapid spread. May progress to purpura fulminans.Abrupt onset high fever + meningismus + non-blanching petechiae = meningococcemia. College student, complement deficiency, asplenia are risk factors.Blood cultures + IV ceftriaxone immediately. Rifampin prophylaxis for close contacts. Waterhouse-Friderichsen = bilateral adrenal hemorrhage.
Viral Exanthem (measles, rubella, EBV, enterovirus)Maculopapular, erythematous, blanching. Spreads cephalocaudally (head to toe) in measles.Koplik spots (white dots on buccal mucosa) = measles pathognomonic. EBV: posterior cervical lymphadenopathy + splenomegaly + atypical lymphocytes.Amoxicillin rash in EBV is maculopapular, not urticarial — does NOT mean penicillin allergy.
Drug-Induced Exanthem / SJS / TENMaculopapular → urticarial. SJS: targetoid lesions + mucosal involvement + epidermal detachment <10% BSA. TEN: >30% BSA detachment.Onset 1–3 weeks after starting new drug (allopurinol, sulfonamides, anticonvulsants, NSAIDs). Mucosal involvement = SJS/TEN not simple drug rash.SJS/TEN: stop the offending drug immediately. Burn unit care. Steroids controversial. Mortality in TEN up to 30%.
Secondary SyphilisCopper-colored maculopapular rash — characteristically involves palms and soles. Non-pruritic.Diffuse rash + palms/soles + lymphadenopathy + condyloma lata + 4–10 weeks after primary chancre. RPR/VDRL positive.Secondary syphilis rash is non-pruritic — if the rash itches, reconsider. Palm/sole involvement is the classic board clue.
Toxic Shock Syndrome (TSS)Diffuse sunburn-like erythroderma. Desquamation of palms/soles occurs 1–2 weeks later.Tampon use or wound infection + fever >38.9 + hypotension + diffuse sunburn rash + multi-organ involvement. S. aureus toxin (TSST-1) mediated.Streptococcal TSS is more severe (higher mortality ~30–60%). Source control (remove tampon, debride wound) is critical.
⚑ Board Traps — Fever + Rash
  • RMSF: "Rocky Mountain" is a misnomer — most cases occur in the South Atlantic states (North/South Carolina, Oklahoma, Arkansas, Tennessee). Not just the Rocky Mountains. History of tick bite in any endemic area = RMSF until proven otherwise.
  • Start doxycycline for RMSF before lab confirmation — indirect fluorescent antibody testing takes time. The window period (day 3–5 of illness) is when rash appears. Waiting for confirmation = death. This principle is tested repeatedly.
  • Amoxicillin rash in EBV is NOT a penicillin allergy — it is a pharmacologic reaction from the immune activation of EBV interacting with the aminopenicillin. The patient is NOT truly allergic and should not have "penicillin allergy" in their chart.
  • Non-blanching petechiae/purpura = emergent situation — meningococcemia or RMSF. Do not dismiss petechiae as "viral" in a febrile patient. A glass-press test (skin blanching with pressure) distinguishes purpura (non-blanching) from viral rash (blanching).
★ Memory Trick
RMSF: "Palms + Soles + Tick exposure = doxycycline NOW — don't wait" Meningococcemia: "Non-blanching petechiae + sick-looking patient = blood cultures + ceftriaxone" Secondary syphilis: "Copper penny rash on palms and soles = syphilis. Check RPR." "Fever + Rash + Sick = Doxy first, ask questions later"
Tier 1
Differential D-2
Meningitis — CSF Pattern Interpretation
Bacterial vs Viral vs Fungal vs TB · Opening Pressure · Cell Count · Glucose · Protein
★★★ PANCE PriorityLP Sequencing Trap
CSF Pattern Recognition — The Most-Tested Table in ID
TypeOpening PressureWBC (cells/μL)Predominant CellGlucoseProteinKey Feature
Bacterial↑↑ (>200)>1000 (100–10,000)Neutrophils (PMN)↓↓ (<45 mg/dL or <60% serum)↑↑ (>100 mg/dL)Gram stain + culture. Empiric: ceftriaxone + vancomycin + dexamethasone ± ampicillin
Viral (Aseptic)Normal or mildly ↑10–500 (usually <300)LymphocytesNormal (≥45)Normal or mildly ↑ (<100)Enteroviruses most common. HSV: lymphocytic pleocytosis + RBCs + temporal lobe changes. PCR diagnosis.
Fungal (Cryptococcus)↑↑↑ (often >300)5–100 (may be very low in immunosuppressed)LymphocytesIndia ink positive (60–80%). Cryptococcal antigen (CSF + serum) >99% sensitivity. HIV + CD4 <100.
TB Meningitis100–500Lymphocytes (early PMN possible)↓↓ (very low, can be <20)↑↑ (>100–500)Basilar meningitis on MRI. AFB smear low sensitivity. ADA elevated. Treat empirically if suspected.
Lyme MeningitisNormal or mildly ↑10–200LymphocytesNormalMildly ↑Lymphocytic pleocytosis + Lyme serology (ELISA → Western blot). Treat with IV ceftriaxone × 14–28 days.
LP Sequencing — The Most Tested Clinical Decision
⚑ The LP Decision Tree — Never Delay Antibiotics
  • No papilledema + no focal deficits + immunocompetent: Dexamethasone + antibiotics FIRST → LP immediately after (or simultaneously)
  • Papilledema OR focal deficits OR immunocompromised OR seizure: Blood cultures + dexamethasone + antibiotics → CT head → LP if safe
  • The golden rule: NEVER delay antibiotics waiting for CT or LP. Mortality increases ~7% for every hour of antibiotic delay in bacterial meningitis.
  • CSF culture remains positive for 2–4 hours after antibiotic administration — the LP is still valuable even if antibiotics have been given
⚑ Board Traps — Meningitis
  • Cephalosporins have ZERO Listeria coverage — add ampicillin for age >50, neonates, pregnancy, and immunocompromised. This is the most tested meningitis drug selection fact.
  • Dexamethasone before or with first antibiotic dose — proven to reduce neurological sequelae in S. pneumoniae meningitis. After the first dose, steroids lose benefit.
  • Cryptococcal meningitis: very high opening pressure — may need therapeutic LP to reduce ICP (target <20 cmH₂O). Treatment: liposomal amphotericin B + flucytosine induction → fluconazole consolidation/maintenance.
  • HSV encephalitis: Lymphocytic pleocytosis + RBCs in CSF + temporal lobe involvement on MRI + fever + altered mental status = treat empirically with IV acyclovir before PCR results return.
Tier 1
Differential D-3
Skin & Soft Tissue Infections — Cellulitis vs Abscess vs Necrotizing Fasciitis
Purulent vs Non-Purulent · MRSA Decision · Necrotizing Fasciitis Recognition · Surgical Emergency
★★★ PANCE PriorityNecrotizing Fasciitis Cannot Miss
The IDSA Framework — Purulent vs Non-Purulent
TypeOrganismTreatmentMRSA Coverage?
Non-purulent cellulitis (no pus, no abscess)β-hemolytic Streptococci (Groups A, B, C, G)Oral cephalexin or dicloxacillin × 5 days. IV if systemic toxicity, rapidly spreading, or immunocompromised.NOT needed — not MRSA disease
Purulent cellulitis / AbscessS. aureus (MRSA predominates in community)I&D is definitive for abscess. Add TMP-SMX or doxycycline for moderate purulent cellulitis or abscess with systemic signs.YES — CA-MRSA is the presumed organism
Severe cellulitis / SSTI with systemic toxicityPolymicrobial, MRSA, or streptococcalIV vancomycin (for MRSA) ± piperacillin-tazobactam (for polymicrobial). Hospital admission.YES — empiric MRSA coverage required
Necrotizing FasciitisType I: polymicrobial (Bacteroides + Streptococcus + coliforms). Type II: GAS alone (more aggressive).IMMEDIATE surgical debridement + IV broad-spectrum antibiotics (pip-tazo + vancomycin ± clindamycin for toxin suppression)SURGICAL EMERGENCY — mortality >30% if delayed
Necrotizing Fasciitis — The Clinical Recognition Challenge
  • Classic presentation: Severe pain out of proportion to skin findings, rapidly spreading erythema, woody hard induration, fever, systemic toxicity
  • The pain out of proportion sign: Early NF may look like benign cellulitis on the surface while deep fascia is necrotic. Pain dramatically exceeding the visible wound = NF until proven otherwise.
  • "Dishwater fluid" on surgical exploration: Gray-brown watery discharge with no frank pus = pathognomonic for polymicrobial necrotizing fasciitis
  • Gas in tissues on CT: Crepitus on exam or gas seen on CT = anaerobic organisms in the fascia = surgical emergency. Do NOT delay surgery for additional imaging if clinical diagnosis is clear.
  • LRINEC score (Lab Risk Indicator for Necrotizing Fasciitis): CRP + WBC + Hgb + Na + Cr + glucose — score ≥8 = high risk. Useful adjunct but does NOT replace clinical judgment.
⚑ Board Traps — SSTI
  • Non-purulent cellulitis does NOT need MRSA coverage — this is the most commonly missed SSTI principle. Non-purulent = streptococcal = beta-lactam is adequate. Routine empiric MRSA coverage for all cellulitis is incorrect.
  • Antibiotics alone are NOT sufficient for necrotizing fasciitis — surgery is the only cure. No antibiotic regimen can sterilize necrotic tissue. Delay in surgical debridement increases mortality dramatically.
  • Abscess treatment is incision and drainage — antibiotics alone fail for loculated purulent collections. I&D is the definitive treatment; antibiotics are adjunctive for surrounding cellulitis or systemic signs.
  • TMP-SMX does NOT adequately cover β-hemolytic streptococci — adequate CA-MRSA coverage but poor strep coverage. For non-purulent cellulitis, use cephalexin, not TMP-SMX.
Tier 1
Differential D-4
Urethral Discharge & STI Differential
Gonorrhea vs Chlamydia vs NGU vs Trichomonas · Treatment Selection · Partner Management
★★★ PANCE Priority
STI Presentation and Treatment Comparison
OrganismPresentationDiagnosisTreatment (CDC 2021)Board Key
Neisseria gonorrhoeaePurulent urethral/cervical discharge, dysuria. Men: purulent green/yellow discharge. Women: often asymptomatic.NAAT (most sensitive). Gram stain: intracellular diplococci.Ceftriaxone 500mg IM × 1 (1g if ≥150kg). MONOTHERAPY — no azithromycin added.No fluoroquinolones (widespread resistance). Always test + treat for chlamydia co-infection if not excluded by NAAT.
Chlamydia trachomatisOften asymptomatic (#1 reported STI in US). Mucopurulent discharge, dysuria, cervicitis, PID.NAAT.Doxycycline 100mg BID × 7 days (preferred over azithromycin — lower recurrence rate per 2021 update).Doxycycline now preferred over azithromycin for chlamydia. Major CDC 2021 update boards test directly.
Non-gonococcal urethritis (NGU)Mild discharge, dysuria, usually less purulent than GCNAAT negative for GC/chlamydia. May be Mycoplasma genitalium, Ureaplasma.Doxycycline 100mg BID × 7 days.If recurrent/persistent NGU: test for Mycoplasma genitalium → treat with moxifloxacin if positive.
Trichomonas vaginalisWomen: frothy yellow-green vaginal discharge + "strawberry cervix" + pruritus. Men: often asymptomatic.NAAT or wet prep (motile trichomonads).Metronidazole 2g PO × 1 (or 500mg BID × 7d for recurrent). Treat BOTH partners simultaneously.Concurrent treatment of sex partner is mandatory — very high re-infection rate without partner treatment.
Bacterial Vaginosis (BV)Thin gray-white discharge + fishy odor (worse after sex). Clue cells on wet prep. Whiff test positive.Amsel criteria (3 of 4) or Nugent score.Metronidazole 500mg BID × 7 days OR vaginal metronidazole gel × 5 days.BV is NOT an STI — it's a disruption of normal flora. Male partner treatment does NOT reduce recurrence (unlike trichomonas).
⚑ Board Traps — STIs
  • Gonorrhea: ceftriaxone MONOTHERAPY (no azithromycin co-treatment) — CDC 2021 changed from dual therapy. Azithromycin-resistant gonorrhea has increased. Monotherapy is now standard. If chlamydia cannot be excluded, add doxycycline separately.
  • Chlamydia: doxycycline now preferred over azithromycin — CDC 2021 update. Azithromycin has lower cure rates for rectal chlamydia and more treatment failures.
  • Syphilis in pregnancy: penicillin ONLY, no exceptions — doxycycline is contraindicated in pregnancy. Azithromycin has ~30% failure rate. Even with penicillin allergy, desensitization is mandatory.
  • BV partner treatment does NOT help — unlike trichomonas, treating the male partner does not reduce BV recurrence. This is the opposite of trichomonas management.
  • Disseminated gonococcal infection (DGI): Young sexually active adult + migratory polyarthralgia + tenosynovitis + skin lesions (pustular on erythematous base) = DGI. NAAT and cultures of all sites. IV ceftriaxone × 7 days.
Tier 1
Differential D-5
Fever in the Immunocompromised Host
HIV CD4 Thresholds · Neutropenic Fever · Transplant Recipient · Steroid-Induced Immunosuppression
★★★ PANCE Priority
HIV — CD4-Guided Differential
CD4 CountOI Prophylaxis ThresholdMust-Consider InfectionsBoard Key
<500No specific prophylaxis; start ARTBacterial pneumonia, TB reactivation, oral candidiasis, VZV reactivationStart ART regardless of CD4 — U=U (undetectable = untransmittable)
<200PCP prophylaxis: TMP-SMX DS daily (/atovaquone/pentamidine)Pneumocystis jirovecii (PCP) — bilateral GGO, dry cough, LDH elevatedPCP: TMP-SMX is treatment AND prophylaxis. Add prednisone if PaO₂ <70.
<100Toxoplasma prophylaxis: TMP-SMX DS covers both PCP and ToxoToxoplasmosis (multiple ring-enhancing lesions), Cryptococcal meningitis (India ink +, very high OP)Single ring-enhancing lesion = lymphoma. Multiple = toxo. Empiric toxo treatment × 2 weeks; if no improvement → biopsy.
<50MAC prophylaxis: azithromycin weeklyCMV retinitis (floaters + visual loss + "pizza pie" fundus), MAC (fever + weight loss + night sweats + elevated ALP), HistoplasmaCMV retinitis: IV ganciclovir (or oral valganciclovir). Irreversible blindness if untreated — urgent ophthalmology.
Neutropenic Fever — The Oncology Emergency
  • Definition: ANC <500 (or <1000 with predicted fall to <500) + single temperature ≥38.3°C OR ≥38°C sustained × 1 hour
  • Empiric antibiotic: anti-pseudomonal beta-lactam — cefepime, piperacillin-tazobactam, or meropenem. Within 1 hour of fever.
  • Add vancomycin ONLY if: hemodynamic instability, suspected CRBSI, pneumonia, skin/soft tissue infection, or known MRSA colonization — NOT routinely
  • Anti-fungal empiric therapy: Add if fever persists >4–7 days on antibiotics — echinocandin or liposomal amphotericin
  • G-CSF: Consider in high-risk neutropenic fever to accelerate ANC recovery
⚑ Board Traps — Immunocompromised Fever
  • TMP-SMX DS covers BOTH PCP prophylaxis AND Toxoplasma prophylaxis — one drug, two benefits. If a patient is on TMP-SMX, they are protected against both. If they cannot tolerate TMP-SMX, they need separate prophylaxis for each.
  • Single vs multiple ring-enhancing lesions in HIV: Single = CNS lymphoma (EBV-associated). Multiple = toxoplasmosis. Treat empirically for toxo × 2 weeks; if no improvement → brain biopsy for lymphoma. This exact scenario is tested every exam cycle.
  • CMV retinitis is an emergency — vision loss is irreversible without prompt treatment. Any HIV patient with CD4 <50 reporting visual symptoms (floaters, decreased acuity) needs urgent fundoscopic exam and ganciclovir.
  • Cryptococcal meningitis: therapeutic lumbar puncture for elevated ICP — the very high opening pressure causes vision loss and death independent of the infection itself. Drain CSF to target OP <20 cmH₂O daily until controlled.
Tier 1
Differential D-6
Infectious Diarrhea — Toxin-Mediated vs Invasive vs C. diff
Incubation Timing · Organism-to-Mechanism Mapping · When to Treat vs Observe · Anti-motility Traps
★★★ PANCE PriorityAnti-motility Agent Traps
Incubation Time → Organism Identification
IncubationMechanismOrganismKey FeatureTreatment
1–6 hoursPreformed toxinS. aureus (staph toxin), B. cereus (emetic)Rapid onset vomiting > diarrhea. Often after eating rice (B. cereus) or egg salad/deli meats (S. aureus). No fever.Supportive only — toxin already formed, antibiotics useless
8–16 hoursPreformed toxinC. perfringens, B. cereus (diarrheal)Diarrhea after beef stew, cafeteria food. Mild, self-limited <24h.Supportive only
1–3 daysInvasive / toxin-producingSalmonella, Shigella, Campylobacter, ETEC, VibrioFever + bloody diarrhea (Shigella, Campylobacter, Salmonella). ETEC = traveler's diarrhea (watery, no blood). Vibrio after raw oysters.Shigella: azithromycin or fluoroquinolone. Campylobacter: azithromycin. Salmonella: usually self-limited; treat if immunocompromised or <3 months.
3–5 daysShiga toxin + invasiveSTEC (E. coli O157:H7), EHECBloody diarrhea + HUS (microangiopathic hemolytic anemia + thrombocytopenia + AKI). Children and elderly.DO NOT give antibiotics — increases Shiga toxin release and HUS risk. Supportive care. No anti-motility agents.
Variable (post-antibiotic)Toxin A+B mediatedC. difficileRecent antibiotics + watery diarrhea ± pseudomembranes on colonoscopy. WBC >15K + Cr rise = severe.Vancomycin PO or fidaxomicin. Stop offending antibiotic. Contact precautions. Soap and water (alcohol gel fails).
Anti-motility Agents — The Board Trap Drug List
⚑ NEVER Give Anti-motility Agents (Loperamide, Diphenoxylate) in These Situations
  • E. coli O157:H7 / STEC infection — slows toxin clearance → increases HUS risk
  • Shigella (bloody dysentery) — prolongs illness, increases risk of toxic megacolon
  • C. difficile colitis — slows toxin clearance, can precipitate toxic megacolon
  • Febrile dysentery with bloody stool — any invasive bacterial cause. Anti-motility = harmful.
  • Safe to use: ETEC (watery traveler's diarrhea without blood or fever), viral gastroenteritis
⚑ Board Traps — Infectious Diarrhea
  • Antibiotics for E. coli O157:H7 increase HUS risk — the most dangerous ID board trap. STEC produces Shiga toxin. Antibiotics trigger toxin release → HUS. Never treat STEC with antibiotics.
  • Salmonella bacteremia risk: treat non-typhoidal Salmonella only if immunocompromised, <3 months old, or bacteremic — otherwise the illness is self-limited and antibiotics prolong the carrier state.
  • C. diff: metronidazole is no longer first-line — oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin for all initial episodes. Metro IV only in fulminant CDI with ileus + oral/rectal vancomycin simultaneously.
Tier 1
Differential D-7
Antibiotic Selection — Coverage Gaps & Contraindications
Penicillin Allergy Cross-Reactivity · MRSA Drugs · Anaerobic Coverage · Atypical Coverage · Pregnancy Safety
★★★ Most-Tested ID Pharmacology
Coverage Gaps — The Most Tested Antibiotic Facts
AntibioticDoes NOT CoverBoard Trap Scenario
Cephalosporins (all generations)Listeria monocytogenes, Enterococcus, MRSA (except ceftaroline)Immunocompromised meningitis — add ampicillin for Listeria coverage
NitrofurantoinSystemic infection, pyelonephritis, bacteremia, Proteus, Klebsiella (variable)Patient with pyelo started on nitrofurantoin — inadequate renal tissue levels
Azithromycin (macrolides)MRSA, gram-negatives (except atypicals)Gonorrhea treatment — azithromycin no longer recommended; ceftriaxone monotherapy per CDC 2021
MetronidazoleAerobic organisms, MRSABeing added to aspiration pneumonia — increases mortality per IDSA 2019 without benefit
TMP-SMXβ-hemolytic Streptococci, Pseudomonas, EnterococcusNon-purulent cellulitis — TMP-SMX targets MRSA but misses Strep; use cephalexin instead
FluoroquinolonesMRSA (except some activity), Bacteroides, EnterococcusCipro for aspiration pneumonia — no anaerobic or atypical coverage in older formulations
VancomycinGram-negative organisms, VRE (some strains), biofilm (needs higher levels)VISA/VRSA: use linezolid or daptomycin
Penicillin Allergy — The Most Over-Documented Allergy
  • ~90% of patients labeled "penicillin allergic" are not truly allergic — most reactions are non-allergic side effects (GI intolerance, rash without anaphylaxis).
  • Cross-reactivity between penicillin and cephalosporins: ~1–2% (much lower than previously thought 10%). Shared R1 side chain determines cross-reactivity, not the beta-lactam ring itself.
  • Cephalosporins are safe in patients with penicillin allergy UNLESS: prior anaphylaxis to penicillin AND structurally similar cephalosporin (same R1 side chain). Penicillin skin testing remains gold standard for evaluation.
  • Carbapenems: cross-reactivity with penicillin is very low (<1%) — can generally be used even with penicillin allergy history, especially if not anaphylaxis.
Antibiotic Contraindications in Special Populations
AntibioticContraindicated InAlternative
Doxycycline / TetracyclinesPregnancy (all trimesters), children <8 yearsAzithromycin in pregnancy. Amoxicillin for Lyme in kids <8. Exception: no alternative for RMSF — doxycycline is used even in children <8 if RMSF suspected.
FluoroquinolonesChildren (theoretical cartilage damage), pregnancy (relative CI), myasthenia gravis (worsens NMJ block)Beta-lactams for most pediatric/pregnancy infections. Avoid in MG.
NitrofurantoinPyelonephritis, bacteremia, CrCl <30 (inadequate concentration), term pregnancy (>38 weeks — risk of neonatal hemolytic anemia)Cephalexin or fosfomycin for UTI in pregnancy at term
MetronidazoleFirst trimester pregnancy (relative — teratogenicity concern); alcohol use during treatmentTopical metronidazole safer in first trimester. Avoid alcohol during and 48h after treatment.
AminoglycosidesPregnancy (ototoxicity/nephrotoxicity), CKD (nephrotoxic)Use with caution, monitor levels. Avoid if possible in pregnancy.
⚑ Board Traps — Antibiotic Selection
  • Doxycycline in children <8: ONE exception — RMSF. The risk of dental staining/bone effects from a short doxycycline course is far outweighed by the risk of death from untreated RMSF. Doxycycline is the drug of choice for RMSF in ALL ages.
  • Nitrofurantoin cannot be used for pyelonephritis — inadequate renal parenchymal levels. This is tested by giving a patient with fever + CVA tenderness + UTI a nitrofurantoin prescription and asking what's wrong.
  • Cephalosporins do NOT cover Listeria or Enterococcus — frequently tested in meningitis and endocarditis questions. For endocarditis caused by Enterococcus, penicillin/ampicillin + gentamicin is required.
Module E · Comprehensive Board Pearls
Board Pearls — Organized by Domain
These pearls represent the exact clinical decision points most frequently tested on PANCE/PANRE infectious disease questions — the specific facts and paradigm shifts that separate passing from failing candidates.
Tier 1
Board Pearls — Sepsis, CAP & Respiratory Infections
Sepsis-3 · SSC Bundle · CAP Antibiotics · Meningitis Sequence · Influenza
★★★ Highest Yield
  • Sepsis-3 = SOFA ≥2, NOT SIRS. qSOFA is a screening tool only — do NOT use qSOFA alone to diagnose sepsis per SSC 2021.
  • Norepinephrine is first-line vasopressor for septic shock — NOT dopamine (higher arrhythmia risk, SOAP II trial). Vasopressin is second-line at 0.03 units/min. Peripheral vasopressor initiation is now acceptable — do not wait for central access.
  • The 30 mL/kg crystalloid recommendation was downgraded to WEAK in SSC 2021. Use dynamic measures (passive leg raise, pulse pressure variation) to guide further resuscitation. Balanced crystalloids (LR) preferred over normal saline.
  • CAP inpatient regimen: ceftriaxone + azithromycin. Metronidazole added to aspiration pneumonia increases mortality — no anaerobic coverage in standard CAP. Reserve for lung abscess with putrid sputum.
  • Meningitis antibiotic sequence: dexamethasone BEFORE or WITH first antibiotic dose. Steroids given after the first dose provide no benefit. Never delay antibiotics for CT or LP.
  • Ampicillin must be added for Listeria coverage in patients >50 years, neonates, pregnant women, and immunocompromised. Cephalosporins have zero Listeria activity.
  • Influenza: negative rapid test does NOT exclude influenza — sensitivity only ~70%. Treat high-risk patients with oseltamivir regardless of test result and regardless of symptom duration.
  • Zanamivir (inhaled) is contraindicated in COPD and asthma — risk of severe bronchospasm. Use oral oseltamivir in all respiratory disease patients.
  • Reye syndrome: Aspirin + viral illness (influenza, VZV) in children → acute encephalopathy + liver failure. Never give aspirin to children with viral illness.
Tier 1
Board Pearls — STIs, C. diff, HIV & Lyme
CDC 2021 STI Updates · C. diff Paradigm Shifts · HIV CD4 Thresholds · Lyme Staging
★★★ Highest YieldMultiple Guideline Update Traps
  • Gonorrhea: ceftriaxone MONOTHERAPY — no azithromycin co-treatment (CDC 2021). Azithromycin-resistant gonorrhea increased significantly. If chlamydia not excluded by NAAT, add doxycycline 100mg BID × 7 days separately.
  • Chlamydia: doxycycline preferred over azithromycin (CDC 2021). Azithromycin has higher rectal chlamydia treatment failure rates. Doxycycline × 7 days is now first-line.
  • Syphilis in pregnancy: penicillin is the ONLY acceptable treatment. Doxycycline contraindicated. Azithromycin has ~30% failure rate. Desensitization is mandatory even with anaphylaxis history.
  • Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction: Fever + chills + rigors within 24 hours of penicillin treatment for syphilis (or Lyme, leptospirosis). NOT an allergic reaction. Treat with antipyretics + reassurance. Do NOT stop antibiotics.
  • C. diff: metronidazole is no longer first-line. Oral vancomycin 125mg QID × 10 days OR fidaxomicin 200mg BID × 10 days for ALL initial CDI episodes. Metro IV only in fulminant CDI with ileus + oral/rectal vancomycin.
  • C. diff hand hygiene: soap and water required — alcohol gel does NOT kill spores. The most important infection control distinction for C. diff. Tested every exam cycle.
  • FMT (fecal microbiota transplant) >85% cure rate for recurrent CDI — superior to antibiotics for ≥3 recurrences. Bezlotoxumab (anti-toxin B monoclonal antibody) reduces recurrence in high-risk patients.
  • HIV CD4 thresholds — memorize all four: <200 = PCP prophylaxis (TMP-SMX). <100 = add Toxo prophylaxis (TMP-SMX covers both). <50 = add MAC prophylaxis (azithromycin weekly) + CMV risk. U=U: start ART immediately regardless of CD4.
  • Single ring-enhancing lesion in HIV = CNS lymphoma (EBV). Multiple lesions = toxoplasmosis. Empirically treat for toxo × 2 weeks; if no improvement → brain biopsy. Serum Toxoplasma IgG negative = toxo less likely (95% sensitive for prior exposure).
  • Lyme bilateral facial palsy = Stage 2 early disseminated disease. Treat with oral doxycycline × 14–21 days (not IV unless CNS involvement beyond isolated cranial neuropathy). Positive serology persists for years after treatment — do NOT re-treat based on serology alone.
Tier 1
Board Pearls — Endocarditis, SSTI & Fungal Infections
Duke Criteria · Organism-Patient Pairing · Necrotizing Fasciitis · Invasive Candidiasis · Antifungal Selection
★★★ Highest Yield
  • S. gallolyticus (bovis) endocarditis = colonoscopy mandatory. ~60% association with colorectal neoplasia. Non-negotiable board fact — appears in every ID exam.
  • S. aureus endocarditis in IVDU: tricuspid valve. Strep viridans: mitral/aortic (after dental procedure). Gram-negative (HACEK): subacute, large friable vegetations. Enterococcus: GI/GU procedures.
  • Osler nodes = tender (immune complex deposition). Janeway lesions = painless (septic emboli). Both are peripheral stigmata of endocarditis — the tenderness is the distinguishing feature.
  • Duke Criteria: 2 major, 1 major + 3 minor, or 5 minor = definite endocarditis. Major criteria: positive blood cultures (standard organisms × 2, or persistent) + positive echocardiogram (vegetation, abscess, or new prosthetic dehiscence).
  • Non-purulent cellulitis: β-hemolytic strep, treat with cephalexin — NOT TMP-SMX. Purulent/abscess: presumed S. aureus/MRSA, treat with TMP-SMX + I&D.
  • Necrotizing fasciitis: surgical debridement is the only cure. "Dishwater fluid" + crepitus + pain out of proportion + rapidly spreading = emergent surgery. No antibiotic regimen is sufficient without debridement.
  • Invasive candidiasis in ICU: echinocandin first-line (caspofungin, micafungin, anidulafungin). Fluconazole acceptable for stable patients with susceptible species. Mandatorily: remove all CVCs and perform fundoscopic exam (endophthalmitis in ~5–10%).
  • Aspergillus: halo sign on CT (ground-glass halo around pulmonary nodule) in neutropenic/immunocompromised patient. First-line treatment: voriconazole (NOT amphotericin B — inferior per IDSA 2016 guidelines).
  • Geographic fungi memory map: Ohio/Mississippi valley = Histoplasma. Southwest US desert = Coccidioides. Great Lakes/Pacific Northwest = Blastomyces.
  • Coccidioidomycosis meningitis: lifelong fluconazole maintenance required — 100% relapse rate if stopped. Unlike most other fungal infections, cannot be "cured" and discontinued.
Tier 1
Board Pearls — COVID-19, Antivirals & ID Pharmacology
Paxlovid CYP3A4 · Dexamethasone Threshold · COVID-19 Antivirals · RIPE Toxicity · Drug Interactions
★★★ Highest Yield
  • Paxlovid (nirmatrelvir/ritonavir): ritonavir is a potent CYP3A4 inhibitor. Check all medications before prescribing. Critical interactions: rivaroxaban, apixaban (increased bleeding), tacrolimus/cyclosporine (toxic levels), statin toxicity, many others. Always use an interaction checker.
  • Paxlovid window: must be prescribed within 5 days of symptom onset. Most effective within 3 days. Not beneficial after day 5 of symptoms.
  • Molnupiravir is contraindicated in pregnancy — mutagenic mechanism (incorporates into viral RNA). Women of childbearing age must use effective contraception during and 4 days after treatment.
  • Dexamethasone in COVID-19: only for patients requiring supplemental oxygen or ventilation. RECOVERY trial: dexamethasone 6mg daily × 10 days reduces mortality in moderate-severe COVID. Harms patients who do NOT need oxygen.
  • Remdesivir: 3-day IV course for non-hospitalized high-risk COVID-19 within 7 days of symptom onset. Also used for hospitalized patients not on mechanical ventilation.
  • RIPE therapy toxicity — memorize all four: Rifampin = orange body fluids (benign) + potent CYP450 inducer (reduces OCP/warfarin/methadone levels). Isoniazid = peripheral neuropathy (give B6/pyridoxine) + hepatotoxicity. Pyrazinamide = hyperuricemia (gout). Ethambutol = optic neuritis (monitor color vision monthly).
  • Rifampin drug interactions: reduces levels of warfarin, OCPs, methadone, many HIV antiretrovirals, azole antifungals, steroids. Counsel patients on alternative contraception. May precipitate TB treatment failure if interacting drugs not adjusted.
  • Doxycycline in children <8: use for RMSF regardless of age. The mortality risk of untreated RMSF (high) vastly exceeds the risk of dental staining from a short doxycycline course. This is explicitly stated in CDC guidelines.
  • Tick prophylaxis after Ixodes bite: single dose doxycycline 200mg within 72 hours if tick attached ≥36 hours, in an endemic area, and patient is not pregnant and is ≥8 years old. Reduces risk of Lyme transmission by ~87%.
  • Amphotericin B toxicity: infusion-related reactions (fever, rigors, hypotension) + nephrotoxicity. Pre-medicate with acetaminophen + diphenhydramine ± meperidine for rigors. Liposomal formulation has significantly less nephrotoxicity — preferred in most settings.
Fast Review
10 Rapid-Fire ID Clinical Pearls
Clinical Emergency List
10 "Don't Miss" ID Emergencies
1. Septic Shock
MAP <65 + vasopressor requirement + lactate >2 after fluids. Mortality >40%. Start norepinephrine peripherally — do NOT wait for central line. Antibiotics within 1 hour. Blood cultures first but do NOT delay antibiotics. Hydrocortisone 200mg/day if vasopressor-refractory.
2. Bacterial Meningitis
Fever + headache + neck stiffness. Petechiae/purpura = N. meningitidis emergency. Dexamethasone + antibiotics FIRST. Never delay for CT or LP. Blood cultures → dexa → vanc + ceftriaxone (+ ampicillin if >50/immunocompromised) → LP/CT. Hours to permanent damage.
3. Necrotizing Fasciitis
"Pain out of proportion to exam" + rapid skin progression + crepitus. Immediate surgical debridement. CT (gas in fascia) if unclear — do NOT delay surgery for imaging if NF is clinically obvious. Broad-spectrum IV antibiotics (vanc + pip-tazo). Mortality increases 9% per hour of surgical delay.
4. Waterhouse-Friderichsen Syndrome
Meningococcal septicemia → bilateral adrenal hemorrhage → DIC + purpura fulminans + cardiovascular collapse. Treat meningococcal infection + stress-dose corticosteroids (hydrocortisone 100mg IV bolus) immediately. DIC management: FFP, platelets. Prophylaxis for contacts: rifampin, cipro, or IM ceftriaxone × 1 dose.
5. Cryptococcal Meningitis with Elevated ICP
LP opening pressure >25 cm H₂O + cryptococcal meningitis. ALWAYS measure opening pressure. Elevated ICP causes vision loss, hearing loss, and death from herniation. Serial therapeutic LPs (remove 20–30 mL, target OP <20 cm) or lumbar drain. Start amphotericin B + flucytosine immediately.
6. Fulminant C. difficile Colitis
Hypotension + ileus + toxic megacolon (colon >6cm) + WBC >30K. Vancomycin 500mg PO QID + metronidazole 500mg IV TID + vancomycin per rectum (if ileus). Surgical consultation urgently. Colectomy if peritonitis, perforation, or no response in 24–48h. Stop all inciting antibiotics.
7. Invasive Aspergillosis in Neutropenia
Prolonged fever in neutropenic patient + CT "halo sign" (GGO surrounding nodule). Start voriconazole empirically — do NOT wait for culture confirmation. Galactomannan from BAL/serum. G-CSF to recover neutrophil count. Mortality >50% untreated.
8. Severe Lyme Carditis (3rd-Degree AV Block)
Young patient (endemic area) + complete heart block + Lyme serology positive. Temporary transvenous pacemaker for hemodynamic instability + IV ceftriaxone 2g daily × 14–21 days. AV block typically resolves completely — permanent pacemaker rarely needed.
9. Secondary MRSA Pneumonia Post-Influenza
Patient improving from flu → sudden clinical deterioration → new cavitating infiltrates + high fever. Think MRSA post-influenza pneumonia. S. aureus (including MRSA) is the most common secondary pathogen. Add vancomycin or linezolid. High mortality — early recognition is critical.
10. Toxic Shock Syndrome
Staph TSS: Fever + diffuse erythroderma ("sunburn rash") + hypotension + multi-organ failure. Retained tampon, nasal packing, wound. Remove source immediately. IV vancomycin + clindamycin (suppresses toxin production). Streptococcal TSS: Group A Strep, often with NF — surgical debridement + penicillin + clindamycin + IVIG.
Chapter Summary
Top 22 ID Board Traps
The patterns that consistently separate passing from failing on ID questions.
22 Traps · All Domains
1
Sepsis — Definition
Sepsis-3 = ORGAN DYSFUNCTION (SOFA ≥2), NOT SIRS. qSOFA is a screening tool NOT a diagnostic criterion — SSC 2021 recommends AGAINST using qSOFA alone.
2
Sepsis — Vasopressor
Norepinephrine is first-line (NOT dopamine). Vasopressin is second-line. Peripheral initiation is acceptable — do NOT wait for central venous access.
3
CAP — Aspiration
Do NOT add anaerobic coverage for aspiration pneumonia — 5–6% higher mortality (ATS/IDSA 2019). Standard CAP antibiotics are adequate.
4
UTI — Nitrofurantoin
Nitrofurantoin = CYSTITIS ONLY. Does not achieve adequate renal tissue concentrations. NEVER for pyelonephritis. Same rule applies to fosfomycin.
5
UTI — ASB
Treat ASB ONLY in pregnancy and before urologic procedures. Do NOT treat in elderly, diabetics, catheterized patients, or nursing home residents.
6
Meningitis — Listeria
Add AMPICILLIN for Listeria in patients >50, neonates, pregnant, immunocompromised. Cephalosporins have ZERO Listeria activity.
7
Meningitis — Dexamethasone
Dexamethasone BEFORE or WITH first antibiotic dose — post-antibiotic dexa has NO benefit. Never delay antibiotics for LP or CT.
8
Endocarditis — S. bovis
S. bovis/gallolyticus IE = mandatory colonoscopy (~60% colorectal neoplasia). Osler = painful (immune). Janeway = painless (septic emboli).
9
STI — Gonorrhea
Gonorrhea = ceftriaxone MONOTHERAPY — azithromycin co-treatment NO LONGER recommended (CDC 2021). Chlamydia = doxycycline PREFERRED over azithromycin.
10
STI — Syphilis in Pregnancy
Penicillin ONLY for syphilis in pregnancy. If penicillin-allergic → desensitize and treat. Doxycycline and azithromycin are NOT alternatives in pregnancy.
11
C. diff — Metronidazole
Metronidazole NO LONGER first-line for CDI. Vancomycin or fidaxomicin for all initial episodes. Metro IV only in fulminant CDI with ileus.
12
C. diff — Hand Hygiene
Soap and water only for C. diff — alcohol sanitizers do NOT kill spores. This is the key infection control distinction from other pathogens.
13
HIV — Ring Lesion
Single ring-enhancing lesion = CNS lymphoma (EBV). Multiple = Toxoplasmosis. TMP-SMX provides dual prophylaxis for PCP AND Toxo below CD4 <100.
14
HIV — MAC Prophylaxis
MAC prophylaxis NO LONGER routinely recommended if ART is started immediately (2024 update). PCP corticosteroids required if PaO₂ <70 or A-a gradient >35.
15
SSTI — MRSA Coverage
Nonpurulent cellulitis = β-hemolytic Streptococcus, NOT MRSA. Routine MRSA coverage not indicated. Purulent SSTI: I&D is primary treatment — antibiotics alone insufficient.
16
Lyme — Bilateral Bell Palsy
Bilateral Bell palsy = Lyme disease until proven otherwise. Bull's-eye rash = treat without serology in endemic area. Post-treatment serology stays positive — ≠ active infection.
17
Influenza — Testing
Negative rapid influenza test does NOT rule out influenza (sensitivity ~70%). Treat high-risk patients regardless of test result or duration. Zanamivir CONTRAINDICATED in asthma/COPD.
18
COVID — Dexamethasone
Dexamethasone ONLY for O₂-requiring hospitalized patients. Do NOT give to non-hypoxic outpatients — may worsen early disease.
19
COVID — Paxlovid
Ritonavir (Paxlovid) = potent CYP3A4 inhibitor. Hold atorvastatin/simvastatin. Adjust rivaroxaban/apixaban/warfarin. Tacrolimus levels increase dramatically.
20
Fungal — Invasive Candida
Echinocandin (caspofungin/micafungin) first-line for invasive candidiasis — not fluconazole empirically. Fundoscopic exam mandatory in ALL candidemic patients.
21
TB — TST Cutoffs
The TST cutoff depends on the patient: 5 / 10 / 15 mm. ≥5 mm: HIV, recent close contact, fibrotic CXR, immunosuppressed. ≥10 mm: health care workers, recent immigrants, IVDU, children <5, diabetes/ESRD. ≥15 mm: no risk factors. Prior BCG does NOT raise the cutoff — use an IGRA.
22
TB — Latent vs Active
NEVER treat latent TB before excluding active disease — single-drug therapy against active TB breeds resistance. A positive TST/IGRA is never the endpoint: the next step is ALWAYS chest X-ray + symptom screen. Active TB is reportable to the health department.
Quick-Scan Reference — Numbers That Win Points
SEPSIS ANTIBIOTICS
Within 1 hour
Each hour delay ↑ mortality ~7%
SYPHILIS IN PREGNANCY
Penicillin ONLY
Desensitize if allergic
HIV OI THRESHOLDS
<200 PCP · <100 Toxo
<50 CMV, MAC, CNS lymphoma
C. DIFF SEVERITY
Severe: WBC >15K or Cr ≥1.5
Fulminant: hypotension/ileus
TICK PROPHYLAXIS
Doxy 200mg × 1 dose
If attached ≥36 hours
TAMIFLU TIMING
Best <48h onset
Give anyway if high-risk
PAXLOVID WINDOW
Within 5 days onset
Check ALL CYP3A4 interactions
RIPE THERAPY (TB)
2 months RIPE
+ 4 months RI = 6 months total
Supplemental Practice · Retired from Pre-Read
Additional High-Yield Questions
These three questions were moved out of the domain pre-reads to make room for core-blueprint items. The content remains testable — work them after you have finished the chapter.
After you finishPID · C. difficile · Coccidioidomycosis3 questions
Work these three once you have read the chapter. Each covers material that appears on the PANCE but sits outside the six core Infectious Disease topics — treat them as reinforcement, not as your first pass.
Enter your bootcamp access code above to unlock these questions along with the rest of this chapter.
Question 1 of 3 · Medium · Pelvic Inflammatory Disease — CDC 2021 Regimen
A 22-year-old sexually active woman has vaginal discharge, dyspareunia, lower abdominal pain, and cervical motion tenderness, consistent with pelvic inflammatory disease. What is the current CDC 2021 recommended treatment regimen, including the key change from prior guidelines?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: A — Ceftriaxone IM plus doxycycline and metronidazole × 14 days
The CDC 2021 STI treatment guidelines updated the PID regimen to ceftriaxone 500mg IM (a single dose) plus doxycycline 100mg twice daily for 14 days plus metronidazole 500mg twice daily for 14 days. The key change from prior guidelines is the INCREASED ceftriaxone dose — from 250mg to 500mg — reflecting concerns about evolving gonococcal resistance patterns and the need for more robust gonococcal coverage. Metronidazole is now routinely included to cover anaerobic organisms, even in the absence of confirmed trichomoniasis or bacterial vaginosis.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Ceftriaxone 500 mg IM alone, with no oral antibiotic coverage — Incorrect. While ceftriaxone 500mg IM is part of the regimen (addressing gonococcal coverage), it must be combined with oral doxycycline (for chlamydia coverage) and metronidazole (for anaerobic coverage) to adequately treat the typically polymicrobial nature of PID.
  • Azithromycin 1 g orally plus ceftriaxone 250 mg IM — Incorrect. This reflects outdated guidance — azithromycin has been removed from the first-line PID/gonorrhea treatment regimen due to rising resistance concerns, and the ceftriaxone dose has been increased to 500mg, not maintained at 250mg.
  • The duration remains 7 days, unchanged from before — Incorrect. The treatment duration for the oral components (doxycycline and metronidazole) is 14 days, not 7 days — this duration has been consistent across recent guideline iterations, with the primary 2021 change being the increased ceftriaxone dose.
  • Doxycycline monotherapy for 14 days is sufficient — Incorrect. Doxycycline monotherapy is inadequate for PID — combination therapy covering gonorrhea (ceftriaxone), chlamydia (doxycycline), and anaerobes (metronidazole) remains the standard approach, reflecting the typically polymicrobial nature of PID.
Board pearlThe CDC 2021 change to remember is the ceftriaxone dose rising from 250 mg to 500 mg, reflecting gonococcal resistance — and outpatient PID is ceftriaxone once plus doxycycline and metronidazole for 14 days. Metronidazole is now included routinely rather than optionally, for anaerobic and bacterial-vaginosis coverage. Diagnosis is deliberately permissive: cervical motion, uterine, or adnexal tenderness in an at-risk woman is enough to treat, because the cost of missing PID is infertility.
Covered below under Topic 3 — Sexually Transmitted Infections (STIs)
Question 2 of 3 · High Yield · C. diff Treatment — Metronidazole Demotion
A 72-year-old hospitalized patient develops 8 watery stools per day for 4 days following a 10-day course of clindamycin. C. diff toxin PCR is positive. WBC is elevated. What is the first-line treatment according to current IDSA guidelines, including the major paradigm shift in this area?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: C — Oral vancomycin 125 mg QID or fidaxomicin for 10 days
The single most important recent update in C. diff management is the demotion of metronidazole — it is NO LONGER recommended as first-line therapy for C. diff infection of any severity (including non-severe disease), having been replaced by oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin as first-line options. This was a major guideline change that has been heavily tested since its implementation. Metronidazole is now reserved only for situations where vancomycin/fidaxomicin are unavailable, often in combination with IV metronidazole for severe/fulminant disease.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Oral metronidazole 500 mg three times daily × 10–14 days — Incorrect. This reflects outdated guidance — metronidazole has been demoted from first-line status in current IDSA guidelines, replaced by oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin, which are now the preferred initial treatments for C. diff infection of any severity.
  • Fecal microbiota transplant as first-line for this episode — Incorrect. Fecal microbiota transplant is reserved for recurrent C. diff infection (typically after 2 or more recurrences), not as first-line treatment for an initial episode — oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin are appropriate first-line choices here.
  • No specific therapy — stopping clindamycin is enough — Incorrect. While discontinuing the inciting antibiotic (clindamycin) is appropriate, this patient has active, symptomatic C. diff infection (8 stools/day, positive toxin PCR, elevated WBC) requiring specific treatment with oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin — discontinuing clindamycin alone is inadequate.
  • IV metronidazole alone is the preferred route here — Incorrect. IV metronidazole is reserved as an ADJUNCT for severe/fulminant C. diff (often combined with oral vancomycin), not as monotherapy for this presentation — oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin remain the first-line choices for standard severity C. diff.
Board pearlMetronidazole is no longer first-line for C. difficile at any severity — the shift to oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin is one of the most heavily tested recent updates. Metronidazole survives only where those are unavailable. For a first recurrence use a tapered vancomycin course or fidaxomicin; for multiple recurrences consider faecal microbiota transplant. Two further traps: treat only symptomatic patients, since colonisation is common and test-of-cure is never indicated, and alcohol gel does not kill spores — soap and water.
Covered below under Topic 9 — Clostridioides difficile Infection
Question 3 of 3 · High Yield · Disseminated Coccidioidomycosis
A 26-year-old HIV-positive man (CD4 44, not on ART) from Arizona has fever, weight loss, and a persistent cough for 3 weeks, with imaging suggesting disseminated coccidioidomycosis. How does management differ between this immunocompromised patient and an immunocompetent person with the same infection?
Click to Reveal Answer
Correct answer: D — Therapy depends on immune status and extent of disease
Coccidioidomycosis ('Valley Fever,' endemic to the Southwest US including Arizona) often resolves spontaneously or with brief observation in immunocompetent hosts with mild, localized pulmonary disease, or can be treated with fluconazole for 3-6 months in more symptomatic cases. In contrast, this HIV-positive patient with a low CD4 count (44) and evidence of DISSEMINATED disease requires a fundamentally more aggressive approach: typically amphotericin B for initial severe/disseminated disease, followed by extended (often lifelong, or until significant immune reconstitution) fluconazole maintenance therapy, combined with initiation of antiretroviral therapy to address the underlying immunosuppression driving the dissemination risk.
Why the other choices are wrong
  • Management is identical regardless of immune status — Incorrect. Immune status dramatically changes both the clinical course (localized vs disseminated disease) and the required treatment intensity and duration — immunocompromised patients with dissemination require substantially more aggressive and prolonged therapy than immunocompetent patients with mild localized disease.
  • No antifungal therapy — the disease is self-limited — Incorrect — and dangerous. While self-limited resolution can occur in immunocompetent hosts with mild disease, DISSEMINATED coccidioidomycosis in a significantly immunocompromised host (CD4 44) requires aggressive antifungal treatment — this is not a self-limited presentation in this clinical context.
  • Voriconazole is the drug of choice in HIV patients — Incorrect. Amphotericin B (for initial severe/disseminated disease) followed by fluconazole maintenance is the standard approach for coccidioidomycosis — voriconazole is not the first-line choice for this particular fungal infection.
  • Delay ART until the fungal infection fully resolves — Incorrect. While immune reconstitution inflammatory syndrome (IRIS) is a real consideration, current practice generally favors earlier ART initiation in most opportunistic infections (with some specific exceptions like cryptococcal meningitis, where slightly delayed ART may reduce IRIS risk) — ART should not be broadly delayed until complete fungal infection resolution, since untreated HIV perpetuates the underlying immunosuppression.
Board pearlImmune status changes the whole plan for the endemic fungi. Mild localized coccidioidomycosis in an immunocompetent host may need only observation, whereas disseminated disease in advanced HIV needs amphotericin B induction followed by lifelong fluconazole plus antiretroviral therapy. Match the geography on the exam: Coccidioides to the desert Southwest, Histoplasma to the Ohio and Mississippi valleys and bird or bat droppings, Blastomyces to the Great Lakes and southeast. Any dissemination to bone, skin, or meninges upgrades the urgency regardless of host.
Covered below under Topic 14 — Fungal Infections · see also Topic 1
⬡ Closing Statement
"Infectious disease on the PANCE tests judgment, not just drug names. The metronidazole that's no longer first-line for C. diff. The nitrofurantoin that stops at the bladder. The dexa that must come before the antibiotic. The ampicillin forgotten in the immunocompromised patient with meningitis. These are not trick questions — they are the exact decisions that separate the clinician who causes harm from the one who prevents it."
— Rajiv Choudhary, MD, MPH
● LIVE STRIP25mm/s
⚑ Board Trap